Question 1: Retrolental fibroplasia is a complication of:

• Chemotherapy
• Hydrotherapy
• Radiotherapy
• Physiotherapy
• Oxygen therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oxygen therapy

Retrolental fibroplasia (retinopathy of prematurity) is caused by excess oxygen therapy in premature infants, where high oxygen concentrations damage developing retinal blood vessels, leading to abnormal vascular growth and potential blindness. Chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and physiotherapy do not target the retinal vasculature in this way, and hydrotherapy has no association with this condition.

Question 2: "Heparin effect is neutralized by:

• Papillary Carcinoma
• Protamine Sulphate (Correct answer)
• Phenylbutazone
• Streptokinase
• Tissue type plasminogen activator

Correct answer: Protamine Sulphate

Protamine sulphate is the specific antidote for heparin — it is a positively charged protein that directly binds and neutralizes negatively charged heparin molecules, reversing anticoagulation. Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are actually thrombolytics that have the opposite effect, while phenylbutazone is an NSAID with no reversal action on heparin.

Question 3: The most common breast tumor is:

• Papillary Carcinoma
• Medullary Carcinoma
• Inflammatory Carcinoma
• Infiltrating ductal scirrhous carcinoma
• Fibroadenoma (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fibroadenoma

Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast tumor, occurring most frequently in women aged 15–35 as a firm, mobile, non-tender lump. The other options — papillary carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, inflammatory carcinoma, and infiltrating ductal carcinoma — are all malignant and far less common overall.

Question 4: Regarding osteoarthritis which of the following is true?

• Usually affects small joints
• More common in men than in women
• Joint pain is precipitated by exertion (Correct answer)
• More common in thin and athletic people
• Onset is generally before 40 years of age

Correct answer: Joint pain is precipitated by exertion

In osteoarthritis, joint pain characteristically worsens with activity (exertion) and improves with rest, due to cartilage degeneration under mechanical stress. Osteoarthritis typically affects large weight-bearing joints (not small joints), is more common in women (especially post-menopausal), is associated with obesity rather than athletic build, and generally presents after age 40.

Question 5: 3 months after a measles infection a 7 year old boy develops seizure, the most likely diagnoses is?

• Phenylketonuria
• Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
• Benign Febrile Seizures
• Maple syrup urine disease
• Subacute sclerosing disease (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Subacute sclerosing disease

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare, progressive fatal neurological disorder caused by persistent measles virus infection of the brain, typically presenting months to years after the initial measles infection with seizures and cognitive decline. Phenylketonuria and maple syrup urine disease are metabolic disorders present from birth, subarachnoid hemorrhage has a vascular cause, and febrile seizures occur with acute fever — none follow a prior measles infection.

Question 6: A baby turns blue whenever stops crying, most likely diagnosis is:

• Lung abscess
• Cystic Fibrosis
• Mitral stenosis
• Choanal atresia (Correct answer)
• Tetralogy of Fallot

Correct answer: Choanal atresia

Choanal atresia is a congenital bony or membranous blockage of the posterior nasal passages. Neonates and infants are obligate nasal breathers, so when the baby stops crying (and stops mouth breathing), cyanosis results because they cannot breathe through blocked nasal passages. Tetralogy of Fallot causes cyanosis too, but it is not relieved by crying — it is actually worsened by crying in some presentations, not improved.

Question 7: The best test for a child with pneumonia, nasal polyps and meconium ileus is:

• Sweat test (Correct answer)
• Guthrie test
• Secretin test
• Nasal challenge test
• Glucose tolerance test

Correct answer: Sweat test

The triad of recurrent pneumonia, nasal polyps, and meconium ileus is pathognomonic for Cystic Fibrosis, and the sweat chloride test is the gold standard diagnostic test. The Guthrie test screens for phenylketonuria, the secretin test evaluates pancreatic function, and the glucose tolerance test diagnoses diabetes — none are appropriate for this clinical picture.

Question 8: Risk factors for developing acute renal failure include:

• Jaundice
• Anesthesia
• Increased age
• ECF volume contraction
• All of the above (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All of the above

All listed factors — jaundice (hepatorenal syndrome risk), anesthesia (reduced renal perfusion), increased age (decreased renal reserve), and ECF volume contraction (pre-renal failure) — are established risk factors for acute renal failure. Because each option independently impairs renal perfusion or tubular function, 'all of the above' is correct.

Question 9: Regarding Q fever, which of the following is TRUE?

• is a rickettsia disease
• caused by coxiella bruneti
• spread mainly by inhalation
• has an incubation period of 1 to 3 weeks
• All of the above (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All of the above

All statements about Q fever are true: it is caused by Coxiella burnetii (a rickettsial organism), is transmitted primarily by inhalation of contaminated aerosols from infected livestock, and has an incubation period of 1–3 weeks. This makes 'all of the above' the correct answer.

Question 10: Regarding hepatitis B virus (HBV), which of the following is TRUE?

• incubation period is between 20 to 30 days
• individuals with HBsAg are highly infectious
• about 60% of infected patients become chronic carriers
• the incidence peaks in the 15 to 19 year old age groups (Correct answer)
• All of the above

Correct answer: the incidence peaks in the 15 to 19 year old age groups

HBV incidence peaks in the 15–19 age group due to sexual activity and risk behaviors in adolescents. The other options are incorrect: the incubation period is 45–180 days (not 20–30), HBsAg positivity alone does not indicate high infectivity (HBeAg does), and only about 5–10% of adults become chronic carriers (not 60%).

Question 11: Regarding hepatitis A virus (HAV), which of the following is FALSE?

• Mortality rate is less than 0.1%
• Diagnosis is based on serologic tests
• Incubation period is between
• Patients are most

A key FALSE statement about Hepatitis A is that it causes chronic infection — HAV does not establish chronic hepatitis or a carrier state, unlike HBV and HCV. The true statements are that its mortality rate is below 0.1%, diagnosis relies on serologic testing (anti-HAV IgM), and its incubation period is 15–50 days.