The Intercollegiate FRCS Part A is a professional certification assessment in United Kingdom. Thorough preparation is essential to demonstrate your knowledge and competency in this field.
Our comprehensive collection of free FRCS practice questions covers all exam domains and topics. Use these detailed study materials to build confidence and improve your test performance.
Numbers in brackets link to the official sources listed under Sources & last verified. Dates that have passed are removed automatically.
| Item | Detail | Source · Verified |
|---|---|---|
| Passing score (Section 1) | Standard-set eligibility to proceed mark[1] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Exam fee | £2,070 total (£600 for Section 1 and £1,470 for Section 2)[2] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Exam fee (Section 1) | £600[2] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Retake policy (Section 1) | Maximum 4 attempts within 2 years of first attempt, no re-entry[1] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Validity | Maximum 7 years to complete entire examination process[1] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Delivery | Pearson VUE test centres in the UK and Ireland[3] | pearsonvue.com · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Eligibility | GMC- or IMC-recognised medical qualification, qualified 6+ years, 3 structured references[1] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Score release (Section 1) | Within 6 weeks of examination date[2] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Next exam date (Cardiothoracic Surgery Section 1) | 8 July 2027[5] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Next exam date (General Surgery Section 1) | 27 January 2027[4] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Next exam date (Trauma & Orthopaedic Surgery Section 1) | 28 January 2027[6] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Late registration deadline | No late applications permitted[2] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Registration deadline (Cardiothoracic Surgery Section 1) | 8 April 2027[5] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
| Registration opens (Cardiothoracic Surgery Section 1) | 14 January 2027[5] | Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations · Oct 31, 2026 |
Important: The FRCS examination requires thorough understanding of all core subject areas. Review the official UK exam guidelines and ensure you meet all eligibility requirements before scheduling your test date.
According to Joint Committee on Intercollegiate Examinations, “A process of standard setting is performed by trained and experienced examiners to set the eligibility to proceed mark.”[1]
Prepare for the FRCS Part A - Fellowship of Royal College of Surgeons exam with our free practice test modules. Each quiz covers key topics to help you pass on your first try.
These are practice questions written for this site, not questions from the real exam. Each explanation shows why the right answer is right and why the others are wrong.
Question: Which antiemetic acts primarily as a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist and is commonly used for post-operative nausea and vomiting?
Answer: A. Ondansetron
Explanation:
Ondansetron is correct. It blocks 5-HT3 serotonin receptors at the chemoreceptor trigger zone and on vagal afferents, which is why it is a standard choice for post-operative nausea and vomiting. It causes little sedation, though it can prolong the QT interval and cause constipation.
Metoclopramide is wrong because its main action is dopamine antagonism. Cyclizine is wrong because it is a histamine antagonist. Haloperidol is wrong because it is also a dopamine antagonist.
Rule to remember: name the antiemetic by its receptor target. When a question says serotonin, look for the setron. Dopamine or histamine wording points to the other classes.
Question: Which clotting factor has the shortest half-life and is therefore the earliest indicator of synthetic liver failure?
Answer: D. Factor VII
Explanation:
Factor VII is correct. It has the shortest half-life of the clotting factors listed, and it depends on vitamin K and on synthesis in the liver. When the liver stops making proteins, factor VII falls first, so the PT/INR, which is sensitive to it, rises early.
Factor X is wrong because its half-life is considerably longer, so it changes later. Factor V is wrong for the same reason, and it is not vitamin K dependent. Factor VIII is wrong because it is not made only in the liver and is often raised in liver disease, which makes it a poor marker of synthetic failure.
Rule to remember: the shortest-lived factor shows liver failure earliest, and the PT/INR tracks it.
Question: In the context of evidence-based surgery, which level of evidence is provided by a well-conducted randomised controlled trial?
Answer: A. Level 1b
Explanation:
Level 1b is correct. In the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine hierarchy, a single well-conducted randomised controlled trial sits at Level 1b.
Level 1a is wrong because it is reserved for a systematic review of randomised trials, which pools several trials rather than reporting one. Level 2a is wrong because it is a systematic review of cohort studies, a weaker design with no randomisation. Level 3 is wrong because it describes case-control studies, which look backwards from the outcome.
Rule to remember: ask what the study design is and whether it is a single study or a review of several. One trial is 1b, a review of trials is 1a, and cohort and case-control designs sit lower.
Start with the official material. Read the JCIE pages on eligibility, fees, retake rules and your specialty calendar so you know your application deadline before you study anything else. Closing dates are strict and late applications are not permitted.
Then take a baseline on the FREE FRCS PRACTICE TEST without notes. Write down every topic where you guessed, not just the ones you got wrong.
Work through the topic sets one at a time, starting with your weakest. Useful starting points are Applied Surgical Anatomy, Surgical Physiology, Pharmacology in Surgery and Statistics, Ethics and Law. After each set, read every explanation, including those for questions you answered correctly, and note the general rule behind each one.
Return to missed topics after a gap rather than repeating them straight away, because delayed recall shows what you actually retain. Keep a short error log of repeated mistakes such as receptor targets, evidence levels and half-lives.
In the final stretch, repeat the full practice test under timed conditions and compare it with your baseline. Our questions are written by us to practise the subject, not copied from real exams, so use them to find gaps rather than to predict a result.
Join thousands of candidates who have used our free practice tests to prepare for the Intercollegiate FRCS Part A. Start practising today and build the confidence you need to succeed.
For more in-depth preparation strategies, read our DMV - Department of Motor Vehicles — covering exam format, scoring, and proven study techniques.
Try these questions from our free FRCS Part A practice tests. The correct answer and an explanation follow each question.
A surgeon notices a colleague appears intoxicated in the operating theatre. According to GMC Good Medical Practice, what is the surgeon's primary duty?
Answer: A. Raise a concern to protect patient safety
GMC Good Medical Practice (2024) states that doctors must raise concerns if they believe patient safety is at risk, including concerns about a colleague's fitness to practise. The duty to protect patients takes precedence over professional loyalty. Concerns should be raised with a senior colleague, clinical director, or through the organisation's reporting mechanisms. Failure to raise concerns may itself constitute a fitness to practise issue.
A new diagnostic test for bowel cancer has a sensitivity of 85% and a specificity of 90%. What does the specificity of 90% tell you?
Answer: B. 90% of patients without bowel cancer will test negative
Specificity is the proportion of truly disease-free individuals who test negative (true negative rate). A specificity of 90% means 90% of patients without bowel cancer will correctly test negative. The false positive rate is 10% (1 − specificity). High specificity minimises false positives.
A patient taking clopidogrel requires an elective total hip replacement. According to UK guidelines, how many days before surgery should clopidogrel ideally be stopped?
Answer: A. 7 days
Clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets for the platelet's lifespan (7-10 days). UK guidelines (NICE, AAGBI) recommend stopping clopidogrel 7 days before elective surgery to allow sufficient new platelet production. The decision must balance bleeding risk against thrombotic risk, particularly in patients with recent coronary stents.
Which of the following analgesic drugs inhibits both serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake in addition to being a weak opioid agonist?
Answer: A. Tramadol
Tramadol has a dual mechanism of action: it is a weak mu-opioid receptor agonist AND inhibits reuptake of serotonin (5-HT) and noradrenaline. This dual mechanism makes it effective for both nociceptive and neuropathic pain. However, it carries a risk of serotonin syndrome when combined with other serotonergic drugs (SSRIs, MAOIs) and lowers the seizure threshold.
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