GMAT Focus Edition Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Using the same rental formula, the mileage giving an $80 total is:

180
220
200 (Correct answer)
150

Correct answer: 200

30 + 0.25m = 80 gives 0.25m = 50, so m = 200.

Question 2: The interquartile range (IQR) of a data set is 18. Q1 = 22. What is Q3?

4
44
36
40 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40

IQR = Q3 − Q1 → Q3 = Q1 + IQR = 22 + 18 = 40.

Question 3: If p:q = 3:5 and q:r = 2:7, what is p:r?

6:35 (Correct answer)
3:7
5:21
6:21

Correct answer: 6:35

Make q common: p:q = 6:10 and q:r = 10:35, so p:r = 6:35.

Question 4: If an integer is divisible by both 4 and 9, it must also be divisible by:

18
72
36 (Correct answer)
13

Correct answer: 36

Since 4 and 9 are coprime, divisibility by both forces divisibility by 4*9 = 36.

Question 5: Three friends split a bill so that the second pays twice the first and the third pays $10 more than the first. If the total is $70, how much does the first pay?

$10
$15 (Correct answer)
$20
$12

Correct answer: $15

x + 2x + (x+10) = 70 gives 4x = 60, so x = 15.

Question 6: How many hours did the trip take? (1) The distance was 150 miles (2) The average speed was 50 mph

Both together but neither alone (Correct answer)
Each alone is sufficient
Statement (2) alone is sufficient
Statement (1) alone is sufficient

Correct answer: Both together but neither alone

Time = distance ÷ speed = 150/50 = 3 hours, requiring both statements.

Question 7: A company's revenue R and cost C satisfy R = 5x and C = 2x + 60, where x is units sold. If you must pick values of x that make profit exactly zero and profit equal to 30, what is x for zero profit?

20 (Correct answer)
15
10
30

Correct answer: 20

Profit = R - C = 5x - (2x + 60) = 3x - 60; setting to 0 gives x = 20.

Question 8: What is the average (arithmetic mean) of all tens from 10 to 190 inclusive?

90
95
105
100 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100

The numbers are an arithmetic progression: 10, 20, ..., 190. The average of an arithmetic progression is simply the sum of the first and last term divided by 2. Therefore, the average is (10 + 190) / 2 = 200 / 2 = 100.

Question 9: If instead the target is a 50% acid mixture by equal combination with a 60% solution, the other solution must be:

45%
50%
40% (Correct answer)
30%

Correct answer: 40%

(x + 60)/2 = 50 gives x = 40%.

Question 10: An argument attacks a claim by questioning the reliability of its source rather than its content. This method is:

Analogy
Deductive proof
Challenging the credibility of the evidence (Correct answer)
Reductio ad absurdum

Correct answer: Challenging the credibility of the evidence

Casting doubt on the source's reliability undercuts the evidence's credibility.

Question 11: An analyst argues that lowering prices will raise total revenue. Which most strengthens this prediction?

The company has low debt
Demand for the product is highly sensitive to price changes (Correct answer)
Competitors charge similar prices
The product is well known

Correct answer: Demand for the product is highly sensitive to price changes

High price sensitivity means a lower price draws enough extra buyers to increase total revenue.

Question 12: The two pie charts below show the market share of laptop brands in Year 1 and Year 2. The total number of laptops sold was 1.5 million in Year 1 and 2.0 million in Year 2. \[Image of two pie charts. Year 1 (Total: 1.5M units): Brand A=20%, Brand B=50%, Others=30%. Year 2 (Total: 2.0M units): Brand A=30%, Brand B=45%, Others=25%] What was the absolute increase in the number of units sold by Brand A from Year 1 to Year 2?

150,000
100,000
300,000 (Correct answer)
500,000

Correct answer: 300,000

To find the absolute increase, you must first calculate the number of units sold by Brand A in each year and then find the difference. - Year 1 units for Brand A: 20% of 1,500,000 = 0.20 * 1,500,000 = 300,000. - Year 2 units for Brand A: 30% of 2,000,000 = 0.30 * 2,000,000 = 600,000. - Absolute increase: 600,000 - 300,000 = 300,000 units.

Question 13: In Multi-Source Reasoning, an email says 'all qualified candidates passed the interview' and a list shows Candidate X passed but was unqualified. What can you conclude?

The email remains fully consistent (Correct answer)
X failed the interview
X must be qualified
The email is contradicted

Correct answer: The email remains fully consistent

The email only claims qualified candidates passed; it says nothing about unqualified ones, so X passing does not contradict it.

Question 14: An ad claims a supplement boosts memory because users scored higher on a test after taking it. What assumption does this rely on?

The test was difficult
The supplement is FDA approved
No other factor caused the score improvement (Correct answer)
Users took the supplement daily

Correct answer: No other factor caused the score improvement

The causal claim assumes the supplement, not some confounding factor, produced the gain.

Question 15: A graph shows that Company Z's stock price followed this path: Jan=$40, Feb=$44, Mar=$42, Apr=$50, May=$55, Jun=$48. What is the percentage change from January to June?

18%
15%
20% (Correct answer)
25%

Correct answer: 20%

% change = (48−40)/40 × 100 = 8/40 × 100 = 20%.

Question 16: Identify the pronoun ambiguity: 'The supervisor told the analyst that he needed to revise the report.'

'the report' lacks a clear antecedent.
'he' is ambiguous—it could refer to the supervisor or the analyst. (Correct answer)
There is no error in the sentence.
'told' should be 'said to.'

Correct answer: 'he' is ambiguous—it could refer to the supervisor or the analyst.

When two males are mentioned, a pronoun that could refer to either creates ambiguity that must be resolved by restructuring the sentence.

Question 17: If 3:4 = 9:x, what is the value of x?

13
12 (Correct answer)
10
16

Correct answer: 12

Cross-multiply: 3x = 36, so x = 12.

Question 18: A rectangle's length is 3 more than twice its width. If the perimeter is 36, what is the width?

8
4
5 (Correct answer)
6

Correct answer: 5

2(2w+3) + 2w = 36 gives 6w = 30, so w = 5.

Question 19: Multi-Source Reasoning provides a price list and a discount memo offering 25% off items over $100. A $200 item would cost:

$140
$160
$150 (Correct answer)
$175

Correct answer: $150

25% of $200 is $50, so the discounted price is $200 − $50 = $150.

Question 20: The text says: "The researcher's conclusions, while provocative, rest on a single small sample." What is implied about the conclusions?

They are definitively false
They are based on large datasets
Their reliability may be limited (Correct answer)
They were widely replicated

Correct answer: Their reliability may be limited

A single small sample suggests the conclusions' reliability could be limited.

Question 21: A publisher claims a book will sell well abroad because it sold well domestically. A necessary assumption is that:

Foreign readers have tastes similar enough to domestic readers (Correct answer)
The author tours abroad
Shipping is cheap
The book is translated

Correct answer: Foreign readers have tastes similar enough to domestic readers

Cross-market success assumes the new audience shares relevant preferences.

Question 22: What is the remainder when 5^4 is divided by 7?

1
4 (Correct answer)
6
2

Correct answer: 4

5^4 = 625, and 7*89 = 623, so the remainder is 625 - 623 = 2.

Question 23: If 60% of 50 students passed a test, how many failed?

15
25
30
20 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20

60% passed means 40% failed, and 0.40 × 50 = 20.

Question 24: Which sentence correctly expresses a past counterfactual conditional?

If the company had invested earlier, it would have captured the market. (Correct answer)
If the company invested earlier, it would had captured the market.
If the company would have invested earlier, it would have captured the market.
If the company has invested earlier, it would have captured the market.

Correct answer: If the company had invested earlier, it would have captured the market.

In a past counterfactual conditional, the if-clause uses past perfect ('had invested') and the result clause uses 'would have + past participle.'

Question 25: If the ratio of boys to girls is 3:5 and there are 24 boys, how many girls are there?

32
40 (Correct answer)
45
15

Correct answer: 40

Each part is 24 ÷ 3 = 8, so girls = 5 × 8 = 40.

Question 26: A boldface statement provides the reason that explains a phenomenon stated elsewhere. It functions as:

An explanatory premise (Correct answer)
An objection
The conclusion
A counterexample

Correct answer: An explanatory premise

A statement giving the reason for a phenomenon serves as an explanatory premise.

Question 27: A heat map uses darker shading for higher values. A nearly all-light row indicates that category has:

High variance
Consistently high values
Consistently low values (Correct answer)
Missing labels

Correct answer: Consistently low values

Light shading throughout a row indicates low values across all columns for that category.

Question 28: If 12 workers can build a wall in 10 days, how many days would 15 workers take (inverse proportion)?

8 (Correct answer)
9
12
7.5

Correct answer: 8

Work = 12 x 10 = 120 worker-days, so 120/15 = 8 days.

Question 29: A restaurant concludes its new menu is popular because revenue rose. Which assumption is necessary?

Customers leave reviews
The location is good
Prices were not raised at the same time (Correct answer)
The chef is famous

Correct answer: Prices were not raised at the same time

Higher revenue could stem from price increases rather than menu popularity.

Question 30: A doctor says a diet works because patients who followed it lost weight. A required assumption is that:

The diet is tasty
Patients were overweight
Those patients did not also change their exercise habits (Correct answer)
The doctor is reputable

Correct answer: Those patients did not also change their exercise habits

The diet earns credit only if no other lifestyle change caused the weight loss.

Question 31: Passage: 'Gig economy platforms — digital intermediaries connecting freelance workers with customers — have disrupted traditional employment models across transportation, delivery, and skilled services. Proponents argue that gig work offers flexibility that appeals to workers who value autonomy over benefits, and that platforms lower barriers to market entry for small-scale service providers. Critics respond that gig companies externalize risks onto workers by classifying them as independent contractors rather than employees, thereby avoiding obligations to provide health insurance, paid leave, and minimum wage protections. Several jurisdictions have enacted legislation requiring reclassification or benefit contributions, while others have resisted such regulation.' The passage implies that workers who prefer gig work most likely value:

Flexible schedules and independence over guaranteed benefits (Correct answer)
Full-time hours and consistent income streams
Job security and employer-provided retirement contributions
Union representation and collective bargaining rights

Correct answer: Flexible schedules and independence over guaranteed benefits

Proponents argue gig work 'offers flexibility that appeals to workers who value autonomy over benefits' — those preferring gig work prioritize flexibility and autonomy.

Question 32: A detail question asks 'According to the passage, why did the policy fail?' The correct answer must:

State the author's emotional reaction
Reflect a plausible real-world reason not stated
Reflect the specific reason the passage gives (Correct answer)
Summarize the entire passage

Correct answer: Reflect the specific reason the passage gives

'According to the passage' demands the reason explicitly stated in the text.

Question 33: An author writes that "the manuscript survived only because a monk copied it." What does this imply?

Without the copy, the work might have been lost (Correct answer)
The original still exists
The monk wrote the original
Many copies existed

Correct answer: Without the copy, the work might have been lost

Survival depending on a single copy implies the work might otherwise have been lost.

Question 34: An author observes that "the survey reached only homeowners." What inference follows about the results?

All respondents were renters
Results represent all residents equally
Renters' views may be underrepresented (Correct answer)
The survey was invalid

Correct answer: Renters' views may be underrepresented

Surveying only homeowners implies renters' perspectives may be underrepresented.

Question 35: A rectangle has vertices at (0,0), (5,0), (5,4), and (0,4). What is the length of its diagonal?

√21
3
√41 (Correct answer)
9

Correct answer: √41

Diagonal = √(5² + 4²) = √(25 + 16) = √41.

Question 36: A passage states: "The committee approved the plan unanimously, though with visible reluctance." What can be inferred?

The vote was split
Approval did not reflect enthusiasm (Correct answer)
Members strongly favored the plan
The plan was rejected

Correct answer: Approval did not reflect enthusiasm

Unanimous approval with reluctance implies agreement without enthusiasm.

Question 37: A table shows that an online retailer processed orders: W1=500 (98% on time), W2=300 (95% on time), W3=400 (99% on time), W4=200 (90% on time). What is the approximate total late orders?

44
49 (Correct answer)
60
52

Correct answer: 49

Late: W1=10, W2=15, W3=4, W4=20. Total=49.

Question 38: Why might a statement be 'False' even though part of it matches the table?

A compound statement is only true if all of its conditions hold (Correct answer)
False statements are not allowed in Table Analysis
The table is unreliable
Partial matches always count as true

Correct answer: A compound statement is only true if all of its conditions hold

If any condition in a combined claim fails, the whole statement is false.

Question 39: Passage: 'Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) has emerged as one of the most empirically validated treatments for a range of psychological disorders, including depression, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress. Unlike psychoanalytic approaches that emphasize uncovering unconscious conflicts, CBT focuses on identifying and restructuring maladaptive thought patterns that contribute to emotional distress. Sessions are typically structured, time-limited, and goal-oriented. A substantial body of randomized controlled trials supports its efficacy, though critics note that its benefits may be less durable than those of longer-term therapies and that it may be less effective for patients with complex trauma histories.' Based on the passage, which type of patient might receive less benefit from CBT?

A patient seeking a time-limited and structured treatment
A patient with a history of multiple severe traumatic events (Correct answer)
A patient with a straightforward single-episode depression
A patient experiencing mild generalized anxiety

Correct answer: A patient with a history of multiple severe traumatic events

The passage states that CBT 'may be less effective for patients with complex trauma histories,' which best describes someone with multiple severe traumatic events.

Question 40: If a data set's mean is greater than its median, the distribution is most likely:

Skewed left
Skewed right (Correct answer)
Symmetric
Uniform

Correct answer: Skewed right

A mean above the median indicates a right (positive) skew pulled by larger values.

Question 41: A startup says hiring more salespeople will increase revenue because each rep closes deals. A necessary assumption is that:

The product is cheap
Offices have space
Reps are well paid
There are enough prospective customers for new reps to sell to (Correct answer)

Correct answer: There are enough prospective customers for new reps to sell to

More reps raise revenue only if untapped demand exists for them to convert.

Question 42: The ratio of a:b:c is 2:3:5 and their total is 100. What is c?

50 (Correct answer)
20
30
40

Correct answer: 50

Total parts = 10, each part = 10, so c = 5 x 10 = 50.

Question 43: The average of 5 numbers is 12. If one number is removed and the average becomes 13, what was the removed number?

16
12
8 (Correct answer)
60

Correct answer: 8

Original sum is 60, new sum is 52, so the removed number is 8.

Question 44: If n^2 is even, what can be concluded about n?

n is prime
n is zero
n is odd
n is even (Correct answer)

Correct answer: n is even

If n were odd then n^2 would be odd, so an even n^2 forces n to be even.

Question 45: A Two-Part Analysis often pairs a 'minimum' and 'maximum' task. If a set of integers must sum to 30 with values chosen from {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}, which single value could be the minimum element used?

6
4
2 (Correct answer)
10

Correct answer: 2

2 is the smallest available value and can be part of a valid sum to 30.

Question 46: In Table Analysis, you must verify: 'At least one firm has both revenue above $1M and fewer than 50 employees.' This is true if:

Every firm meets both conditions
No firm meets either condition
One or more firms meet both conditions together (Correct answer)
Firms meet the conditions separately but not together

Correct answer: One or more firms meet both conditions together

'At least one' with 'both' requires a single firm satisfying the two conditions simultaneously.

Question 47: A city argues that its anti-litter campaign reduced street litter. Which finding most weakens the argument?

The city doubled the number of trash bins at the same time (Correct answer)
Litter is a problem in many cities
Residents recalled seeing the campaign posters
The campaign won a design award

Correct answer: The city doubled the number of trash bins at the same time

Adding trash bins is an alternative cause that could explain the litter reduction independent of the campaign.

Question 48: A school claims smaller classes improved test scores because scores rose after class sizes shrank. The assumption is that:

No change in curriculum or teaching also occurred (Correct answer)
Teachers are skilled
Classrooms are modern
Students like small classes

Correct answer: No change in curriculum or teaching also occurred

Class size earns credit only if no other educational change caused the rise.

Question 49: Passage: 'The decline of bee populations worldwide has alarmed ecologists and agricultural scientists alike. Bees pollinate roughly one-third of the food crops humans consume, and their disappearance would cascade through food chains in unpredictable ways. Habitat loss, pesticide exposure, and the spread of parasitic mites have each been implicated, though researchers debate which factor is most significant. Some evidence suggests that neonicotinoid pesticides disrupt bees' navigational abilities, preventing them from returning to their hives.' The primary purpose of this passage is to:

Propose solutions to the crisis facing bee populations globally
Explain how bees navigate using chemical signals
Describe the problem of declining bee populations and identify contributing factors (Correct answer)
Argue that neonicotinoid pesticides are the sole cause of bee population decline

Correct answer: Describe the problem of declining bee populations and identify contributing factors

The passage introduces the problem (declining bee populations), explains its importance (one-third of food crops), and lists multiple contributing factors. It does not advocate for one cause or propose solutions.

Question 50: A person spends 25% of income on rent and 30% on food, saving the rest. If savings total $2,700 per month, what is the monthly income?

$6,000 (Correct answer)
$5,400
$9,000
$7,200

Correct answer: $6,000

Savings = 100% − 25% − 30% = 45% of income; income = $2,700 ÷ 0.45 = $6,000.

Question 51: A table analysis shows revenue per employee (in $000s) for 5 companies: Co.A=85, Co.B=120, Co.C=95, Co.D=60, Co.E=110. Industry average = $94K. Which companies are above average?

B and E only
B, C, and E (Correct answer)
A, B, and E
B, D, and E

Correct answer: B, C, and E

B(120), C(95), E(110) are all above 94. A(85) and D(60) are below.

Question 52: If a car uses 8 gallons to travel 200 miles, how many gallons for 350 miles?

16
10
14 (Correct answer)
12

Correct answer: 14

200/8 = 25 mpg, so 350 ÷ 25 = 14 gallons.

Question 53: The passage says a city "grew rapidly until water shortages forced limits on development." What can be inferred?

Development was unlimited
Water availability constrained the city's growth (Correct answer)
Growth continued unchecked
The city never faced shortages

Correct answer: Water availability constrained the city's growth

Shortages forcing development limits imply water constrained growth.

Question 54: Passage: 'Epigenetics — the study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not involve alterations to the DNA sequence itself — has complicated the once-dominant view that inheritance is determined solely by the DNA sequence passed from parent to offspring. Environmental factors such as diet, stress, and toxin exposure can modify how genes are expressed without changing the underlying genetic code, and some of these modifications appear to be heritable across generations. This raises profound questions about the boundary between nature and nurture: if environmental experiences can alter gene expression in ways that persist across generations, then the distinction between genetic and environmental inheritance becomes less clear. Critics caution that many epigenetic effects are reversed within a few generations and that the degree of cross-generational transmission in humans remains contested.' The main conceptual implication of epigenetics discussed in the passage is that:

Environmental factors are more important than genetics in determining human health outcomes
The traditional boundary between genetic and environmental inheritance may be less distinct than assumed (Correct answer)
DNA sequencing is no longer a reliable method for predicting inherited traits
Epigenetic changes are permanent and irreversible once they occur

Correct answer: The traditional boundary between genetic and environmental inheritance may be less distinct than assumed

The passage argues epigenetics 'raises profound questions about the boundary between nature and nurture,' suggesting that the genetic/environmental distinction is less clean than previously thought.

Question 55: In MSR, an answer that is 'true based on the sources' must be:

Likely or plausible
Provable using only the given information (Correct answer)
Based on outside business knowledge
The most optimistic outcome

Correct answer: Provable using only the given information

MSR inference answers must follow strictly from the provided sources, not external assumptions.

Question 56: If a/b = b/c and a = 4, c = 9, what is b (positive value)?

36
13
5
6 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6

b^2 = ac = 36, so b = 6 (the geometric mean).

Question 57: If a die is rolled once, what is the probability of an even number?

2/3
1/6
1/3
1/2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1/2

Three even faces (2,4,6) out of six gives 1/2.

Question 58: What is the equation of the new parabola formed by shifting y = x2 three units to the positive y-axis?

y = x2 + 3 (Correct answer)
y = x3
3y = x2
y = (x+3)2

Correct answer: y = x2 + 3

To shift a parabola vertically on the y-axis, you add or subtract a constant from the entire function. Shifting 'k' units to the positive y-axis means adding 'k' to the original equation. Therefore, shifting y = x² three units up results in the new equation y = x² + 3.

Question 59: Two-part analysis: A factory produces 500 units per day with a 4% defect rate. After implementing quality controls, the defect rate drops to 2.5%. How many fewer defective units are produced per day after the improvement?

10
8
7
7.5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 7.5

Old defects: 500 × 0.04 = 20. New defects: 500 × 0.025 = 12.5. Reduction = 20 − 12.5 = 7.5.

Question 60: A Two-Part Analysis table lets you choose a 'minimum' and a 'maximum' from a set of order quantities. The minimum value you select must be:

Equal to the maximum
Always zero
No greater than the maximum (Correct answer)
Larger than the maximum

Correct answer: No greater than the maximum

By definition a minimum cannot exceed the maximum, so it must be less than or equal to it.

Question 61: What is the price of one apple? (1) 3 apples cost $1.50 (2) Apples are sold at a fixed unit price

Each alone is sufficient
Statement (1) alone is sufficient (Correct answer)
Statement (2) alone is sufficient
Both together but neither alone

Correct answer: Statement (1) alone is sufficient

At a fixed implied unit rate, $1.50 for 3 apples gives $0.50 each from (1) alone.

Question 62: An overly broad answer choice for a main-idea question typically fails because it:

Is too narrow to cover the passage
Matches the passage's scope exactly
Claims more than the passage actually supports (Correct answer)
Repeats the topic sentence verbatim

Correct answer: Claims more than the passage actually supports

Overly broad choices overreach beyond what the passage establishes.

Question 63: When an MSR question gives a condition not directly stated in any tab, what should you do?

Apply the new condition to the existing data to test the outcome (Correct answer)
Look for it verbatim in a tab
Treat it as false automatically
Refuse to answer

Correct answer: Apply the new condition to the existing data to test the outcome

Hypothetical conditions must be applied logically to the provided data, not found word-for-word.

Question 64: If a column of values appears already sorted in the original table, the safest assumption is:

The data is corrupted
The values are meaningless
It may have been sorted for presentation, but you should still verify before relying on order (Correct answer)
All other columns are also sorted

Correct answer: It may have been sorted for presentation, but you should still verify before relying on order

Apparent order should be confirmed, since only one column can be sorted at a time.

GMAT Focus Edition Test

The Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT) Focus Edition measures analytical writing, quantitative, verbal, and integrated reasoning skills for admission to graduate management programs worldwide.

Questions

135 min

Time Limit

72%

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