FREE Master of Pharmacy: Pharmacology and Therapeutics Questions and Answers

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In the Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmic medications, which group acts as inhibitors of potassium channels?

Correct! Wrong!

The correct answer is Class III. In the Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmic drugs, Class III medications function as inhibitors of potassium channels. These drugs, including amiodarone and sotalol, prolong the action potential duration and refractory period, helping to stabilize and prevent certain types of arrhythmias by delaying repolarization. Therefore, the selected answer accurately identifies Class III as the group that acts as inhibitors of potassium channels in the context of antiarrhythmic medications.

From which medication is Mesna administered to decrease the likelihood of hemorrhagic cystitis?

Correct! Wrong!

The correct answer is Cyclophosphamide. Mesna is administered in conjunction with cyclophosphamide to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis, a potential side effect of cyclophosphamide treatment. Hemorrhagic cystitis involves inflammation and bleeding in the bladder lining, which can be averted or minimized by the protective effects of Mesna when used alongside cyclophosphamide. Therefore, the chosen answer accurately identifies Cyclophosphamide as the medication for which Mesna is administered to mitigate the risk of hemorrhagic cystitis.

For which of the following medicines does pyridoxine work as an effective countermeasure?

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The correct answer is Isoniazid. Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, serves as an effective countermeasure for isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. Isoniazid, a medication used to treat tuberculosis, can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency, which in turn can result in nerve damage. Supplementing with pyridoxine helps mitigate this potential side effect. Therefore, the chosen answer accurately identifies Isoniazid as the medicine for which pyridoxine acts as an effective countermeasure.

As the acidity of an acid increases, its pKa value decreases.

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The pKa is inversely related to the acidity of an acid. Lower pKa values indicate stronger acids, as they readily donate protons (H+).

How do you know if a drug is safe if you compare doses that cause toxic effects 50% of the time with doses that cause acceptable therapeutic effects 50% of the time?

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The therapeutic index is a ratio that compares the dose at which a drug produces toxic effects to the dose at which it produces a therapeutic effect. A higher therapeutic index indicates a safer drug.

What does "bioisostere" mean?

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A bioisostere is a structural modification of a molecule that retains its biological activity by preserving its electronic and steric properties. It can help improve the pharmacokinetics or toxicity profile of a compound.

Which of the following is a drug that blocks the proteasome?

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The correct answer is "Bortezomib". Bortezomib is a drug known for its ability to block the proteasome, a cellular structure responsible for protein degradation. This mechanism of action is used in the treatment of certain cancers, making bortezomib a proteasome inhibitor that disrupts cancer cell growth and survival. Therefore, the selected answer accurately identifies bortezomib as the drug that blocks the proteasome.

Which of these medications is a good alternative for the treatment of gonorrhea?

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The correct answer is: Ceftriaxone. Among the listed medications, "Ceftriaxone" is a recommended and effective alternative for treating gonorrhea due to its potency against the infection and its ability to combat drug-resistant strains. While cefazolin, cefpodoxime, and cefdinir are also cephalosporin antibiotics, "Ceftriaxone" is the preferred choice for gonorrhea treatment according to current medical guidelines. Therefore, the selected answer accurately identifies Ceftriaxone as a suitable alternative for the treatment of gonorrhea. Both the WHO and CDC recommend both ceftriaxone and azithromycin in the treatment of gonorrhea; a sexually transmitted infection. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin whose side effects include eosinophilia, thrombocytosis, skin rash, diarrhea, and elevated BUN, or blood urea nitrogen.

Which of these medicines is a good way to help people with familial Mediterranean fever (FMF)?

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The correct answer is Colchicine. "Colchicine" is an effective medication for managing familial Mediterranean fever (FMF), a genetic disorder characterized by recurring episodes of fever and inflammation. Colchicine helps reduce the frequency and intensity of these episodes by suppressing inflammation and preventing the buildup of certain immune cells. Therefore, the selected answer accurately identifies Colchicine as a suitable treatment option for people with familial Mediterranean fever (FMF).

Explain the concept of a competitive antagonist.

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A competitive antagonist competes with the endogenous agonist for the same binding site on a receptor. This binding prevents the agonist from inducing a biological response, as the conformational change caused by the antagonist is non-productive.

What kind of macromolecules will a ligand (usually) bind to without making a chemical bond?

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Ligands typically bind non-covalently to macromolecules such as proteins (enzymes and receptors) and nucleic acids (DNA). This binding interaction mediates various cellular processes.

What kind of drug toxicity causes the level of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine to rise?

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The correct answer is "Acetaminophen". The rise in the level of N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI) is associated with acetaminophen toxicity. Acetaminophen undergoes metabolic conversion to NAPQI, which can lead to liver damage if its production overwhelms the body's detoxification mechanisms. Therefore, the chosen answer correctly identifies acetaminophen as the drug associated with the rise in NAPQI levels, which can lead to toxicity.

Hyperkalemia and a dry cough that won't go away are side effects of which of these drug classes?

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Side effects like high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) and a lingering dry cough are linked with ACE inhibitors, a drug class frequently prescribed for hypertension and heart failure. Unlike ACE inhibitors, PDE5 inhibitors, nitrates, and loop diuretics are not commonly associated with these particular side effects. Some examples of ACE inhibitors are ramipril, perindopril, and lisinopril. The side effects of ACE inhibitors encompass a persistent dry cough due to pulmonary kinin accumulation, increased potassium levels, and headaches.

Is it possible to determine the acidity strength of an acid solely based on its pKa value?

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The pKa alone does not provide sufficient information to determine whether a substance is an acid or a base, nor does it indicate the strength without context. The pKa value only informs about the tendency to donate protons, but the nature of the molecule and the reaction conditions are also important factors.

Which of these vitamins deficiencies causes pernicious anemia?

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The correct answer is "Vitamin B12." Pernicious anemia primarily arises due to a Vitamin B12 deficiency, crucial for generating healthy red blood cells. Its scarcity can lead to anemia marked by the inability to absorb adequate B12, often linked to autoimmune-induced stomach cell damage. Therefore, the chosen answer accurately identifies Vitamin B12 as the cause of pernicious anemia.

All of these drugs for high blood pressure are safe during pregnancy, except for which one?

Correct! Wrong!

The correct answer is "Ramipril". Among the listed drugs for high blood pressure, "Ramipril" is the one that is not safe during pregnancy. It belongs to the class of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which can potentially harm the developing fetus and cause birth defects. Labetalol, nifedipine, and methyldopa are generally considered safer options for managing blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, the selected answer correctly identifies Ramipril as the drug that is not safe for use during pregnancy.

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