Chronic Disease Management Flashcards
7 cards from real FRACGP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Chronic Disease Management flashcards as text
Which blood pressure target is recommended for most adults with hypertension and no major comorbidities according to current Australian guidelines?
Answer: Below 140/90 mmHg
Current Australian Hypertension guidelines recommend a target of below 140/90 mmHg for most adults, with more intensive targets considered for high-risk patients.
A patient with type 2 diabetes develops microalbuminuria. Besides optimising glycaemic and blood pressure control, which medication class is recommended to slow nephropathy progression?
Answer: ACE inhibitors or ARBs
ACE inhibitors and ARBs reduce intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria, slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy independent of their blood pressure-lowering effects.
When initiating urate-lowering therapy with allopurinol in a patient with gout, what is the recommended approach to minimise the risk of triggering a flare?
Answer: Start at a low dose (e.g., 50–100 mg/day) and titrate gradually
Allopurinol should be started at a low dose (50–100 mg/day) and titrated up slowly to minimise the risk of precipitating acute gout flares from rapid urate mobilisation.
Which preventive intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing fracture risk in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis?
Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate)
Bisphosphonates such as alendronate have the highest level of evidence for reducing vertebral, hip, and non-vertebral fracture risk in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
In managing patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or more, what is the recommended antithrombotic strategy?
Answer: Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC or warfarin
A CHA2DS2-VASc score of ≥2 confers sufficient stroke risk to recommend oral anticoagulation; DOACs are preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF due to better safety and efficacy profiles.
A GP is reviewing a patient with stable angina on aspirin and a long-acting nitrate. What additional medication class significantly reduces mortality in patients with stable coronary artery disease?
Answer: Beta-blocker
Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand, decrease anginal episodes, and have proven mortality benefit in patients with stable CAD and prior myocardial infarction.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of iron deficiency anaemia confirmed by low ferritin in a 55-year-old man with no obvious dietary cause?
Answer: Investigate for a source of occult blood loss before or alongside iron therapy
Iron deficiency anaemia in a middle-aged or older man without a clear dietary cause requires investigation for occult gastrointestinal blood loss (e.g., colonoscopy), as malignancy must be excluded.