FRACGP Chronic Disease Management 3

Question 1

Which blood pressure target is recommended for most adults with hypertension and no major comorbidities according to current Australian guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Below 140/90 mmHg

Answer

Below 150/90 mmHg

Answer

Below 130/80 mmHg

Answer

Below 120/70 mmHg

Question 2

A patient with type 2 diabetes develops microalbuminuria. Besides optimising glycaemic and blood pressure control, which medication class is recommended to slow nephropathy progression?

Accepted Answer

ACE inhibitors or ARBs

Answer

Calcium channel blockers

Answer

Thiazide diuretics

Answer

Beta-blockers

Question 3

When initiating urate-lowering therapy with allopurinol in a patient with gout, what is the recommended approach to minimise the risk of triggering a flare?

Accepted Answer

Start at a low dose (e.g., 50–100 mg/day) and titrate gradually

Answer

Start at the maximum dose immediately

Answer

Co-administer with corticosteroids for at least 12 months

Answer

Wait until the patient has had three or more attacks before starting

Question 4

Which preventive intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing fracture risk in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis?

Accepted Answer

Bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate)

Answer

Calcium supplementation alone

Answer

Vitamin D supplementation alone

Answer

Dietary protein increase

Question 5

In managing patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or more, what is the recommended antithrombotic strategy?

Accepted Answer

Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC or warfarin

Answer

Aspirin alone

Answer

Aspirin plus clopidogrel

Answer

No antithrombotic therapy required

Question 6

A GP is reviewing a patient with stable angina on aspirin and a long-acting nitrate. What additional medication class significantly reduces mortality in patients with stable coronary artery disease?

Accepted Answer

Beta-blocker

Answer

Short-acting calcium channel blocker

Answer

Long-acting nitrate (second agent)

Answer

Digoxin

Question 7

Which of the following is the most appropriate management of iron deficiency anaemia confirmed by low ferritin in a 55-year-old man with no obvious dietary cause?

Accepted Answer

Investigate for a source of occult blood loss before or alongside iron therapy

Answer

Start oral iron supplementation without further investigation

Answer

Prescribe parenteral iron immediately

Answer

Recommend dietary changes only