FEAST Pilot Aptitude Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which statement best captures the main idea of this passage: 'Air traffic controllers must simultaneously track multiple aircraft positions, altitudes, and speeds. Success depends on exceptional working memory and the ability to prioritize tasks under time pressure.'

The role demands strong multitasking ability and working memory (Correct answer)
Controllers use automation to reduce their cognitive load
Peak traffic hours are the only time memory skills matter
Air traffic control is primarily a physical endurance challenge

Correct answer: The role demands strong multitasking ability and working memory

The passage explicitly states that tracking multiple aircraft requires exceptional working memory and task prioritization under time pressure.

Question 2: A radar display shows an aircraft track heading towards you from the east at a steady 5-mile-per-sweep rate. The track will be at your position in approximately:

5 minutes because the aircraft is 5 miles away
The time it takes depends on the sweep rate — but at 6 seconds per sweep, 5 NM per sweep means 360 NM/min closure (Correct answer)
Exactly 1 minute because standard ATC radar sweeps once per 12 seconds
30 seconds regardless of sweep rate

Correct answer: The time it takes depends on the sweep rate — but at 6 seconds per sweep, 5 NM per sweep means 360 NM/min closure

At 5 NM per 6-second sweep, the aircraft is moving at 5 NM per 6 sec = 50 NM/min = 3,000 kts groundspeed — which is unrealistically fast, illustrating that sweep rate and NM-per-sweep must both be known.

Question 3: A controller issues the instruction: 'Speedbird 412, reduce speed to one eight zero knots, expect further reduction on final.' What are the two instructions contained in this message?

Reduce speed and contact approach on a new frequency
Reduce to 180 knots only when on final approach
Maintain 180 knots and request further clearance
Reduce to 180 knots now, and expect another speed reduction later (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reduce to 180 knots now, and expect another speed reduction later

The phrase 'reduce speed to one eight zero knots' is an immediate instruction, while 'expect further reduction on final' is advance notice of a future action.

Question 4: A controller manages two sectors temporarily combined. The sector has 12 aircraft. Tasks pending: update a flight progress strip, coordinate with adjacent sector, answer a pilot's query, and monitor an aircraft approaching an altitude limit. What is the correct order of priority?

Monitor the altitude limit → coordinate with adjacent sector → answer pilot query → update strip (Correct answer)
Update strip → coordinate → monitor altitude → answer query
Answer query → monitor altitude → update strip → coordinate
Coordinate with sector → update strip → answer query → monitor altitude

Correct answer: Monitor the altitude limit → coordinate with adjacent sector → answer pilot query → update strip

An approaching altitude limit is a separation risk and takes priority, followed by inter-sector coordination (affecting other traffic), then pilot query, then administrative strip update.

Question 5: For a brief period, you see the following flight data on your screen: - DLH182: Altitude 25000ft, Speed 420kts - KLM607: Altitude 27000ft, Speed 420kts - SWR319: Altitude 25000ft, Speed 450kts Based on this information, which two aircraft were at the same altitude?

All were at different altitudes
KLM607 and SWR319
DLH182 and KLM607
DLH182 and SWR319 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DLH182 and SWR319

This tests the ability to hold multiple data points in short-term memory and perform a comparison. The data shows that both DLH182 and SWR319 were at an altitude of 25000ft.

Question 6: Research shows that STCA (Short-Term Conflict Alert) systems that generate many false alarms tend to produce an effect called 'alarm fatigue'. This means controllers will:

Become more vigilant because frequent alerts keep arousal levels high
Develop faster response times by practicing responses to frequent alerts
Begin to treat STCA alerts with less urgency, increasing the risk of missing genuine conflicts (Correct answer)
Turn off STCA systems to reduce distracting noise in the operational environment

Correct answer: Begin to treat STCA alerts with less urgency, increasing the risk of missing genuine conflicts

Alarm fatigue (also called alert fatigue) occurs when frequent false alarms cause operators to habituate to alerts, reducing their urgency response even to genuine warnings.

Question 7: A pilot is questioning your instruction in a polite but firm manner, suggesting an alternative that they believe is more efficient for their flight. The frequency is moderately busy. What is the most professional response?

Ignore the pilot's transmission and focus on other aircraft to show that you are in control.
Briefly and clearly state the reason for your instruction (e.g., 'Unable, for sequencing with other traffic'), then reiterate the instruction. (Correct answer)
Re-issue the original instruction in a more authoritative tone to end the discussion quickly.
Immediately approve the pilot's request to avoid a lengthy conversation on a busy frequency.

Correct answer: Briefly and clearly state the reason for your instruction (e.g., 'Unable, for sequencing with other traffic'), then reiterate the instruction.

This response demonstrates assertiveness, clear communication, and professionalism. It acknowledges the pilot's input while maintaining control of the situation by providing a concise, valid reason for the instruction. This fosters mutual respect and understanding without compromising safety or efficiency. Simply being authoritative can create an adversarial relationship, and immediately acquiescing could compromise the overall traffic plan.

Question 8: Sequence rule: Aircraft must be sequenced for the ILS as follows: Heavy aircraft first, then Medium aircraft, then Light aircraft. Within each weight category, earlier estimated arrival time (EAT) takes priority. Four aircraft have these profiles: Alpha — Medium, EAT 12:10; Bravo — Heavy, EAT 12:15; Charlie — Light, EAT 12:05; Delta — Heavy, EAT 12:08. The correct ILS sequence is:

Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie (Correct answer)
Charlie, Delta, Bravo, Alpha
Bravo, Delta, Alpha, Charlie
Alpha, Delta, Bravo, Charlie

Correct answer: Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie

Heavies first: Delta (12:08) before Bravo (12:15). Then Mediums: Alpha (12:10). Then Lights: Charlie (12:05). Sequence: Delta, Bravo, Alpha, Charlie.

Question 9: While a controller is focused on resolving a complex conflict between two aircraft in the northern part of their sector, the destination airport code in the data block of a third, non-conflicting aircraft in the southern part changes. The controller fails to notice this update for several minutes. This specific type of perceptual error is best described as:

Sensory adaptation
Expectation bias
Change blindness (Correct answer)
Inattentional blindness

Correct answer: Change blindness

Change blindness is the failure to detect a change in a visual stimulus when attention is directed elsewhere. In this scenario, the controller's focus on the conflict prevents them from noticing the modification to the data block. Inattentional blindness is failing to see an unexpected object, not a change to an existing one.

Question 10: A controller must track: Aircraft A's cleared level, Aircraft B's speed restriction, Aircraft C's transponder code, and Aircraft D's estimated time at a waypoint. Which memory technique best supports accurate multitask tracking?

Write data points on a notepad only when reminded by the pilot
Memorise all data verbally, repeating it mentally between transmissions
Maintain flight progress strips updated in real time for each aircraft (Correct answer)
Rely exclusively on the radar display without additional tracking aids

Correct answer: Maintain flight progress strips updated in real time for each aircraft

Flight progress strips are the standard tool for tracking multiple aircraft parameters simultaneously, reducing reliance on working memory alone.

Question 11: A controller needs to issue a speed reduction to create 5 miles of separation. Aircraft A is at 480 knots and Aircraft B (behind) is at 420 knots. Currently they are 2 miles apart. How many minutes will it take to achieve the required 5-mile separation?

6 min
4 min
3 min (Correct answer)
5 min

Correct answer: 3 min

Separation needed = 3 more miles; divergence rate = 60 knots = 1 nm/min; time = 3 min.

Question 12: You are given a set of instructions for sorting flight strips. Rule A: Sort by altitude, highest to lowest. Rule B: If altitudes are equal, sort by callsign, alphabetically. Which of the following sets is sorted correctly according to the rules? Set 1: FL350-BAW123, FL350-AAL456, FL330-UAL789 Set 2: FL330-UAL789, FL350-AAL456, FL350-BAW123 Set 3: FL350-AAL456, FL350-BAW123, FL330-UAL789 Set 4: FL350-BAW123, FL330-UAL789, FL350-AAL456

Set 3 (Correct answer)
Set 2
Set 1
Set 4

Correct answer: Set 3

Rule A requires sorting by altitude from highest (FL350) to lowest (FL330). Both Set 1, 3, and 4 start with FL350, which is correct. Set 2 is incorrect as it starts with the lowest altitude. Rule B applies to the two flights at FL350. They must be sorted alphabetically by callsign. 'AAL456' comes before 'BAW123'. Therefore, Set 3 is the only one that correctly applies both rules in the correct order.

Question 13: An aircraft is given a heading change from 360 to 090. It turns right. How many degrees has it turned, and in which direction was the turn?

90 degrees to the left — the most efficient route from 360 to 090
270 degrees to the right — the long way around
270 degrees to the left — completing a near-full circle
90 degrees to the right — from north (360) to east (090) is a 90-degree right turn (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 90 degrees to the right — from north (360) to east (090) is a 90-degree right turn

From 360° (north) to 090° (east) via a right turn is 90 degrees. The question specifies it turned right, so the short right turn of 90° is correct.

Question 14: An aircraft at N50° E000° flies heading 090 at 480 kts. Another aircraft at N50° E003° flies heading 270 at 480 kts. They are on the same latitude and converging on the same east-west line. Their current separation is approximately:

Exactly 180 NM — 3 degrees of longitude always equals 180 NM
Approximately 113 NM — at N50°, 3° of longitude ≈ 3 × 37.7 NM ≈ 113 NM (Correct answer)
Exactly 3 NM — degrees and NM are equivalent in ATC
Approximately 60 NM — 1 degree of longitude always equals 60 NM

Correct answer: Approximately 113 NM — at N50°, 3° of longitude ≈ 3 × 37.7 NM ≈ 113 NM

At N50°, 1° longitude = cos(50°) × 60 NM = 0.643 × 60 = 38.6 NM. Three degrees = 3 × 38.6 ≈ 116 NM (approximately 113 NM).

Question 15: You are told the following sequence: 'Squawk 3341, heading 085, altitude 7500 feet, callsign Golf-Foxtrot-Tango.' After a 15-second delay, you must recall: what was the heading?

055
095
085 (Correct answer)
075

Correct answer: 085

The heading stated was 085. Short-term memory recall requires holding exact numerical values for brief periods without re-encoding.

Question 16: Five rules apply to aircraft entering sector Bravo: Rule 1: Must be on IFR flight plan. Rule 2: Must have transponder operational. Rule 3: Must have been handed off from adjacent sector. Rule 4: Must be within the vertical limits of the sector. Rule 5: Must have confirmed two-way communication. Aircraft Sierra meets Rules 1, 2, 4, and 5 but has NOT been handed off from the adjacent sector (Rule 3). May it enter sector Bravo?

No — all five rules are AND conditions; failure of any one rule prevents entry (Correct answer)
Yes — meeting four out of five rules is sufficient for a majority-rules decision
Yes — Rule 3 (handoff) is procedural and can be waived by the controller
No — Rules 1 and 5 are the critical conditions; since 3 is not critical, entry is permitted

Correct answer: No — all five rules are AND conditions; failure of any one rule prevents entry

All five rules are listed as entry conditions — this is five-way AND logic. Failing even one condition (Rule 3) prevents entry.

Question 17: A candidate is given two tasks simultaneously: tracking numbers on a screen and responding to audio tones. Performance on both tasks is measured. This type of test assesses:

Alternating attention — switching between tasks sequentially
Focused attention — concentrating on a single demanding task
Divided attention — the ability to monitor and respond to two independent streams concurrently (Correct answer)
Selective attention — filtering relevant signals from noise

Correct answer: Divided attention — the ability to monitor and respond to two independent streams concurrently

Performing two independent tasks at the same time tests divided attention, which is directly relevant to ATC multitasking demands.

Question 18: In the context of the FEAST assessment, 'safety orientation' as a personality dimension measures:

The candidate's willingness to report safety incidents to supervisors
How quickly a candidate identifies potential safety threats on a radar display
The degree to which a candidate prioritises rules, procedures, and safe outcomes over speed, convenience, or personal preference (Correct answer)
A candidate's awareness of physical safety hazards in the workplace

Correct answer: The degree to which a candidate prioritises rules, procedures, and safe outcomes over speed, convenience, or personal preference

Safety orientation assesses whether a candidate's underlying values consistently prioritise procedural compliance and safe outcomes over competing pressures.

Question 19: Which of the following scenarios presents the most complex dynamic radar conflict management challenge?

Two aircraft on reciprocal headings at different altitudes.
Three aircraft at the same altitude with intersecting flight paths near a sector boundary. (Correct answer)
A fast aircraft overtaking a slower aircraft on the same track and at the same altitude.
An aircraft deviating for weather towards an area with no other traffic.

Correct answer: Three aircraft at the same altitude with intersecting flight paths near a sector boundary.

This scenario is the most complex because it involves multiple potential conflicts (three pairs of aircraft), requires managing multiple aircraft simultaneously, and adds the complexity of coordinating with another controller due to the proximity to the sector boundary. This increases workload and requires a more strategic solution than a simple pairwise conflict.

Question 20: You are working approach control with 8 aircraft on frequency. Two aircraft are on the ILS, three are being vectored, two are holding, and one is declaring a technical fault. The aircraft declaring a technical fault calls: 'Engine shutdown, request immediate landing.' You should:

Finish vectoring the current aircraft before dealing with the emergency
Transfer all non-emergency aircraft to another sector before assisting the emergency
Ask the emergency aircraft to hold at a safe altitude while you sequence it
Clear the ILS immediately, instruct holding aircraft to continue holding, and vector the technical fault aircraft for priority landing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clear the ILS immediately, instruct holding aircraft to continue holding, and vector the technical fault aircraft for priority landing

An engine-out emergency requires immediate priority handling. The ILS must be cleared and the emergency aircraft given direct routing to land as soon as possible.

Question 21: An aircraft at 10,000 feet begins a 3° glide slope to touchdown. Using the rule that 3° ≈ 318 ft/nm, how far out (in nm) should the aircraft begin descent?

28.4 nm
30.0 nm
32.0 nm
31.4 nm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 31.4 nm

Distance = 10,000 ÷ 318 ≈ 31.4 nm.

Question 22: A holding pattern entry for an aircraft arriving from the southwest (heading 045, inbound to the hold fix) with right-hand turns is most correctly described as a:

Teardrop entry — the aircraft flies a tear-shaped path to enter from the protected side
Parallel entry — the aircraft first flies outbound parallel to the holding course (Correct answer)
Offset entry — the aircraft flies offset from the holding fix to join later
Direct entry — the aircraft turns immediately to the inbound course

Correct answer: Parallel entry — the aircraft first flies outbound parallel to the holding course

An aircraft arriving from the southwest heading 045 needs a parallel entry for a right-hand hold with inbound 090, as it arrives from the non-holding side requiring the parallel entry procedure.

Question 23: Observe the sequence of numbers: 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, __. What is the logical next number in this series?

31
29
28
30 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30

The pattern is based on adding consecutively increasing integers. The difference between 5 and 8 is +3. The difference between 8 and 12 is +4. The difference between 12 and 17 is +5. The difference between 17 and 23 is +6. Therefore, the next number in the sequence will be 23 + 7, which equals 30.

Question 24: You are presented with a complex traffic scenario that has no immediate, textbook solution. Your initial plan of action does not seem to be working as expected. What is the best behavioral response?

Force the original plan to work by issuing more forceful instructions to the pilots.
Quickly blame the unexpected outcome on faulty equipment or pilot error.
Adapt to the changing circumstances by re-evaluating the situation and formulating a new plan of action. (Correct answer)
Persist with the failing plan, as deviating from it would be admitting a mistake.

Correct answer: Adapt to the changing circumstances by re-evaluating the situation and formulating a new plan of action.

Adaptability is a key skill for an ATCO. Despite the highly procedural nature of the job, controllers must be able to think flexibly and adapt their plans when conditions change or a situation doesn't evolve as expected. Rigidity can be dangerous in a dynamic environment.

Question 25: A runway is 8,500 feet long. An aircraft uses 60% of the runway on landing. How many feet of runway remain after touchdown?

3,400 ft (Correct answer)
3,500 ft
3,200 ft
3,600 ft

Correct answer: 3,400 ft

Remaining = 40% of 8,500 = 0.40 × 8,500 = 3,400 feet.

Question 26: Observe the unfolded cube pattern. When this pattern is folded into a cube, which of the given options is a possible correct representation? (Image of unfolded cube with a circle, square, triangle, star, plus, and arrow + 4 folded cube options would be here). For this text-based question, let's use relationships: Face 1 has a Circle. Face 2 (right of 1) has a Square. Face 3 (right of 2) has a Triangle. Face 4 (below 2) has a Star. Face 5 (below 4) has a Plus. Face 6 (below 5) has an Arrow pointing up. Which three faces CANNOT be seen together on a folded cube?

Square, Star, Plus
Circle, Square, Star
Square, Triangle, Star
Circle, Plus, Arrow (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Circle, Plus, Arrow

In the given layout, the Circle (Face 1), Plus (Face 5), and Arrow (Face 6) are all in a line with other faces separating them. Specifically, the Circle and the Triangle are opposite faces. The Star and the Arrow are opposite faces. The Square and the Plus are opposite faces. The correct answer choice includes the Star, Plus, and Square, but the Square and Plus are on opposite sides and cannot be seen at the same time. The question asks which faces CANNOT be seen together. Circle, Plus, and Arrow are in a straight line separated by other faces; they cannot form a corner of the cube.

Question 27: On a plan view (top-down) radar display, an aircraft appears to be moving from lower-right to upper-left. On a north-up display, this corresponds to a heading of approximately:

225 degrees (southwest) — the aircraft is going toward the lower left
045 degrees (northeast) — upper-left to lower-right reversed
315 degrees (northwest) — lower-right to upper-left on a north-up display is northwest (Correct answer)
135 degrees (southeast) — right to left at an angle is southeast

Correct answer: 315 degrees (northwest) — lower-right to upper-left on a north-up display is northwest

On a north-up radar, lower-right = southeast, upper-left = northwest. Movement from southeast toward northwest = heading 315 (northwest).

Question 28: A controller receives a TCAS RA notification from a pilot. The controller's correct response is:

Override the TCAS advisory with ATC instructions to maintain separation responsibility
Instruct the pilot to ignore the RA and follow ATC instructions
Acknowledge the RA and do not issue any instruction that conflicts with the TCAS advisory (Correct answer)
Ask the pilot to confirm the RA type before acknowledging

Correct answer: Acknowledge the RA and do not issue any instruction that conflicts with the TCAS advisory

When a TCAS RA is issued, pilots must follow it. Controllers must acknowledge and must not issue conflicting instructions until the RA is resolved.

Question 29: On a standard analog clock face, an aircraft's position is noted at the 4 o'clock position. ATC instructs the pilot to fly directly towards the 10 o'clock position. What is the approximate heading in degrees the pilot should take?

270 degrees
330 degrees
180 degrees
300 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 300 degrees

A clock face is a circle of 360 degrees. Each hour mark represents 30 degrees (360/12). The 4 o'clock position is at 120 degrees (4 x 30). The 10 o'clock position is at 300 degrees (10 x 30). To fly from 4 o'clock towards 10 o'clock, the aircraft must fly towards the 300-degree mark.

Question 30: Complete the analogy: RADAR is to DETECTION as RADIO is to:

Interference
Frequency
Communication (Correct answer)
Antenna

Correct answer: Communication

Radar is the tool used for detection of aircraft; radio is the tool used for communication between controllers and pilots.

Question 31: What is 'wake turbulence' and why is it a concern for ATC?

Turbulence generated by jet engine exhaust on the ground
Rotating vortices generated by an aircraft's wings that can upset following traffic (Correct answer)
Turbulence caused by thunderstorms near the flight path
Wind gusts that affect runway surface conditions

Correct answer: Rotating vortices generated by an aircraft's wings that can upset following traffic

Wake turbulence consists of wingtip vortices shed by an aircraft that can cause loss of control in smaller following aircraft, requiring ATC to apply wake turbulence separation standards.

Question 32: A candidate on the FEAST personality questionnaire responds to nearly all items with the middle neutral option. What concern does this raise?

The questionnaire may have been poorly designed with insufficiently distinct options
Middle responses are the most reliable indicator of personality stability
Social desirability responding — the candidate may be attempting to appear balanced rather than answering honestly (Correct answer)
The candidate has a genuinely moderate personality on all dimensions

Correct answer: Social desirability responding — the candidate may be attempting to appear balanced rather than answering honestly

Consistently selecting neutral responses is a known form of response bias that obscures true personality patterns and may indicate social desirability bias.

Question 33: A radar display shows aircraft positions as dots. North is up. An aircraft dot moves from the centre of the screen toward the upper right corner over 30 seconds. The aircraft's approximate heading is:

135-180 degrees — upper right on radar is southeast when flying south is 'up'
270-315 degrees — the aircraft appears to be moving toward the west
000-045 degrees — upper right means north-northeast
045-090 degrees — the upper right of a north-up display represents the northeast quadrant (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 045-090 degrees — the upper right of a north-up display represents the northeast quadrant

On a north-up radar display, up = north, right = east. Movement toward upper-right = northeast = heading approximately 045-090 degrees.

Question 34: What does the phonetic alphabet word 'WILCO' mean in ATC communications?

Message received and understood
Repeat your last transmission
I will comply with your instructions (Correct answer)
Stand by for further clearance

Correct answer: I will comply with your instructions

'WILCO' means 'will comply' — the pilot acknowledges and intends to follow the instruction given.

Question 35: A conditional rule states: 'If an aircraft reports fuel emergency AND is within 50 NM of the destination AND the weather is above minimums, then the aircraft is given priority approach. If the weather is below minimums, the aircraft is diverted regardless of fuel state.' An aircraft reports fuel emergency 30 NM from destination. Weather is below minimums. The correct action is:

Divert the aircraft — the below-minimums weather condition triggers diversion regardless of fuel emergency or proximity (Correct answer)
Give priority approach — the aircraft is within 50 NM
Hold the aircraft until weather improves and then give priority approach
Give priority approach — the fuel emergency overrides the weather rule

Correct answer: Divert the aircraft — the below-minimums weather condition triggers diversion regardless of fuel emergency or proximity

The rule explicitly states that below-minimum weather triggers diversion 'regardless of fuel state', making the weather condition a hard override of the priority approach rule.

Question 36: A procedure states: 'Separation minima are reduced from 5 NM to 3 NM only if: (a) radar coverage is confirmed, and (b) the sector is not in a high-density period, and (c) a supervisor approves the reduction.' A controller wants to apply 3 NM separation. The radar is confirmed, the supervisor has approved, but it is a high-density period. The controller may:

Apply 3 NM separation — two out of three conditions are met
Apply 3 NM separation — the supervisor's approval overrides the density condition
Apply 3 NM separation only if the supervisor explicitly overrides condition (b)
Not apply 3 NM separation — all three conditions must be met and condition (b) is not satisfied (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Not apply 3 NM separation — all three conditions must be met and condition (b) is not satisfied

All three conditions are required (AND logic). Failing any one condition means the reduction cannot be applied, regardless of how many other conditions are met.

Question 37: On a radar display, a primary radar return (skin paint) appears without an associated secondary radar return (transponder). This most likely indicates:

An aircraft with a non-functional or switched-off transponder (Correct answer)
A bird strike that has disabled the transponder and damaged the aircraft
A helicopter that is too small to return a secondary signal
A radar equipment malfunction affecting secondary returns only

Correct answer: An aircraft with a non-functional or switched-off transponder

A primary return without secondary return typically indicates either a transponder failure, switched-off transponder, or an unequipped aircraft — requiring closer monitoring and potential coordination.

Question 38: You receive: 'Traffic information: Airbus 320, 12 o'clock, 5 miles, westbound, FL220, descending.' Five seconds later you must report the aircraft type, direction, and level. The correct recall is:

Boeing 737, westbound, FL220 descending
Airbus 320, eastbound, FL220 climbing
Airbus 320, westbound, FL220 descending (Correct answer)
Airbus 320, westbound, FL200 level

Correct answer: Airbus 320, westbound, FL220 descending

The type was A320, direction westbound, level FL220 descending — all three elements must be retained accurately for 5 seconds.

Question 39: A controller vectors an aircraft from heading 000 (north) with a right turn to heading 180 (south). During this 180-degree right turn at standard rate (3°/sec), the aircraft will pass through which cardinal headings in sequence?

090 (east), then 180 (south) (Correct answer)
180 directly without passing through 090
090, then 135, then 180
270 (west), then 180 (south)

Correct answer: 090 (east), then 180 (south)

A right turn from 000 goes through 090 (east) then reaches 180 (south). This is a 180-degree right turn passing through east.

Question 40: Which of the following is a critical characteristic of an expert air traffic controller's visual scan of a radar display, essential for maintaining high situational awareness?

A systematic and disciplined pattern of short fixations covering all relevant areas (Correct answer)
A continuous, smooth pursuit movement across the entire screen
Prolonged fixation on aircraft with the highest groundspeed
Primarily focusing on the center of the sector where traffic is usually densest

Correct answer: A systematic and disciplined pattern of short fixations covering all relevant areas

Expert controllers develop a systematic scanning strategy. This involves moving their eyes in a disciplined pattern (e.g., circular or linear) with brief stops (fixations) to gather information from all parts of the display, ensuring no area is neglected and potential issues are spotted early.

Question 41: During a period of unexpectedly high traffic volume, you begin to feel overwhelmed and are concerned about your ability to maintain situational awareness. Which of the following actions demonstrates the highest level of professionalism and safety-consciousness?

Continue to manage the traffic on your own, believing that the feeling will pass and that asking for help would show weakness.
Take a brief, unannounced break to clear your head, assuming your colleagues will cover for you.
Immediately inform your shift supervisor or team leader of the situation, clearly stating that you are approaching your capacity and may require assistance. (Correct answer)
Attempt to divert some of your assigned aircraft to an adjacent sector without prior coordination to reduce your workload.

Correct answer: Immediately inform your shift supervisor or team leader of the situation, clearly stating that you are approaching your capacity and may require assistance.

Self-awareness and clear communication are critical safety skills for an ATCO. Proactively informing a supervisor that you are nearing your limit allows for support to be arranged before safety is compromised. This demonstrates responsibility and a commitment to safety over personal pride. The other options are unsafe, unprofessional, or both.

Question 42: Read the following: 'Minimum safe altitude ensures aircraft maintain vertical clearance from terrain and obstacles.' The phrase 'vertical clearance' most likely means:

The altitude difference between an aircraft and the terrain below it (Correct answer)
The rate at which an aircraft climbs after departure
The horizontal distance between two aircraft at the same altitude
The approved distance between one airport and another

Correct answer: The altitude difference between an aircraft and the terrain below it

Vertical clearance refers to the buffer of altitude that separates an aircraft from terrain or obstacles directly below it.

Question 43: A controller has been monitoring a radar display for 30 minutes. A new aircraft track appears that differs from the established traffic pattern. Despite the difference, the controller takes 15 seconds to notice the new track. This delay is most consistent with:

The new track being too small to be visually detected on the display
The controller's attention being drawn to a more critical established track
Change blindness — the failure to notice changes in a complex visual scene when attention is not focused on the changing element (Correct answer)
Slow processing speed due to fatigue after 30 minutes of monitoring

Correct answer: Change blindness — the failure to notice changes in a complex visual scene when attention is not focused on the changing element

Change blindness is a well-documented phenomenon where changes in a complex scene go undetected unless attention is specifically directed to the changing element.

Question 44: In radar conflict management, the 'point of no return' (PNR) refers to:

The speed-distance point where no heading change can avoid the conflict
The point where two aircraft are so close that separation is no longer possible
The moment TCAS issues resolution advisories to both aircraft
The latest time at which a conflict resolution instruction can be issued and still restore safe separation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The latest time at which a conflict resolution instruction can be issued and still restore safe separation

The PNR is the last moment at which controller action can restore separation; after this point the situation can only be managed, not resolved by normal means.

Question 45: What is the purpose of a 'holding pattern' assigned by ATC?

To allow aircraft to perform weather avoidance maneuvers
To reduce aircraft fuel consumption during descent
To separate aircraft transitioning between altitudes
To keep aircraft in a designated area while awaiting further clearance or sequencing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To keep aircraft in a designated area while awaiting further clearance or sequencing

A holding pattern keeps aircraft in a defined racetrack circuit while ATC sequences them for approach or resolves a traffic or weather conflict.

Question 46: A pilot reads back a clearance incorrectly. What must ATC do?

Accept the readback if the error is minor
Note the error in the flight strip only
Immediately correct the error to ensure compliance (Correct answer)
Issue a new clearance immediately

Correct answer: Immediately correct the error to ensure compliance

ATC is required to immediately correct any readback error to ensure the pilot has the correct authorization and avoids a safety violation.

Question 47: A controller is working a quiet night sector with very little traffic. After 45 minutes of minimal activity, a conflict begins to develop. Compared to a controller working a busy sector, this controller is at greater risk of:

Slow conflict detection due to under-stimulation and low arousal — quiet periods reduce vigilance (Correct answer)
Fast conflict detection — they have had time to rest and are fresher
No difference — vigilance is unaffected by prior workload level
Better conflict resolution — quiet periods allow more careful planning

Correct answer: Slow conflict detection due to under-stimulation and low arousal — quiet periods reduce vigilance

Low traffic periods reduce arousal and cognitive engagement, increasing the risk of vigilance decrement and slow signal detection when a conflict does emerge.

Question 48: The statement "have numbers" in radio communications does not necessarily mean that the pilot has access to the data provided in the most current ATIS broadcast.

False
True (Correct answer)

Correct answer: True

When a pilot states 'have numbers,' it indicates they have received the Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) broadcast. However, it does not guarantee they have fully processed or written down all the critical details. Controllers often follow up with specific instructions or questions to ensure the pilot has the necessary information for their operation.

Question 49: A controller is simultaneously monitoring a radar display and filling in a paper coordination form. The most dangerous multitasking error in this situation would be:

Filling the form with information from the previous sector handoff
Writing the form too slowly and missing the coordination deadline
Allowing radar monitoring to lapse during the time spent writing the form (Correct answer)
Forgetting to sign the bottom of the coordination form

Correct answer: Allowing radar monitoring to lapse during the time spent writing the form

Allowing radar monitoring to lapse is the most dangerous because aircraft conflicts can develop rapidly and require continuous observation.

Question 50: The FEAST personality module assesses 'stress tolerance'. Which candidate behaviour best demonstrates high stress tolerance in an operational ATC context?

Taking frequent breaks during high-traffic periods to prevent performance degradation
Avoiding difficult tasks during busy periods to prevent errors
Maintaining accurate performance and calm communication during high-traffic periods with simultaneous competing demands (Correct answer)
Reporting to a supervisor immediately whenever workload increases above normal

Correct answer: Maintaining accurate performance and calm communication during high-traffic periods with simultaneous competing demands

High stress tolerance is demonstrated by maintaining performance quality and composure under high-demand conditions, not by avoidance or delegation.

Question 51: An aircraft, callsign GHI456, is initially cleared to squawk 5321. A few moments later, the controller issues a correction: 'GHI456, disregard previous, squawk 4227.' What is the final, correct squawk code for GHI456?

4227 (Correct answer)
5327
5321
4560

Correct answer: 4227

This question tests working memory and the ability to update information. The key is to recall the most recent, corrected instruction, not the initial one. The phrase 'disregard previous' indicates the first code is no longer valid.

Question 52: A controller has the following decision rule: 'Transfer an aircraft to the next sector when: (1) it reaches the sector boundary, OR (2) it requests transfer, OR (3) the receiving sector requests early transfer.' Aircraft Omega is 5 NM from the boundary, has not requested transfer, but the receiving sector has called requesting early transfer. Should the aircraft be transferred?

No — at least two conditions must be met for an OR rule to apply
Yes — but only if the pilot also agrees to the early transfer
Yes — condition (3) is satisfied and the OR rule means any single condition is sufficient (Correct answer)
No — the aircraft must reach the boundary before transfer is possible

Correct answer: Yes — condition (3) is satisfied and the OR rule means any single condition is sufficient

The rule uses OR logic — any single condition being true is sufficient to trigger transfer. Condition (3) is met, so the transfer should proceed.

Question 53: On a radar display, an aircraft is at bearing 270 (due west) from a VOR beacon at 20 NM. Another aircraft is at bearing 090 (due east) from the same VOR at 15 NM. Both are at the same altitude. The distance between them is approximately:

25 NM — only the longer radial matters
20 NM — average of the two distances
5 NM — the difference of the two distances
35 NM — they are on opposite sides of the VOR on the same east-west line (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 35 NM — they are on opposite sides of the VOR on the same east-west line

Aircraft A is 20 NM west of the VOR and Aircraft B is 15 NM east of the VOR. On the same straight line, total separation = 20 + 15 = 35 NM.

Question 54: A read-back sequence includes: 'Runway 27, cleared to land, wind 250 degrees 12 knots.' You are asked 30 seconds later to recall the wind direction. The wind direction was:

250 degrees (Correct answer)
210 degrees
270 degrees
280 degrees

Correct answer: 250 degrees

The wind direction stated was 250 degrees. Confusion with runway 27 (270 degrees magnetic) is a classic interference error in ATC short-term memory.

Question 55: Four tasks arrive simultaneously: (1) A pilot requests a frequency change, (2) An aircraft is 500 ft below its cleared altitude without clearance, (3) A METAR update arrives on the printer, (4) A pilot requests weather deviation. The correct first action is:

Read the METAR and update all aircraft with the new weather
Contact the aircraft 500 ft below its cleared altitude to query the deviation (Correct answer)
Approve the weather deviation request as weather avoidance is safety-critical
Approve the frequency change as it only takes one transmission

Correct answer: Contact the aircraft 500 ft below its cleared altitude to query the deviation

An unreported altitude deviation is a potential separation infringement and must be resolved immediately by querying the crew.

Question 56: A controller sees two aircraft converging at the same level with 6 minutes to CPA and currently at 8 NM separation (minimum 5 NM). The situation is:

A conflict requiring immediate heading change issuance
An immediate emergency requiring an STCA-level response
Not yet a conflict — separation is above the minimum — but the trend requires monitoring and early action planning (Correct answer)
Resolved — 8 NM is sufficient and no further monitoring is needed

Correct answer: Not yet a conflict — separation is above the minimum — but the trend requires monitoring and early action planning

At 8 NM with 5 NM minimum, separation is currently sufficient. However, the converging trend means it will reduce, requiring early planning and preparation for resolution.

Question 57: A drone is instructed to perform the following sequence of movements from its starting point: fly 5 km North, then 5 km East, then 5 km South. What is the drone's final position relative to its starting point?

5 km East (Correct answer)
5 km West
5 km North
At the starting point

Correct answer: 5 km East

The first movement is 5 km North. The third movement is 5 km South. These two movements cancel each other out in the North-South direction. The only remaining movement is 5 km East. Therefore, the final position is 5 km East of the starting point.

Question 58: Imagine a 3D radar display showing an aircraft at coordinates East 3, North 5, Altitude 8 (in arbitrary units). The aircraft moves: +2 East, -1 North, +2 Altitude. What are its new coordinates?

East 1, North 4, Altitude 10
East 5, North 4, Altitude 10 (Correct answer)
East 5, North 6, Altitude 10
East 5, North 4, Altitude 6

Correct answer: East 5, North 4, Altitude 10

East: 3+2=5. North: 5+(-1)=4. Altitude: 8+2=10. New position: East 5, North 4, Altitude 10.

Question 59: Rule: A squawk code of 7700 indicates general emergency. A squawk code of 7600 indicates communication failure. A squawk code of 7500 indicates hijack. A radar target appears with squawk 7600. The controller's correct interpretation is:

The aircraft has lost radio communication and cannot be contacted on the normal frequency (Correct answer)
The aircraft has declared a general emergency
The aircraft has been hijacked
The aircraft's transponder is malfunctioning

Correct answer: The aircraft has lost radio communication and cannot be contacted on the normal frequency

Squawk 7600 specifically means communication failure (NORDO — no radio). This is distinct from 7700 (emergency) and 7500 (hijack).

Question 60: Imagine you are in a control tower looking North. An aircraft is approaching the runway from the Southwest. From your perspective in the tower, in which direction is the aircraft moving?

Towards the Northwest
Towards the Southeast
Directly towards the South
Towards the Northeast (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Towards the Northeast

If an aircraft is approaching from the Southwest, it means its direction of travel is towards the Northeast. Your position in the tower and the direction you are looking (North) provide context, but the fundamental direction of the aircraft's movement is from the Southwest to the Northeast.

FEAST Pilot Aptitude Test

The FEAST assesses aptitude for air traffic control and pilot training, testing spatial reasoning, multitasking, memory, and English comprehension.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

65%

To Pass

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