FEAST Pilot Aptitude Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A candidate is given two tasks simultaneously: tracking numbers on a screen and responding to audio tones. Performance on both tasks is measured. This type of test assesses:

Divided attention — the ability to monitor and respond to two independent streams concurrently (Correct answer)
Selective attention — filtering relevant signals from noise
Alternating attention — switching between tasks sequentially
Focused attention — concentrating on a single demanding task

Correct answer: Divided attention — the ability to monitor and respond to two independent streams concurrently

Performing two independent tasks at the same time tests divided attention, which is directly relevant to ATC multitasking demands.

Question 2: A controller has the following decision rule: 'Transfer an aircraft to the next sector when: (1) it reaches the sector boundary, OR (2) it requests transfer, OR (3) the receiving sector requests early transfer.' Aircraft Omega is 5 NM from the boundary, has not requested transfer, but the receiving sector has called requesting early transfer. Should the aircraft be transferred?

Yes — but only if the pilot also agrees to the early transfer
No — at least two conditions must be met for an OR rule to apply
Yes — condition (3) is satisfied and the OR rule means any single condition is sufficient (Correct answer)
No — the aircraft must reach the boundary before transfer is possible

Correct answer: Yes — condition (3) is satisfied and the OR rule means any single condition is sufficient

The rule uses OR logic — any single condition being true is sufficient to trigger transfer. Condition (3) is met, so the transfer should proceed.

Question 3: A controller must visualise the 3D intersection of two aircraft tracks. Aircraft A descends from FL350 to FL100 at 500 NM before a waypoint. Aircraft B climbs from FL100 to FL350 starting from 300 NM before the same waypoint. Both fly toward the waypoint on the same track. Where approximately do their level ranges overlap?

Between approximately 200 NM and 300 NM before the waypoint — the descending and climbing profiles overlap in this zone (Correct answer)
At the waypoint itself — both aircraft converge at that point
They never overlap because they are on opposite vertical profiles
At exactly 250 NM — midway between 200 NM and 300 NM

Correct answer: Between approximately 200 NM and 300 NM before the waypoint — the descending and climbing profiles overlap in this zone

Aircraft A descends over 500 NM (from FL350 at -500 NM to FL100 at the waypoint). Aircraft B climbs over 300 NM (from FL100 at -300 NM to FL350 at the waypoint). A's descent profile overlaps with B's climb profile in the zone where both are in intermediate flight levels — approximately between 200 and 300 NM from the waypoint.

Question 4: For a brief period, you see the following flight data on your screen: - DLH182: Altitude 25000ft, Speed 420kts - KLM607: Altitude 27000ft, Speed 420kts - SWR319: Altitude 25000ft, Speed 450kts Based on this information, which two aircraft were at the same altitude?

DLH182 and KLM607
DLH182 and SWR319 (Correct answer)
KLM607 and SWR319
All were at different altitudes

Correct answer: DLH182 and SWR319

This tests the ability to hold multiple data points in short-term memory and perform a comparison. The data shows that both DLH182 and SWR319 were at an altitude of 25000ft.

Question 5: Two aircraft are on crossing tracks at the same altitude. Aircraft P is northbound (heading 000) and Aircraft Q is eastbound (heading 090). Aircraft P is currently 10 NM south of the intersection. Aircraft Q is currently 10 NM west of the intersection. Both are at the same speed. At the intersection, the separation will be:

0 NM — they will arrive at the intersection at exactly the same time given equal speed and equal distance (Correct answer)
10 NM — the distance between their starting positions
7 NM — the diagonal distance at the moment of first proximity
5 NM — half the initial distance from the intersection

Correct answer: 0 NM — they will arrive at the intersection at exactly the same time given equal speed and equal distance

Equal distance (10 NM each) from the intersection at equal speed means both aircraft arrive simultaneously — separation = 0 NM at the intersection point.

Question 6: A controller gives the instruction: 'Scandinavian 761, after the departing Airbus on your left, line up and wait behind.' What is Scandinavian 761 cleared to do?

Follow the Airbus to the gate after it has landed.
Enter the runway after the Airbus has departed and wait in position. (Correct answer)
Taxi to the runway holding point and wait for another clearance.
Enter the runway and prepare for immediate takeoff.

Correct answer: Enter the runway after the Airbus has departed and wait in position.

The instruction is conditional. 'After the departing Airbus' sets the condition. 'Line up and wait behind' is the clearance to enter the runway and hold in takeoff position once the condition is met. The aircraft is not cleared for takeoff and should not stop before the runway.

Question 7: A controller receives a TCAS RA notification from a pilot. The controller's correct response is:

Acknowledge the RA and do not issue any instruction that conflicts with the TCAS advisory (Correct answer)
Override the TCAS advisory with ATC instructions to maintain separation responsibility
Ask the pilot to confirm the RA type before acknowledging
Instruct the pilot to ignore the RA and follow ATC instructions

Correct answer: Acknowledge the RA and do not issue any instruction that conflicts with the TCAS advisory

When a TCAS RA is issued, pilots must follow it. Controllers must acknowledge and must not issue conflicting instructions until the RA is resolved.

Question 8: A data block on a radar screen briefly flashes a "CFL" (Cleared Flight Level) alert for a fraction of a second. Even though the controller's gaze was not directly on that specific block, they retain a fleeting visual impression of the flash. This ultra-short-term visual buffer is known as:

Short-term memory
Iconic memory (Correct answer)
Echoic memory
Working memory

Correct answer: Iconic memory

Iconic memory is the visual sensory memory register. It acts as a very brief (less than a second) buffer for visual information, allowing the brain time to process it even if attention isn't immediately focused on the stimulus. Echoic memory is the auditory equivalent.

Question 9: The phenomenon where an air traffic controller becomes so focused on resolving a single complex problem that they fail to perceive other important, clearly visible information on their display, such as an alert for a different aircraft, is known as:

Cognitive dissonance
Attentional tunneling (Correct answer)
Procedural drift
Situational compliance

Correct answer: Attentional tunneling

Attentional tunneling, also known as cognitive tunneling, is a form of selective attention where an individual focuses so intently on one stimulus or task that they become functionally blind to other, equally or more important, stimuli. [6, 11, 14] This is a critical risk in high-stakes environments like air traffic control.

Question 10: An aircraft at N50° E000° flies heading 090 at 480 kts. Another aircraft at N50° E003° flies heading 270 at 480 kts. They are on the same latitude and converging on the same east-west line. Their current separation is approximately:

Exactly 3 NM — degrees and NM are equivalent in ATC
Exactly 180 NM — 3 degrees of longitude always equals 180 NM
Approximately 60 NM — 1 degree of longitude always equals 60 NM
Approximately 113 NM — at N50°, 3° of longitude ≈ 3 × 37.7 NM ≈ 113 NM (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Approximately 113 NM — at N50°, 3° of longitude ≈ 3 × 37.7 NM ≈ 113 NM

At N50°, 1° longitude = cos(50°) × 60 NM = 0.643 × 60 = 38.6 NM. Three degrees = 3 × 38.6 ≈ 116 NM (approximately 113 NM).

Question 11: Rule: 'Speed restrictions must be maintained until 10 DME from the threshold, at which point the aircraft is cleared to accelerate to approach speed. Speed restrictions do not apply to emergency aircraft at any point.' An emergency aircraft is 6 DME from the threshold. Does the speed restriction apply?

No — emergency aircraft are exempt from speed restrictions at any point (Correct answer)
Yes — the aircraft must still follow speed restrictions until 10 DME even during emergencies
No — the aircraft is within 10 DME so the restriction has already been lifted
Yes — speed restrictions protect other aircraft in the approach sequence

Correct answer: No — emergency aircraft are exempt from speed restrictions at any point

The rule explicitly exempts emergency aircraft from speed restrictions 'at any point' — this exemption covers all situations regardless of distance from threshold.

Question 12: A controller must rapidly scan a radar display and identify any aircraft not on their cleared heading within 5 seconds. This task specifically tests:

Working memory capacity for holding cleared headings
Visual search speed and accuracy — the ability to rapidly detect targets against complex backgrounds (Correct answer)
Long-term memory for typical aircraft heading assignments in the sector
Spatial reasoning for calculating heading deviations

Correct answer: Visual search speed and accuracy — the ability to rapidly detect targets against complex backgrounds

Rapid target detection within a time limit against a complex background is a direct measure of visual search speed and accuracy.

Question 13: A candidate hears: 'New clearance: climb FL240, speed 280 knots, heading 150.' Immediately after, they hear: 'Correction: climb FL250 not FL240.' The corrected clearance requires the candidate to:

Ask the controller to repeat the full clearance to avoid confusion
Apply only the correction (FL250) and discard all prior memory of the clearance
Re-encode all three elements of the corrected clearance from scratch
Update the level to FL250 while retaining the unchanged speed and heading in memory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Update the level to FL250 while retaining the unchanged speed and heading in memory

Corrections require updating only the changed element (FL240 → FL250) while retaining the unchanged elements (speed 280, heading 150) — this tests selective updating of working memory.

Question 14: The FEAST personality module assesses 'stress tolerance'. Which candidate behaviour best demonstrates high stress tolerance in an operational ATC context?

Maintaining accurate performance and calm communication during high-traffic periods with simultaneous competing demands (Correct answer)
Taking frequent breaks during high-traffic periods to prevent performance degradation
Avoiding difficult tasks during busy periods to prevent errors
Reporting to a supervisor immediately whenever workload increases above normal

Correct answer: Maintaining accurate performance and calm communication during high-traffic periods with simultaneous competing demands

High stress tolerance is demonstrated by maintaining performance quality and composure under high-demand conditions, not by avoidance or delegation.

Question 15: An air traffic control system has the following rules for prioritizing landing aircraft: 1. Aircraft with a declared emergency have the highest priority. 2. Faster aircraft have priority over slower aircraft. 3. Aircraft closer to the runway have priority over those farther away. Given the following aircraft, which one should be cleared to land FIRST? - AC123: 10 miles away, speed 180 knots, no emergency. - AC456: 8 miles away, speed 160 knots, no emergency. - AC789: 12 miles away, speed 190 knots, no emergency. - AC987: 20 miles away, speed 170 knots, declared emergency.

AC456
AC987 (Correct answer)
AC789
AC123

Correct answer: AC987

The rules are hierarchical. The first rule states that an aircraft with a declared emergency has the highest priority, overriding all other factors. AC987 has declared an emergency, so it must be cleared to land first, regardless of its speed or distance from the runway.

Question 16: On an approach controller's screen, three aircraft are displayed on the same final approach path, spaced equally apart and flying at the same speed. The controller instinctively perceives them as a single "arrival sequence" rather than three independent targets. This is a direct application of which Gestalt principle of perception?

Closure
Proximity
Common Fate (Correct answer)
Similarity

Correct answer: Common Fate

The Law of Common Fate is a Gestalt principle stating that objects moving in the same direction and at the same speed are perceived as a single group. This is highly relevant in ATC for identifying streams of traffic. Proximity refers to closeness, Similarity to looking alike, and Closure to completing incomplete shapes.

Question 17: Rule: A squawk code of 7700 indicates general emergency. A squawk code of 7600 indicates communication failure. A squawk code of 7500 indicates hijack. A radar target appears with squawk 7600. The controller's correct interpretation is:

The aircraft's transponder is malfunctioning
The aircraft has lost radio communication and cannot be contacted on the normal frequency (Correct answer)
The aircraft has declared a general emergency
The aircraft has been hijacked

Correct answer: The aircraft has lost radio communication and cannot be contacted on the normal frequency

Squawk 7600 specifically means communication failure (NORDO — no radio). This is distinct from 7700 (emergency) and 7500 (hijack).

Question 18: A pilot declares an emergency by squawking transponder code:

1200
7700 (Correct answer)
7500
7600

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universal emergency code that alerts ATC and triggers alarms on radar displays.

Question 19: Which of the following scenarios presents the most immediate risk of a collision, assuming both aircraft maintain their current heading and speed?

Aircraft A is at (3,3) heading 045. Aircraft B is at (8,8) heading 225. (Correct answer)
Aircraft A is at (1,7) heading 360. Aircraft B is at (7,1) heading 090.
Aircraft A is at (5,5) heading 090. Aircraft B is at (5,1) heading 270.
Aircraft A is at (2,8) heading 180. Aircraft B is at (6,8) heading 180.

Correct answer: Aircraft A is at (3,3) heading 045. Aircraft B is at (8,8) heading 225.

Aircraft A is heading Northeast (045) and Aircraft B is heading Southwest (225). They are on a direct reciprocal course, flying directly towards each other along the same diagonal path. This presents the most immediate collision risk. The other options describe aircraft on parallel or non-intersecting paths.

Question 20: Iconic memory in the context of visual perception refers to:

Long-term memory for visually distinctive landmarks or radar symbols
Memory for frequently seen visual patterns that becomes automatic over years of experience
The visual component of working memory that holds 4–7 visual items
A brief, high-capacity visual buffer that holds a complete snapshot of the visual scene for approximately 0.5 seconds after stimulus offset (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A brief, high-capacity visual buffer that holds a complete snapshot of the visual scene for approximately 0.5 seconds after stimulus offset

Iconic memory is a very brief, high-capacity sensory register that retains a complete visual representation of the scene for a fraction of a second before decay.

Question 21: You are simultaneously monitoring aircraft at FL350 and FL370, when both aircraft call within seconds of each other. Aircraft at FL350 reports a technical problem; aircraft at FL370 requests a higher level. You should:

Grant the climb to FL370 first since it only requires a short transmission
Handle both simultaneously by issuing a combined response
Ask both aircraft to standby and assess the situation on radar first
Address the technical problem at FL350 first as it may affect the aircraft's capability to maintain altitude (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Address the technical problem at FL350 first as it may affect the aircraft's capability to maintain altitude

A technical problem affecting an aircraft's ability to maintain altitude can directly impact separation with other traffic and must be assessed first.

Question 22: You are looking at a radar screen from directly above. An aircraft appears at the top of your screen, flying towards the bottom. From your perspective, the aircraft's left wing is pointing towards which direction?

West
East (Correct answer)
North
South

Correct answer: East

If the aircraft is at the top of the screen (North) and flying towards the bottom (South), its nose is pointing South. From the pilot's perspective inside the plane, the left wing points to the East. Since you are viewing it from above, your perspective aligns with this; the aircraft's left side is to the East.

Question 23: A controller monitoring radar for 45 minutes notices their detection rate for level deviations has dropped from 95% to 70%. This change most likely reflects:

Vigilance decrement — a natural decline in detection performance over sustained monitoring periods (Correct answer)
A reduction in the frequency of actual deviations, making them harder to detect
Visual fatigue from staring at the radar screen for too long
Increased cognitive processing as more aircraft are added to the sector

Correct answer: Vigilance decrement — a natural decline in detection performance over sustained monitoring periods

The vigilance decrement is a well-documented cognitive phenomenon where detection performance declines over extended monotonous monitoring periods.

Question 24: Four tasks arrive simultaneously: (1) A pilot requests a frequency change, (2) An aircraft is 500 ft below its cleared altitude without clearance, (3) A METAR update arrives on the printer, (4) A pilot requests weather deviation. The correct first action is:

Approve the weather deviation request as weather avoidance is safety-critical
Read the METAR and update all aircraft with the new weather
Contact the aircraft 500 ft below its cleared altitude to query the deviation (Correct answer)
Approve the frequency change as it only takes one transmission

Correct answer: Contact the aircraft 500 ft below its cleared altitude to query the deviation

An unreported altitude deviation is a potential separation infringement and must be resolved immediately by querying the crew.

Question 25: Sequence rule: Aircraft must be sequenced for the ILS as follows: Heavy aircraft first, then Medium aircraft, then Light aircraft. Within each weight category, earlier estimated arrival time (EAT) takes priority. Four aircraft have these profiles: Alpha — Medium, EAT 12:10; Bravo — Heavy, EAT 12:15; Charlie — Light, EAT 12:05; Delta — Heavy, EAT 12:08. The correct ILS sequence is:

Alpha, Delta, Bravo, Charlie
Charlie, Delta, Bravo, Alpha
Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie (Correct answer)
Bravo, Delta, Alpha, Charlie

Correct answer: Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie

Heavies first: Delta (12:08) before Bravo (12:15). Then Mediums: Alpha (12:10). Then Lights: Charlie (12:05). Sequence: Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie.

Question 26: A procedure states: 'Separation minima are reduced from 5 NM to 3 NM only if: (a) radar coverage is confirmed, and (b) the sector is not in a high-density period, and (c) a supervisor approves the reduction.' A controller wants to apply 3 NM separation. The radar is confirmed, the supervisor has approved, but it is a high-density period. The controller may:

Apply 3 NM separation only if the supervisor explicitly overrides condition (b)
Not apply 3 NM separation — all three conditions must be met and condition (b) is not satisfied (Correct answer)
Apply 3 NM separation — two out of three conditions are met
Apply 3 NM separation — the supervisor's approval overrides the density condition

Correct answer: Not apply 3 NM separation — all three conditions must be met and condition (b) is not satisfied

All three conditions are required (AND logic). Failing any one condition means the reduction cannot be applied, regardless of how many other conditions are met.

Question 27: On a radar display, an aircraft track leaves a series of position dots over time. The dots are getting closer together over the last 3 sweeps. This indicates the aircraft is:

Turning — the dots spiral inward during a turn
Accelerating — more rapid position change between sweeps
Decelerating — the aircraft is slowing down, so it moves less distance between radar sweeps (Correct answer)
Climbing — the aircraft's groundspeed decreases as it climbs

Correct answer: Decelerating — the aircraft is slowing down, so it moves less distance between radar sweeps

If position dots (radar returns) are getting closer together over time while the sweep rate is constant, the aircraft is covering less distance per sweep — it is decelerating.

Question 28: A passage states: 'Pilot incapacitation means the flight crew cannot operate the aircraft. Because behavior may appear abnormal on radar, controllers may be the first to detect the problem.' What conclusion is best supported?

Controllers are always responsible for landing an aircraft whose crew is incapacitated
Pilot incapacitation is a rare event that never occurs in commercial aviation
Controllers can assume remote control of aircraft during incapacitation
Abnormal aircraft behavior on radar can indicate a crew emergency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Abnormal aircraft behavior on radar can indicate a crew emergency

The passage directly links unusual radar behavior to a possible crew emergency, supporting the conclusion that abnormal behavior can signal incapacitation.

Question 29: In the FEAST selection process, why are personality assessments used alongside cognitive ability tests?

Because personality determines intelligence in complex real-world tasks
Because cognitive tests measure capability while personality assessments predict how candidates will behave in the workplace (Correct answer)
Because cognitive tests are not reliable enough to use alone
Because regulatory requirements mandate personality testing for all aviation roles

Correct answer: Because cognitive tests measure capability while personality assessments predict how candidates will behave in the workplace

Cognitive tests predict what a person can do; personality assessments predict how they will behave, covering motivation, team fit, and stress responses that cognitive tests cannot measure.

Question 30: An aircraft is flying a standard rate turn (3 degrees per second). It takes approximately how long to complete a 180-degree turn?

120 seconds — a full turn takes 240 seconds so half is 120 seconds
90 seconds — 180 ÷ 2 degrees per second
30 seconds — half of 180 is 90 seconds which is halved
60 seconds — 180 degrees ÷ 3 degrees per second = 60 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60 seconds — 180 degrees ÷ 3 degrees per second = 60 seconds

Standard rate turn = 3°/second. Time for 180° = 180 ÷ 3 = 60 seconds.

Question 31: A radar display shows aircraft positions as dots. North is up. An aircraft dot moves from the centre of the screen toward the upper right corner over 30 seconds. The aircraft's approximate heading is:

000-045 degrees — upper right means north-northeast
045-090 degrees — the upper right of a north-up display represents the northeast quadrant (Correct answer)
270-315 degrees — the aircraft appears to be moving toward the west
135-180 degrees — upper right on radar is southeast when flying south is 'up'

Correct answer: 045-090 degrees — the upper right of a north-up display represents the northeast quadrant

On a north-up radar display, up = north, right = east. Movement toward upper-right = northeast = heading approximately 045-090 degrees.

Question 32: An aircraft at position N52° E004° is flying heading 090 at 400 kts groundspeed. After 15 minutes, its approximate longitude will be:

E004° — the aircraft hasn't moved because heading 090 is parallel to the equator
E006° — the aircraft has moved east approximately 2° of longitude at N52° (Correct answer)
E007° — moved 3° east
E003° — the aircraft moved west because heading 090 at N52° curves poleward

Correct answer: E006° — the aircraft has moved east approximately 2° of longitude at N52°

At N52°, 1° of longitude ≈ 38 NM. In 15 minutes at 400 kts, the aircraft travels 100 NM east. 100 ÷ 38 ≈ 2.6° ≈ E006°.

Question 33: A pilot is questioning your instruction in a polite but firm manner, suggesting an alternative that they believe is more efficient for their flight. The frequency is moderately busy. What is the most professional response?

Re-issue the original instruction in a more authoritative tone to end the discussion quickly.
Immediately approve the pilot's request to avoid a lengthy conversation on a busy frequency.
Briefly and clearly state the reason for your instruction (e.g., 'Unable, for sequencing with other traffic'), then reiterate the instruction. (Correct answer)
Ignore the pilot's transmission and focus on other aircraft to show that you are in control.

Correct answer: Briefly and clearly state the reason for your instruction (e.g., 'Unable, for sequencing with other traffic'), then reiterate the instruction.

This response demonstrates assertiveness, clear communication, and professionalism. It acknowledges the pilot's input while maintaining control of the situation by providing a concise, valid reason for the instruction. This fosters mutual respect and understanding without compromising safety or efficiency. Simply being authoritative can create an adversarial relationship, and immediately acquiescing could compromise the overall traffic plan.

Question 34: A conditional rule states: 'If an aircraft reports fuel emergency AND is within 50 NM of the destination AND the weather is above minimums, then the aircraft is given priority approach. If the weather is below minimums, the aircraft is diverted regardless of fuel state.' An aircraft reports fuel emergency 30 NM from destination. Weather is below minimums. The correct action is:

Divert the aircraft — the below-minimums weather condition triggers diversion regardless of fuel emergency or proximity (Correct answer)
Hold the aircraft until weather improves and then give priority approach
Give priority approach — the fuel emergency overrides the weather rule
Give priority approach — the aircraft is within 50 NM

Correct answer: Divert the aircraft — the below-minimums weather condition triggers diversion regardless of fuel emergency or proximity

The rule explicitly states that below-minimum weather triggers diversion 'regardless of fuel state', making the weather condition a hard override of the priority approach rule.

Question 35: You are monitoring aircraft on a radar display. Minimum separation is 5 NM laterally and 1000 ft vertically. Which of the following situations presents the MOST URGENT conflict requiring immediate action?

AC111 at FL350 and AC222 at FL350 are on converging courses, currently 15 NM apart.
AC777 at FL310 and AC888 at FL310 are on parallel routes, separated by 6 NM laterally.
AC555 at FL370 and AC666 at FL370 are on reciprocal (opposite) headings, currently 7 NM apart. (Correct answer)
AC333 at FL290 and AC444 at FL300 are on the same route, with AC444 6 NM ahead.

Correct answer: AC555 at FL370 and AC666 at FL370 are on reciprocal (opposite) headings, currently 7 NM apart.

Aircraft on reciprocal (opposite) headings at the same altitude are closing the distance between them at the sum of their speeds, making this the most urgent situation. At only 7 NM apart, a loss of the 5 NM minimum separation is imminent. The converging aircraft are further apart, providing more time to react. The other pairs are currently legally separated and the separation is either stable or decreasing slowly.

Question 36: Two aircraft are on parallel headings, same altitude, separated by 4 NM. ICAO minimum radar separation is 5 NM. The controller should:

Monitor the situation — parallel aircraft will naturally diverge
Wait for STCA to activate before taking action
Issue an immediate instruction to increase separation to at least 5 NM (Correct answer)
Accept 4 NM as the aircraft are parallel and not converging

Correct answer: Issue an immediate instruction to increase separation to at least 5 NM

4 NM is already below the 5 NM minimum radar separation. Regardless of whether the tracks are parallel, the current separation infringement requires immediate corrective action.

Question 37: A 'near-miss incident' in ATC is defined as:

An airborne encounter where separation is reduced below prescribed minima but no collision occurs (Correct answer)
A runway incursion where aircraft are within 100 metres of each other
An aircraft that almost collides with terrain below minimum safe altitude
A controller error that is detected and corrected before any impact on separation

Correct answer: An airborne encounter where separation is reduced below prescribed minima but no collision occurs

A near-miss (or airprox) is an airborne event where separation falls below prescribed minima, constituting a separation infringement even if no collision results.

Question 38: Observe the sequence of numbers: 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, __. What is the logical next number in this series?

28
31
29
30 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30

The pattern is based on adding consecutively increasing integers. The difference between 5 and 8 is +3. The difference between 8 and 12 is +4. The difference between 12 and 17 is +5. The difference between 17 and 23 is +6. Therefore, the next number in the sequence will be 23 + 7, which equals 30.

Question 39: A controller issues a sequence of instructions to a pilot: 1. Turn left heading 330. 2. Descend and maintain FL120. 3. Reduce speed to 210 knots. Which of the following correctly represents the second command in the sequence?

Contact approach on 119.5
Descend and maintain FL120 (Correct answer)
Turn left heading 330
Reduce speed to 210 knots

Correct answer: Descend and maintain FL120

This question assesses the ability to remember a series of instructions in the correct order. The second instruction given in the list was to descend to flight level 120.

Question 40: A holding pattern uses 1-minute legs. An aircraft at 200 knots will travel how far (in nm) on each straight leg?

3.0 nm
3.3 nm (Correct answer)
2.8 nm
3.6 nm

Correct answer: 3.3 nm

Distance = 200 knots × (1/60) hr = 200/60 ≈ 3.33 nm.

Question 41: A controller is visualising a sector in 3D. Aircraft One is at FL300 heading north. Aircraft Two is at FL310 heading south. They are 20 NM apart on the same meridian (same longitude). They are converging both laterally and vertically. The combined closure (lateral + vertical) means the situation requires:

Monitoring only — converging aircraft that are near minimum separation should be watched
Immediate action — lateral and vertical separation are both inside or near minimum simultaneously (Correct answer)
Transfer to higher control — the controller should hand off both aircraft
No action — FL300 and FL310 have 1,000 ft vertical separation which meets ICAO standards

Correct answer: Immediate action — lateral and vertical separation are both inside or near minimum simultaneously

1,000 ft vertical separation meets the standard, but the aircraft are converging. As they converge laterally, separation will decrease below 5 NM — a conflict that must be resolved before the vertical minimum is also compromised.

Question 42: The Gestalt principle of 'proximity' in radar display visual perception means that:

Tracks with similar colours are perceived as belonging to the same category
Aircraft close together on the display are perceptually grouped, which can help controllers see clusters and formations but may cause individual tracks to be overlooked (Correct answer)
Aircraft with similar callsigns are processed together in working memory
Aircraft at similar altitudes are treated as a group by the controller's visual system

Correct answer: Aircraft close together on the display are perceptually grouped, which can help controllers see clusters and formations but may cause individual tracks to be overlooked

The Gestalt law of proximity states that spatially close items are automatically grouped perceptually — applied to radar, this affects how controllers perceive track clusters.

Question 43: What is a 'go-around' instruction used for?

Routing aircraft around restricted airspace
Directing an aircraft to a holding pattern
Directing aircraft to an alternate airport
Instructing a landing aircraft to abort its approach and climb away (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Instructing a landing aircraft to abort its approach and climb away

A go-around instruction tells the pilot to abort the landing approach and execute a climb-out for another attempt.

Question 44: The word 'vigilance' as used in aviation screening tests most nearly means:

Compliance with written regulations
Sustained alertness and watchfulness (Correct answer)
Physical coordination under stress
Navigation and spatial skill

Correct answer: Sustained alertness and watchfulness

Vigilance means maintaining sustained, careful attention over time, which is essential for detecting aircraft conflicts.

Question 45: What is the significance of a transponder squawk of 7500?

Emergency — general distress
Unlawful interference (hijacking) (Correct answer)
Military interception in progress
Lost communications

Correct answer: Unlawful interference (hijacking)

Squawk 7500 is the internationally recognized transponder code indicating an unlawful interference or hijacking situation.

Question 46: A controller issues: 'Iberia 34 Golf, you are identified 20 miles north-east of Madrid, descend to altitude four thousand feet QNH one zero one eight, reduce speed to two two zero knots, expect ILS runway one four right.' How many separate instructions does this transmission contain?

One — a combined approach clearance
Four — identified position, descend, speed, expect ILS
Three — descend, reduce speed, expect ILS runway (Correct answer)
Two — descend and reduce speed

Correct answer: Three — descend, reduce speed, expect ILS runway

The identification of position is information, not an instruction. The three actual instructions are: descend to 4,000 ft, reduce speed to 220 kts, and expect ILS runway 14R.

Question 47: You are an Air Traffic Controller in a busy sector. A junior colleague, who is still in training, makes a minor procedural error that does not create an immediate safety risk. What is the most appropriate action to take?

Wait until the end of the shift, then privately and constructively discuss the error with the colleague, explaining the correct procedure and its importance. (Correct answer)
Correct the colleague over the open communication frequency so that all pilots and controllers are aware of the proper procedure.
Immediately report the error to your shift supervisor to ensure it is officially documented.
Ignore the error, as it was minor and correcting it might undermine the trainee's confidence.

Correct answer: Wait until the end of the shift, then privately and constructively discuss the error with the colleague, explaining the correct procedure and its importance.

The most effective and professional response is to address the issue privately and constructively. This approach corrects the error, provides a valuable learning opportunity, and maintains a positive and supportive team environment. Public correction can be humiliating and counterproductive, ignoring the error is irresponsible, and immediately reporting a minor, non-safety-critical issue can be an overreaction that damages team morale.

Question 48: A level-bust occurs when an aircraft climbs 400 ft above its cleared FL310 to FL314. In the same vicinity, another aircraft is cleared to FL320. The vertical separation is now:

400 ft — only the deviation amount matters for separation calculation
600 ft — insufficient; ICAO minimum is 1,000 ft vertical separation (Correct answer)
1,400 ft — sufficient because FL320 is 1,000 ft above the original FL310
900 ft — halfway between the deviation and the cleared level difference

Correct answer: 600 ft — insufficient; ICAO minimum is 1,000 ft vertical separation

FL320 minus actual altitude FL314 = 600 ft. The ICAO minimum vertical separation of 1,000 ft is violated.

Question 49: A controller is simultaneously monitoring a radar display and filling in a paper coordination form. The most dangerous multitasking error in this situation would be:

Allowing radar monitoring to lapse during the time spent writing the form (Correct answer)
Filling the form with information from the previous sector handoff
Writing the form too slowly and missing the coordination deadline
Forgetting to sign the bottom of the coordination form

Correct answer: Allowing radar monitoring to lapse during the time spent writing the form

Allowing radar monitoring to lapse is the most dangerous because aircraft conflicts can develop rapidly and require continuous observation.

Question 50: Which radar mode provides both aircraft position and altitude information to controllers?

Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) (Correct answer)
Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)
Approach Surveillance Radar (ASR)

Correct answer: Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

Secondary Surveillance Radar interrogates aircraft transponders to obtain identity and altitude data in addition to position.

Question 51: Rule: Aircraft may fly through restricted area R-14 only if: (a) flying VFR AND (b) altitude is below 3,500 ft, OR if (c) holding a valid R-14 permit. Aircraft Kilo is IFR at 2,500 ft with no permit. Aircraft Lima is VFR at 3,000 ft with no permit. Aircraft Mike is IFR at 5,000 ft with a valid permit. Which aircraft may enter R-14?

Lima and Mike only (Correct answer)
Lima, Mike, and Kilo
Kilo and Lima
Mike only

Correct answer: Lima and Mike only

Lima is VFR at 3,000 ft (below 3,500 ft) — meets conditions (a) AND (b). Mike has a valid permit — meets condition (c). Kilo is IFR — fails condition (a); no permit — fails (c).

Question 52: A controller who performs well on single-item short-term memory tests but poorly on multi-item tests demonstrates a pattern consistent with:

Inaccurate long-term memory consolidation
Poor initial encoding of auditory information
Limited working memory capacity that is sufficient for simple but not complex ATC memory demands (Correct answer)
Superior chunking ability that artificially inflates single-item test scores

Correct answer: Limited working memory capacity that is sufficient for simple but not complex ATC memory demands

Good single-item but poor multi-item performance indicates memory capacity that is adequate for simple tasks but insufficient for the multi-element demands of real ATC.

Question 53: Three aircraft are separated by 5 nautical miles each in a line. The first aircraft is 15 nm from the runway. If all are approaching at 180 knots, when does the third aircraft reach the runway?

6.7 min
8.3 min (Correct answer)
8.0 min
10.0 min

Correct answer: 8.3 min

Third aircraft is 15 + 5 + 5 = 25 nm away; time = 25/180 × 60 = 8.33 min ≈ 8.3 min.

Question 54: You are briefly shown the following aircraft data: AZA592 is at FL310. RYR884 is squawking 7001. EIN633 is on a heading of 190 degrees. After the data disappears, you are asked: What was the flight level of aircraft AZA592?

FL 884
FL 700
FL 310 (Correct answer)
FL 190

Correct answer: FL 310

The question requires the direct recall of a specific piece of information (flight level) associated with a specific callsign (AZA592) from a set of data presented briefly. The data explicitly stated AZA592 was at FL310.

Question 55: A drone is instructed to perform the following sequence of movements from its starting point: fly 5 km North, then 5 km East, then 5 km South. What is the drone's final position relative to its starting point?

5 km North
5 km East (Correct answer)
5 km West
At the starting point

Correct answer: 5 km East

The first movement is 5 km North. The third movement is 5 km South. These two movements cancel each other out in the North-South direction. The only remaining movement is 5 km East. Therefore, the final position is 5 km East of the starting point.

Question 56: A controller detects a conflict between two aircraft where a heading change for Aircraft A would resolve the conflict but would take it into a third aircraft's path. The most appropriate action is to:

Declare an emergency and hand all three aircraft to the supervisor
Issue the heading change to Aircraft A and deal with the resulting new conflict when it develops
Resolve the original conflict using a level change or a coordinated combination of instructions to all three aircraft (Correct answer)
Instruct Aircraft B to change heading to remove it from Aircraft A's path first

Correct answer: Resolve the original conflict using a level change or a coordinated combination of instructions to all three aircraft

When the obvious resolution creates a secondary conflict, a different resolution method (level change) or coordinated instructions must be used to avoid creating new problems.

Question 57: A FEAST candidate receives a very high score on impulsivity in the personality assessment. Why might this be a concern for operational ATC work?

High impulsivity may lead to hasty decisions without adequate situational assessment, risking safety-critical errors (Correct answer)
Impulsivity is positively correlated with creativity, which improves problem-solving in ATC
High impulsivity indicates the candidate will make decisions too slowly under pressure
High impulsivity is only a concern during training; experienced controllers learn to suppress it

Correct answer: High impulsivity may lead to hasty decisions without adequate situational assessment, risking safety-critical errors

High impulsivity means acting before fully assessing situations — in ATC this can lead to premature clearances, skipped checks, and separation errors.

Question 58: An aircraft is at FL120, flying heading 180 (south) toward a mountainous area. The highest terrain ahead is 9,500 ft. The aircraft has minimum obstacle clearance requirement of 1,000 ft. The minimum safe altitude for this aircraft on heading 180 in this area is:

10,500 ft (FL105 approximately) — terrain 9,500 ft + 1,000 ft required clearance (Correct answer)
9,500 ft — the aircraft only needs to be above terrain height
12,000 ft — the current altitude and it should not descend
10,000 ft — standard safe altitude rounded to the nearest 1,000 ft

Correct answer: 10,500 ft (FL105 approximately) — terrain 9,500 ft + 1,000 ft required clearance

Minimum safe altitude = highest terrain + required obstacle clearance = 9,500 + 1,000 = 10,500 ft.

Question 59: You are presented with a complex traffic scenario that has no immediate, textbook solution. Your initial plan of action does not seem to be working as expected. What is the best behavioral response?

Force the original plan to work by issuing more forceful instructions to the pilots.
Persist with the failing plan, as deviating from it would be admitting a mistake.
Quickly blame the unexpected outcome on faulty equipment or pilot error.
Adapt to the changing circumstances by re-evaluating the situation and formulating a new plan of action. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Adapt to the changing circumstances by re-evaluating the situation and formulating a new plan of action.

Adaptability is a key skill for an ATCO. Despite the highly procedural nature of the job, controllers must be able to think flexibly and adapt their plans when conditions change or a situation doesn't evolve as expected. Rigidity can be dangerous in a dynamic environment.

Question 60: The ATIS broadcast states: 'Runway 27L in use, ILS approach, surface wind two six zero at one five, visibility ten kilometres, few clouds at two thousand five hundred feet, QNH one zero one three.' What is the active runway and the visibility?

Runway 26; visibility 2,500 m
Runway 27; visibility 15 km
Runway 27L; visibility 2,500 ft
Runway 27L; visibility 10 km (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Runway 27L; visibility 10 km

The ATIS clearly states 'Runway 27L in use' and 'visibility ten kilometres'.

FEAST Pilot Aptitude Test

The FEAST assesses aptitude for air traffic control and pilot training, testing spatial reasoning, multitasking, memory, and English comprehension.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

65%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

feast-info.eurocontrol.int — Test delivery, eligibility, fees, passing score, retake policy, score release, time limit, score validity, exam information · verified Oct 2026
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