Georgia Milestones End-of-Grade Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A key feature of the English Language Arts (ELA) GMAS assessments is the Evidence-Based Selected Response (EBSR) item type. Which of the following best describes the structure and scoring of an EBSR item?

A multi-select question where students choose all pieces of textual evidence that support a given claim, with partial credit awarded for each correct selection.
A single question requiring students to write a short paragraph citing textual evidence, scored on a 2-point rubric.
A question that presents a claim about a text and requires students to drag and drop sentences from the passage to either support or refute the claim.
A two-part question where Part A asks an inferential question and Part B requires the selection of textual evidence to support the answer in Part A; students receive points for each correct part. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A two-part question where Part A asks an inferential question and Part B requires the selection of textual evidence to support the answer in Part A; students receive points for each correct part.

An Evidence-Based Selected Response (EBSR) item is a two-part technology-enhanced item. Part A asks students to answer a question about the text (often an inference or analysis), and Part B requires them to select evidence from the text that best supports their answer to Part A. Students can earn points for getting each part correct, typically receiving full credit (2 points) for answering both parts correctly.

Question 2: In a food chain, which organism always occupies the first trophic level?

Herbivore
Producer (Correct answer)
Decomposer
Omnivore

Correct answer: Producer

Producers (plants and other photosynthetic organisms) always occupy the first trophic level because they capture energy from the Sun.

Question 3: What was the primary economic system in the antebellum South that Georgia's economy depended on?

Maritime trade and fishing
Small-scale subsistence farming
Free-market industrialism
Plantation agriculture using enslaved labor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Plantation agriculture using enslaved labor

Georgia's antebellum economy was built on large plantations that relied on the forced labor of enslaved African Americans to grow crops like cotton.

Question 4: Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

Protons and neutrons (Correct answer)
Neutrons and electrons
Protons and electrons
Electrons and quarks

Correct answer: Protons and neutrons

The atomic nucleus contains protons (positive charge) and neutrons (no charge); electrons orbit the nucleus.

Question 5: What do plants release into the atmosphere during photosynthesis?

Oxygen (Correct answer)
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Methane

Correct answer: Oxygen

During photosynthesis, plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create glucose (sugar) for energy. A vital byproduct of this process is oxygen, which is released into the atmosphere. This oxygen is essential for the respiration of most living organisms on Earth.

Question 6: During the Civil Rights Movement, which Georgia city was a major center of protest led by Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.?

Atlanta (Correct answer)
Savannah
Augusta
Columbus

Correct answer: Atlanta

Atlanta was central to the Civil Rights Movement as the birthplace and home base of Dr. Martin Luther King Jr. and the Southern Christian Leadership Conference.

Question 7: Which of the following is an example of a 'response accommodation' for a GMAS student with a motor disability?

Providing a calculator on non-calculator sections
Allowing the student to dictate answers to a scribe (Correct answer)
Giving the student extra test booklets
Reading questions aloud to the student

Correct answer: Allowing the student to dictate answers to a scribe

A response accommodation changes how a student provides answers — for example, dictating to a scribe is appropriate for students who cannot write due to a motor disability.

Question 8: Which of the following technological developments had the BIGGEST impact on Georgia's economic growth and westward expansion in the early 1800s?

The cotton gin (Correct answer)
The telegraph
The mechanical reaper
The steamboat

Correct answer: The cotton gin

This question relates to the 8th-grade social studies standard SS8H4c, which focuses on the impact of technology on Georgia's growth. The invention of the cotton gin by Eli Whitney in 1793 dramatically increased the profitability of cotton by making it much easier to separate the seeds from the fiber. This led to a massive expansion of cotton plantations into western Georgia, fueling the state's economy and increasing the demand for land, which in turn drove the removal of Native American tribes.

Question 9: Which of the following is NOT an allowable GMAS accommodation?

Administering the test in a small group setting
Having someone else answer test questions on behalf of the student (Correct answer)
Providing a bilingual dictionary to an English Learner
Allowing extended time per an IEP

Correct answer: Having someone else answer test questions on behalf of the student

No accommodation allows another person to answer GMAS test questions for a student, as this would compromise test security and the validity of results.

Question 10: Which writing convention is primarily assessed in the 'Language and Conventions' dimension of GMAS writing rubrics?

Grammar, punctuation, spelling, and sentence structure (Correct answer)
Length of the introduction
Number of paragraphs written
Creativity of the story plot

Correct answer: Grammar, punctuation, spelling, and sentence structure

The conventions dimension assesses students' command of grammar, punctuation, capitalization, spelling, and sentence structure.

Question 11: Which accommodations are typically permitted for eligible students with disabilities during Georgia Milestones EOC testing?

No accommodations are permitted to maintain standardization
Accommodations chosen by the student on test day
Accommodations specified in a student's IEP or 504 Plan (Correct answer)
Only extended time is allowed

Correct answer: Accommodations specified in a student's IEP or 504 Plan

Students with IEPs or 504 Plans receive accommodations specified in those plans, ensuring equitable access to the assessment.

Question 12: Which economic term describes the total value of all goods and services produced in a country in one year?

Trade deficit
Inflation rate
Consumer Price Index
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period.

Question 13: In which grade does GMAS first assess Writing as a separate domain within ELA?

Grade 6
Grade 5
Grade 3
Grade 4 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Grade 4

GMAS includes a Writing component in ELA assessments beginning in Grade 4.

Question 14: Which sentence is written correctly?

The girl and her friend were plays outside every day.
The girl and her friend is playing outside every day.
The girl and her friend plays outside every day.
The girl and her friend play outside every day. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The girl and her friend play outside every day.

This sentence requires correct subject-verb agreement. The subject 'The girl and her friend' is a compound subject, which is plural. For a plural subject, the plural form of the verb 'to play' is 'play.' Options A, C, and D use singular or incorrect verb forms for a plural subject, making them grammatically incorrect.

Question 15: Why are students not allowed to use personal devices (phones, tablets) during GMAS testing?

Personal devices are too large for the testing room
Schools must purchase devices to earn state funding
They could be used to access unauthorized information or communicate with others (Correct answer)
The GMAS software is not compatible with personal devices

Correct answer: They could be used to access unauthorized information or communicate with others

Personal devices create test security risks because they can be used to look up answers, photograph test content, or communicate with others outside the room.

Question 16: Which fraction is equivalent to 3/4?

2/5
9/12
Both A and C (Correct answer)
6/8

Correct answer: Both A and C

Equivalent fractions represent the same value, even if they have different numerators and denominators. To find an equivalent fraction, you multiply both the numerator and the denominator by the same non-zero number. For 3/4, multiplying by 2 gives 6/8 (Option A), and multiplying by 3 gives 9/12 (Option C), making both correct.

Question 17: Which type of writing is MOST appropriate for explaining how a historical event affected society?

Descriptive poetry
Narrative writing
Informational/explanatory writing (Correct answer)
Persuasive/argumentative writing

Correct answer: Informational/explanatory writing

Informational writing presents facts, explains concepts, and conveys information objectively, making it ideal for describing a historical event's impact.

Question 18: The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was significant because it:

Outlawed discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin (Correct answer)
Established affirmative action programs in federal agencies
Desegregated public schools across the South
Granted women the right to vote nationwide

Correct answer: Outlawed discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibited discrimination in public places and banned employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

Question 19: Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?

Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Jamal. (Correct answer)
After running quickly, Jamal crossed the finish line.
Jamal crossed the finish line quickly.
Jamal, running quickly, crossed the finish line.

Correct answer: Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Jamal.

In 'Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Jamal,' the modifier appears to describe the finish line rather than Jamal.

Question 20: The establishment of Savannah as the first city in the Georgia colony was made possible by the peaceful cooperation between James Oglethorpe and which Yamacraw chief?

Alexander McGillivray
William McIntosh
Tomochichi (Correct answer)
Sequoyah

Correct answer: Tomochichi

This question assesses a key part of the 8th-grade social studies standard SS8H2b, which analyzes the relationship between key figures in the founding of Savannah. Tomochichi, the leader of the Yamacraw tribe, befriended James Oglethorpe and granted him permission to establish the settlement of Savannah at Yamacraw Bluff, ensuring a peaceful start to the colony.

Question 21: Which text structure is used when a writer describes how one event leads to another?

Cause and effect (Correct answer)
Chronological order
Compare and contrast
Problem and solution

Correct answer: Cause and effect

Cause-and-effect text structure explains how one event (the cause) leads to another event (the effect).

Question 22: What performance levels are reported on GMAS EOG assessments?

Below Basic, Basic, Proficient, Advanced, Exemplary
Beginning Learner, Developing Learner, Proficient Learner, Distinguished Learner (Correct answer)
Fail, Pass, Advanced
Level 1–5

Correct answer: Beginning Learner, Developing Learner, Proficient Learner, Distinguished Learner

GMAS reports four performance levels: Beginning Learner, Developing Learner, Proficient Learner, and Distinguished Learner.

Question 23: The Trail of Tears refers to the forced relocation of which Native American peoples?

The Seminole and Apache nations
The Cherokee and other southeastern tribes (Correct answer)
The Sioux and Cheyenne nations
The Iroquois Confederacy

Correct answer: The Cherokee and other southeastern tribes

The Trail of Tears (1838–1839) was the forced removal of the Cherokee and other southeastern tribes to Indian Territory in present-day Oklahoma.

Question 24: Which process separates homologous chromosomes during meiosis?

Cytokinesis
Mitosis I
DNA replication
Meiosis I (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Meiosis I

During Meiosis I, homologous chromosome pairs separate from each other, halving the chromosome number.

Question 25: Which of the following best describes the concept of federalism in the U.S. government?

Local governments hold the most power
Power is divided between national and state governments (Correct answer)
States have complete independence from the federal government
All government power is held by the national government

Correct answer: Power is divided between national and state governments

Federalism is the system in which governmental power is divided and shared between the national (federal) government and the state governments.

Question 26: Which element is MOST important when evaluating whether an argument is well-supported?

The number of sources cited in the bibliography
The length of the essay and number of paragraphs
The quality and relevance of the evidence provided (Correct answer)
The sophistication of the vocabulary the author uses

Correct answer: The quality and relevance of the evidence provided

Strong arguments depend on relevant, credible evidence that directly supports the claim, not on length or vocabulary alone.

Question 27: An ecosystem where decomposers break down dead organisms is demonstrating which biogeochemical process?

Nutrient cycling (Correct answer)
Transpiration
The water cycle
Photosynthesis

Correct answer: Nutrient cycling

Decomposers break down dead organic matter and return nutrients to the soil, completing nutrient cycles like the carbon and nitrogen cycles.

Question 28: For a GMAS ELA assessment, a student is presented with two passages that discuss the same historical event from different perspectives. The student is then asked to write an essay analyzing how each author presents the information and to evaluate the strength of their arguments. This task primarily assesses which ELA domain?

Integration of Knowledge and Ideas (Correct answer)
Reading and Vocabulary
Key Ideas and Details
Language Conventions

Correct answer: Integration of Knowledge and Ideas

The 'Integration of Knowledge and Ideas' domain involves analyzing how two or more texts address similar themes or topics, building knowledge, and comparing the authors' approaches. This scenario requires the student to synthesize and evaluate information from multiple sources, which is the core of this domain.

Question 29: What was the main cause of the Great Depression that began in 1929?

President Hoover raised taxes too aggressively
A stock market crash triggered widespread bank failures and unemployment (Correct answer)
The end of World War I reduced military spending
A severe drought destroyed agriculture nationwide

Correct answer: A stock market crash triggered widespread bank failures and unemployment

The Great Depression was triggered by the stock market crash of October 1929, which led to bank failures, reduced consumer spending, and massive unemployment.

Question 30: Which correctly punctuates a dialogue?

"I'm not sure," she said. "But I'll try"
"I'm not sure," She said, "but I'll try."
"I'm not sure" she said "but I'll try."
"I'm not sure," she said, "but I'll try." (Correct answer)

Correct answer: "I'm not sure," she said, "but I'll try."

Dialogue tags within a single sentence use commas and lowercase for the speaker tag even after closing quotes.

Question 31: What geographic feature forms Georgia's eastern border?

The Gulf of Mexico
The Mississippi River
The Appalachian Mountains
The Atlantic Ocean (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Atlantic Ocean

The Atlantic Ocean forms Georgia's eastern border, giving the state access to major port cities like Savannah.

Question 32: What happens to the atomic number of an element when it undergoes beta decay?

It stays the same
It doubles
It decreases by 1
It increases by 1 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It increases by 1

In beta decay, a neutron converts into a proton and an electron (beta particle); the extra proton increases the atomic number by 1.

Question 33: Which Native American group originally inhabited the region that became Georgia?

The Sioux and Cheyenne
The Cherokee and Creek nations (Correct answer)
The Iroquois Confederacy
The Navajo and Hopi

Correct answer: The Cherokee and Creek nations

The Cherokee and Creek (Muscogee) nations were the primary Native American peoples living in Georgia before European settlement.

Question 34: A student wants to strengthen a claim in an essay about teen screen time. Which addition would be most effective?

A quote from a classmate who agrees with the argument
A personal story about a time the student used a phone too much
A statistic from a medical journal linking excessive screen time to sleep disruption in teens (Correct answer)
A description of a popular app that teenagers use

Correct answer: A statistic from a medical journal linking excessive screen time to sleep disruption in teens

Data from a medical journal provides credible, verifiable evidence that directly supports the claim about screen time's effects.

Question 35: What property of water allows it to travel up narrow tubes in plants against gravity?

High boiling point
High density
Capillary action (Correct answer)
Low surface tension

Correct answer: Capillary action

Capillary action, driven by water's adhesion to tube walls and cohesion among water molecules, allows water to move upward through plant xylem.

Question 36: In a market economy, what primarily determines the price of goods and services?

Government price controls
International trade agreements
Supply and demand (Correct answer)
The preferences of producers only

Correct answer: Supply and demand

In a market economy, prices are determined by the interaction of supply (how much is available) and demand (how much consumers want to buy).

Question 37: A fifth-grade teacher notices that many students are struggling to produce clear and coherent essays. Their writing lacks organizational structure, and their arguments are not well-supported with evidence. To address this, the teacher should focus instruction on which GMAS ELA domain?

Reading and Vocabulary
Writing and Language (Correct answer)
Craft and Structure
Integration of Knowledge and Ideas

Correct answer: Writing and Language

The 'Writing and Language' domain covers the development and organization of writing, as well as the use of language conventions. The students' difficulties with structure and supporting arguments fall directly under the writing standards assessed in this domain.

Question 38: What type of energy transformation occurs in a battery-powered flashlight?

Light to chemical energy
Mechanical to electrical
Thermal to electrical
Chemical to light energy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chemical to light energy

In a flashlight, chemical energy stored in the battery is converted into electrical energy and then into light energy.

Question 39: Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?

The list of items was checked twice. (Correct answer)
The team of players are practicing hard.
Each of the students have completed the assignment.
Neither the coach nor the players was ready.

Correct answer: The list of items was checked twice.

'List' is the subject, which is singular, so it takes the singular verb 'was.'

Question 40: Which revision best improves the clarity of this sentence: 'Running to school, my backpack fell off.'?

While I was running to school, my backpack fell off. (Correct answer)
Running to school, the backpack fell off.
Running, my backpack fell to school.
My backpack, running to school, fell off.

Correct answer: While I was running to school, my backpack fell off.

The original is a dangling modifier; adding 'While I was' clarifies that the person was running, not the backpack.

Question 41: A poem is divided into four-line stanzas called quatrains. How does this division affect how the poem communicates its meaning?

It prevents the poet from using enjambment between stanzas
It forces the poem to have exactly one idea per stanza
It requires the poem to follow a strict AABB rhyme scheme
It creates natural pauses that organize ideas into distinct units (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It creates natural pauses that organize ideas into distinct units

Dividing a poem into stanzas creates rhythmic pauses and groups related ideas, helping readers process meaning in organized segments.

Question 42: Which GMAS item type requires a student to drag answer choices into a specific order or location on screen?

Evidence-Based Selected Response
Selected Response
Extended Response
Drag-and-Drop Technology-Enhanced Item (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drag-and-Drop Technology-Enhanced Item

Drag-and-drop is a Technology-Enhanced Item (TEI) type where students manipulate on-screen elements by moving them to designated areas.

Question 43: What is the primary function of the Federal Reserve in the United States?

To collect federal taxes
To control monetary policy and regulate the money supply (Correct answer)
To manage the national debt by selling bonds
To approve the federal budget

Correct answer: To control monetary policy and regulate the money supply

The Federal Reserve serves as the central bank of the U.S. and manages monetary policy by controlling the money supply and interest rates to promote economic stability.

Question 44: Which term describes a government in which citizens elect representatives to make laws on their behalf?

Direct democracy
Monarchy
Representative democracy (republic) (Correct answer)
Oligarchy

Correct answer: Representative democracy (republic)

A representative democracy, or republic, is a system where citizens vote for elected officials who govern and create laws on their behalf.

Question 45: Which revision BEST combines these two sentences: 'The storm was severe. It caused widespread flooding.'

The storm, which was severe, it caused flooding that was widespread.
Because of the storm's severity, there was flooding that was widespread in nature.
The severe storm caused widespread flooding. (Correct answer)
The storm was severe and it was also causing flooding which was widespread.

Correct answer: The severe storm caused widespread flooding.

Combining related ideas into one concise sentence improves clarity and eliminates unnecessary repetition.

Question 46: A student reads: 'Despite losing the championship, Maya's determination never wavered.' What can be inferred about Maya?

She was resilient and remained mentally strong after defeat. (Correct answer)
She blamed her teammates for the loss.
She was indifferent to the outcome of the game.
She planned to quit the sport.

Correct answer: She was resilient and remained mentally strong after defeat.

The phrase 'determination never wavered' despite losing implies Maya remained mentally strong and resilient.

Question 47: Which of the following best describes the concept of supply and demand?

Supply and demand only apply to agricultural products
When demand increases and supply stays the same, prices tend to rise (Correct answer)
Governments set prices based on what is supplied
When supply increases, prices always rise

Correct answer: When demand increases and supply stays the same, prices tend to rise

When consumer demand for a product increases but supply remains constant, competition among buyers drives prices up.

Question 48: On a coordinate plane, which quadrant contains the point (-3, 4)?

Quadrant II (Correct answer)
Quadrant IV
Quadrant III
Quadrant I

Correct answer: Quadrant II

A negative x-value and positive y-value place the point in Quadrant II.

Question 49: What is the value of 2³ × 2²?

10
16
64
32 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 32

2³ × 2² = 2^(3+2) = 2⁵ = 32.

Question 50: In the GMAS online platform, what happens when a student clicks the 'Strikethrough' button on an answer choice?

It visually crosses out the choice to help eliminate it (Correct answer)
It submits that answer as correct
It removes the answer choice from the screen permanently
It alerts the teacher that the student needs help

Correct answer: It visually crosses out the choice to help eliminate it

The Strikethrough tool draws a line through an answer choice, helping students visually eliminate options they believe are incorrect.

Question 51: When analyzing an informational text, a student should distinguish between facts and opinions. Which of the following is a fact?

Everyone should recycle to save the planet.
Renewable energy is the best solution to pollution.
Solar panels are more attractive than wind turbines.
Georgia receives an average of 50 inches of rain per year. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Georgia receives an average of 50 inches of rain per year.

A measurable statistic like average rainfall is verifiable and therefore a fact, unlike the other statements which express judgments.

Question 52: Extended time is classified as which type of GMAS accommodation?

Response accommodation
Presentation accommodation
Setting accommodation
Timing and scheduling accommodation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Timing and scheduling accommodation

Extended time falls under timing and scheduling accommodations, which adjust the amount of time or schedule under which a student takes the assessment.

Question 53: How many performance levels does the GMAS use to report student achievement?

5
6
3
4 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 4

GMAS uses four performance levels: Beginning Learner, Developing Learner, Proficient Learner, and Distinguished Learner.

Question 54: The Georgia Milestones Analytic Geometry EOC assesses student understanding of which major concept?

Statistical inference and probability distributions
Exponential growth and decay
Properties of triangles, circles, and coordinate geometry (Correct answer)
Linear equations and slope

Correct answer: Properties of triangles, circles, and coordinate geometry

Analytic Geometry EOC focuses on congruence, similarity, right triangles, circles, and coordinate geometry.

Question 55: Which best describes the difference between denotation and connotation?

Denotation applies only to adjectives; connotation applies to all parts of speech.
Denotation refers to figurative language; connotation refers to literal language.
Denotation is a word's emotional associations; connotation is its dictionary meaning.
Denotation is a word's literal dictionary meaning; connotation includes the emotional associations the word carries. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Denotation is a word's literal dictionary meaning; connotation includes the emotional associations the word carries.

Denotation is the precise, literal meaning found in a dictionary, while connotation includes the feelings or ideas associated with a word beyond its literal meaning.

Question 56: What is 15% of 200?

20
30 (Correct answer)
25
35

Correct answer: 30

15% of 200 = 0.15 × 200 = 30.

Question 57: Which of Georgia's physical regions is known for its red clay soil and rolling hills?

Coastal Plain
Valley and Ridge
Piedmont (Correct answer)
Blue Ridge

Correct answer: Piedmont

The Piedmont region of Georgia is characterized by its distinctive red clay soil and gently rolling hills located between the mountains and the coastal plain.

Question 58: Which of the following materials is considered secure and must be strictly accounted for before, during, and after a GMAS administration?

The Test Administration Manual (TAM).
Student-brought calculators that have been approved for use.
Classroom posters with motivational quotes.
Student test tickets and any used scratch paper. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Student test tickets and any used scratch paper.

Student test tickets contain login credentials, and used scratch paper may contain responses or notes about test items; both are considered secure materials that must be collected and accounted for to prevent any breach of test content. While the TAM must be handled properly, the test tickets and scratch paper are directly tied to the live test session and student responses, requiring the highest level of security and accountability.

Question 59: A student encounters the word 'benevolent' in a passage. Which context clue strategy is MOST reliable for determining its meaning?

Counting how many times the word appears in the text
Replacing the word with a random synonym and rereading
Skipping the word and continuing to read the passage
Looking for nearby words or phrases that describe the character's kind actions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Looking for nearby words or phrases that describe the character's kind actions

Nearby descriptive phrases about a character's actions or traits are the most reliable context clues for determining word meaning.

Question 60: Which sentence is correctly written in the passive voice?

The student wrote the essay overnight.
The student had written an essay all night.
Overnight, writing the essay, the student finished.
The essay was written by the student overnight. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The essay was written by the student overnight.

In the passive voice, the subject receives the action; 'The essay was written by the student' places the essay as the subject being acted upon.

Question 61: What is the value of 3 × (4 + 5)?

27 (Correct answer)
35
15
12

Correct answer: 27

To solve 3 × (4 + 5), you must follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS), which dictates that operations inside parentheses are performed first. First, calculate 4 + 5, which equals 9. Then, multiply this result by 3, so 3 × 9 = 27.

Question 62: Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?

She almost drove her children to school every day. (Correct answer)
She quickly finished her homework before dinner.
He handed the trophy to the player who had scored the winning goal.
The dog barked loudly at the stranger in the yard.

Correct answer: She almost drove her children to school every day.

'Almost' is misplaced—it modifies 'drove' instead of 'every day,' implying she nearly didn't drive them at all.

Question 63: In an argumentative essay, the author presents the opposing viewpoint before refuting it. This section is called the:

Anecdotal evidence
Concluding paragraph
Counterclaim (Correct answer)
Thesis statement

Correct answer: Counterclaim

A counterclaim acknowledges the opposing perspective, which the author then addresses and refutes to strengthen their own argument.

Question 64: A high school student is enrolled in Advanced Placement (AP) United States History and Dual Enrollment (DE) American Literature and Composition. For which of these courses is the student exempt from taking the corresponding GMAS EOC assessment?

Both courses
American Literature and Composition only
Neither course
United States History only (Correct answer)

Correct answer: United States History only

State Board of Education rules specifically exempt students enrolled in AP, IB, and Dual Enrollment U.S. History courses from taking the EOC. However, this exemption does not apply to ELA, mathematics, or science courses.

Question 65: Which layer of Earth is made up of solid rock and forms the continents and ocean floors?

Atmosphere
Mantle
Crust (Correct answer)
Core

Correct answer: Crust

The Earth's crust is the outermost and thinnest layer of our planet, composed of solid rock. It forms both the continents, which are thicker and less dense, and the ocean floors, which are thinner and denser. The mantle and core are deeper layers with different compositions and characteristics.

Georgia Milestones End-of-Grade Assessment

The Georgia Milestones Assessment System (GMAS) measures student achievement in grades 3-8 across English Language Arts, Mathematics, Science, and Social Studies, aligned to Georgia's state content standards.

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

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Sources & references

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