FAST Aptitude Selection Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Select the correct meaning of the prefix 'ANTE-' as in 'antechamber' or 'antedate'.
- Against or opposing
- Around or surrounding
- Before or preceding (Correct answer)
- After or following
Correct answer: Before or preceding
The prefix ante- means before or preceding in time or position, as in antechamber (a room before another) or antedate (to date before).
Question 2: Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.
- The report, which was overdue, caused delays. (Correct answer)
- The report which was overdue, caused delays.
- The report, which was overdue caused delays.
- The report which was overdue caused delays.
Correct answer: The report, which was overdue, caused delays.
A nonrestrictive relative clause ('which was overdue') must be set off with commas on both sides.
Question 3: Two statements: 'All managers are employees' and 'Some employees are part-time.' Which conclusion is valid?
- All employees are managers
- No managers are part-time
- Some managers may be part-time (Correct answer)
- Some managers are part-time
Correct answer: Some managers may be part-time
'Some managers may be part-time' is the only valid conclusion since the overlap between part-time employees and managers is possible but not confirmed.
Question 4: How can numerical reasoning be applied in business decisions?
- Developing artistic skills
- Creating fictional narratives
- Practicing meditation techniques
- Analyzing financial reports (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Analyzing financial reports
Analyzing financial reports helps businesses understand revenue trends, expenses, and profitability to make informed decisions.
Question 5: What does 'PRAGMATIC' mean?
- Rigid and inflexible in thinking
- Dealing with things sensibly and practically (Correct answer)
- Concerned mainly with theory
- Idealistic and visionary
Correct answer: Dealing with things sensibly and practically
Pragmatic means dealing with problems in a sensible, practical way rather than relying on theory or idealism.
Question 6: Which of the following transformations changes the size of a geometric figure?
- Dilation (Correct answer)
- Rotation
- Reflection
- Translation
Correct answer: Dilation
Dilation scales a figure, changing its size, while rotation, reflection, and translation preserve size.
Question 7: If all Zips are Zaps and some Zaps are Zops, which conclusion is definitely true?
- All Zips are Zops
- Some Zips are Zops (Correct answer)
- All Zops are Zips
- No Zips are Zops
Correct answer: Some Zips are Zops
Since all Zips are Zaps and some Zaps are Zops, it follows that some Zips may also be Zops.
Question 8: An employee earns $18.50 per hour and works 37.5 hours per week. What is the weekly gross pay?
- $648.00
- $712.50
- $693.75 (Correct answer)
- $740.00
Correct answer: $693.75
Weekly pay = $18.50 × 37.5 = $693.75.
Question 9: Which pair of words has the most similar relationship to 'author : novel'?
- Reader : book
- Composer : symphony (Correct answer)
- Director : audience
- Teacher : school
Correct answer: Composer : symphony
An author creates a novel just as a composer creates a symphony—both are creators of their work.
Question 10: Researcher A surveys people at a mall on a Tuesday morning. What is the main sampling bias concern?
- Measurement bias due to complex questions
- Response bias caused by survey length
- Recall bias from retrospective questions
- Undercoverage of people who are not at the mall on weekday mornings (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Undercoverage of people who are not at the mall on weekday mornings
Mall-intercept sampling on weekday mornings excludes working adults, systematically underrepresenting a large segment of the population.
Question 11: What comes next in the sequence: Monday, Wednesday, Friday, ___?
- Sunday (Correct answer)
- Saturday
- Tuesday
- Thursday
Correct answer: Sunday
The pattern skips every other day of the week, so after Friday the next term is Sunday.
Question 12: If you rotate a square 90 degrees clockwise, what shape do you see?
- Square (Correct answer)
- Circle
- Triangle
- Rectangle
Correct answer: Square
A square looks identical after a 90-degree rotation because all sides are equal and all angles are right angles.
Question 13: Which statement is the logical contrapositive of 'If an aircraft is airworthy, then its maintenance log is current'?
- If the aircraft is not airworthy, the maintenance log is not current
- If the aircraft is airworthy, the maintenance log may be current
- If the maintenance log is current, the aircraft is airworthy
- If the maintenance log is not current, the aircraft is not airworthy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: If the maintenance log is not current, the aircraft is not airworthy
The contrapositive of 'If P then Q' is 'If not Q then not P,' so the correct form is 'If the log is not current, the aircraft is not airworthy.'
Question 14: An object is viewed from above (top view) as a circle and from the front as a rectangle. Which solid is most likely being described?
- Cube
- Cone
- Sphere
- Cylinder (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cylinder
A cylinder appears as a circle from the top and as a rectangle from the front.
Question 15: A square has a diagonal of 10 cm. What is its area?
- 50 cm² (Correct answer)
- 40 cm²
- 100 cm²
- 25 cm²
Correct answer: 50 cm²
Area = diagonal² ÷ 2 = 100 ÷ 2 = 50 cm².
Question 16: Why is listening comprehension important in verbal proficiency?
- It prevents effective communication
- It enhances interpretation and engagement (Correct answer)
- It reduces understanding in conversations
- It eliminates the need for responses
Correct answer: It enhances interpretation and engagement
Listening comprehension allows individuals to accurately interpret spoken information, engage in meaningful conversations, and respond appropriately.
Question 17: If a rectangle has a perimeter of 36 cm and a length of 10 cm, what is its area?
- 80 cm² (Correct answer)
- 100 cm²
- 110 cm²
- 90 cm²
Correct answer: 80 cm²
Width = (36 − 20) ÷ 2 = 8 cm; Area = 10 × 8 = 80 cm².
Question 18: All pilots complete flight simulator training. Some simulator trainees fail the vision test. Which conclusion is definitely true?
- No pilot fails the vision test
- All vision test failures become pilots
- All pilots fail the vision test
- Some pilots may have failed the vision test (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Some pilots may have failed the vision test
Since some simulator trainees fail the vision test, and all pilots are simulator trainees, it is possible (but not certain) that some pilots are among those who fail.
Question 19: A pattern alternates between a circle and a triangle starting with a circle. What is the 7th shape in the sequence?
- Circle (Correct answer)
- Square
- Hexagon
- Triangle
Correct answer: Circle
Odd-numbered positions (1, 3, 5, 7) are circles and even-numbered positions are triangles, so the 7th shape is a circle.
Question 20: A table shows revenue: Year 1 = $320K, Year 2 = $384K. What is the percentage growth?
- 18%
- 25%
- 20% (Correct answer)
- 22%
Correct answer: 20%
Growth = (384 − 320) ÷ 320 × 100 = 64/320 × 100 = 20%.
Question 21: A pattern follows the rule: 3, 6, 12, 24, ___. What is the next number?
- 54
- 36
- 48 (Correct answer)
- 42
Correct answer: 48
Each number is doubled, so 24 × 2 = 48.
Question 22: In a sequence of shapes, each figure gains one side. The sequence starts with a triangle. What is the 5th shape?
- Hexagon (Correct answer)
- Heptagon
- Octagon
- Pentagon
Correct answer: Hexagon
Triangle(3), square(4), pentagon(5), hexagon(6)—the 4th shape is a hexagon, making the 5th a heptagon.
Question 23: A team of 4 workers completes a task in 6 days. How many days would it take 8 workers to complete the same task?
- 12 days
- 3 days (Correct answer)
- 2 days
- 4 days
Correct answer: 3 days
Doubling the workers halves the time, so 6 ÷ 2 = 3 days.
Question 24: A data set shows: 14, 22, 18, 30, 26. What is the median?
- 18
- 20
- 22 (Correct answer)
- 24
Correct answer: 22
Ordered: 14, 18, 22, 26, 30; the middle value is 22.
Question 25: In a multi-tasking aptitude test, which factor most strongly predicts a candidate's ability to maintain performance across simultaneous tasks?
- Prior aviation experience
- Overall IQ score
- Verbal reasoning score
- Processing speed and working memory capacity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Processing speed and working memory capacity
Processing speed and working memory are the primary predictors of dual-task performance. Working memory holds active information while processing speed determines how quickly attention can be reallocated between tasks.
Question 26: Which of the following is a key skill in numerical reasoning?
- Evaluating artistic compositions
- Identifying abstract patterns
- Memorizing historical dates
- Understanding ratios and proportions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Understanding ratios and proportions
Understanding ratios allows individuals to compare values and make proportional decisions based on numerical data.
Question 27: Which transformation moves every point of a shape the same distance in the same direction without any rotation or reflection?
- Reflection
- Translation (Correct answer)
- Dilation
- Rotation
Correct answer: Translation
A translation slides a shape in a specific direction without changing its size, shape, or orientation.
Question 28: What should happen when inspection reveals a non-conformance?
- Rework it without documentation
- Ignore it if it seems minor
- Document it, determine the cause, and implement corrective action (Correct answer)
- Blame the previous shift
Correct answer: Document it, determine the cause, and implement corrective action
Non-conformances require documentation, root cause analysis, and corrective action to prevent recurrence.
Question 29: What letter comes next in the series: A, C, E, G, ___?
- I (Correct answer)
- K
- H
- J
Correct answer: I
The pattern skips every other letter of the alphabet, so after G the next letter is I.
Question 30: A train travels at 60 mph. How far does it travel in 1 hour 30 minutes?
- 75 miles
- 80 miles
- 100 miles
- 90 miles (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 90 miles
1.5 hours × 60 mph = 90 miles.
Question 31: When constructing a stem-and-leaf plot for the values 23, 27, 31, 35, 38, the stems would be:
- 0, 10, 20, 30
- 2, 3 (Correct answer)
- 23, 27, 31
- 3, 7, 1, 5, 8
Correct answer: 2, 3
For two-digit numbers in the 20s and 30s, the tens digits (2 and 3) serve as stems.
Question 32: Two machines produce 120 parts per hour combined. Machine A produces twice as many as Machine B. How many parts per hour does Machine A produce?
- 70
- 60
- 90
- 80 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 80
Let B = x; A = 2x; 3x = 120; x = 40; A = 80 parts/hour.
Question 33: Which of the following best defines 'ecological validity' in an experiment?
- The degree to which results generalize to real-world settings (Correct answer)
- The accuracy of environmental measurements taken during the study
- The extent to which participants represent the natural population
- The use of natural materials rather than synthetic ones
Correct answer: The degree to which results generalize to real-world settings
Ecological validity refers to how well experimental findings apply to real-world contexts beyond the laboratory.
Question 34: A cumulative frequency graph (ogive) shows that the 60th percentile corresponds to a score of 78. What does this mean?
- 60% of scores are above 78
- 60% of scores are at or below 78 (Correct answer)
- 40% of scores are below 60
- 78% of students scored exactly 60
Correct answer: 60% of scores are at or below 78
The 60th percentile means 60% of values fall at or below that score, so 60% of scores are at or below 78.
Question 35: Two identical right triangles are placed hypotenuse-to-hypotenuse. What shape do they form?
- Rectangle (Correct answer)
- Trapezoid
- Rhombus
- Pentagon
Correct answer: Rectangle
Joining two congruent right triangles along their hypotenuses produces a rectangle.
Question 36: A sequence follows this rule: each term equals the sum of the two terms before it minus 1. If the sequence begins 2, 3, 4, 6, 9 … what is the next term?
- 13
- 15
- 14 (Correct answer)
- 16
Correct answer: 14
9 + 6 − 1 = 14, confirming the rule: each term = prior term + term before that − 1.
Question 37: A triangle has interior angles measuring 60° and 70°. What is the measure of the third angle?
- 50° (Correct answer)
- 40°
- 60°
- 70°
Correct answer: 50°
The interior angles of a triangle sum to 180°, so the third angle = 180 − 60 − 70 = 50°.
Question 38: According to Baddeley's model of working memory, which component handles verbal rehearsal (the 'inner voice')?
- Episodic buffer
- Phonological loop (Correct answer)
- Visuospatial sketchpad
- Central executive
Correct answer: Phonological loop
The phonological loop stores and rehearses verbal and auditory information through articulatory rehearsal (inner voice). The visuospatial sketchpad handles visual/spatial information; the central executive coordinates; the episodic buffer integrates across systems.
Question 39: How does vocabulary impact verbal proficiency?
- It prevents effective expression
- It reduces the need for grammar
- It improves comprehension and clarity (Correct answer)
- It decreases communication ability
Correct answer: It improves comprehension and clarity
A strong vocabulary enhances comprehension, articulation, and the ability to convey ideas clearly and effectively.
Question 40: How does verbal reasoning contribute to problem-solving?
- It discourages critical thinking
- It limits comprehension
- It aids in logical decision-making (Correct answer)
- It eliminates the need for analysis
Correct answer: It aids in logical decision-making
Verbal reasoning helps individuals draw logical conclusions, evaluate arguments, and make informed decisions based on language-based evidence.
Question 41: What does the word 'DISCREPANCY' mean?
- A lack of compatibility or a difference between two things (Correct answer)
- An exaggeration of the truth
- A detailed explanation of facts
- An agreement between two accounts
Correct answer: A lack of compatibility or a difference between two things
A discrepancy is an inconsistency or difference between two things that should be the same or compatible.
Question 42: Which of the following number pairs follows the same relationship as 7 : 49?
- 8 : 56
- 4 : 12
- 6 : 36
- 5 : 25 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5 : 25
7 : 49 is a 1 : 7 squared relationship (7² = 49); 5² = 25, so 5 : 25 matches.
Question 43: Three students from the same class scored 90, 85, and 95 on a test. A fourth student is most likely to score:
- Below 50
- Above 100
- Around 85 to 95 (Correct answer)
- Exactly 90
Correct answer: Around 85 to 95
Inductive reasoning suggests the fourth student would likely score in a range similar to the observed results.
Question 44: A tank holds 500 liters. It is currently 35% full. How many more liters are needed to fill it?
- 325 liters (Correct answer)
- 265 liters
- 175 liters
- 350 liters
Correct answer: 325 liters
Current volume = 500 × 0.35 = 175 L; remaining = 500 − 175 = 325 L.
Question 45: A car depreciates by 15% per year. If its current value is $20,000, what will it be worth after 1 year?
- $17,500
- $18,000
- $17,000 (Correct answer)
- $16,500
Correct answer: $17,000
Value after 1 year = $20,000 × 0.85 = $17,000.
Question 46: How do numerical reasoning skills benefit professionals?
- To eliminate the need for calculations
- To limit data usage in decision-making
- To disregard financial considerations
- To evaluate trends and optimize resources (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To evaluate trends and optimize resources
Professionals use numerical reasoning skills to evaluate trends, optimize resources, and improve decision-making in various industries.
Question 47: Which number is the odd one out: 2, 4, 6, 9, 12?
- 4
- 2
- 12
- 9 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 9
All other numbers are even, but 9 is the only odd number in the set.
Question 48: Why is data interpretation crucial in numerical reasoning?
- To extract insights from graphs and tables (Correct answer)
- To avoid using numerical data
- To focus only on personal opinions
- To memorize information without analysis
Correct answer: To extract insights from graphs and tables
Interpreting data helps individuals extract meaningful insights from graphs, charts, and tables to support decision-making.
Question 49: Which sentence demonstrates correct use of a semicolon?
- The rain stopped; the sun came out. (Correct answer)
- She studied hard; and passed the exam.
- I bought apples; oranges, and bananas.
- He was tired; but he kept working.
Correct answer: The rain stopped; the sun came out.
A semicolon correctly joins two independent clauses without a conjunction, as in 'The rain stopped; the sun came out.'
Question 50: A 3×3×3 cube is painted red on all outer faces, then cut into 27 unit cubes. How many unit cubes have paint on exactly two faces?
- 6
- 24
- 8
- 12 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 12
The 12 edge-position unit cubes (not corners) each have exactly two painted faces.
Question 51: Cook's Distance is used in regression to measure:
- The overall influence of an observation on all fitted values (Correct answer)
- The degree of multicollinearity
- The strength of the linear association
- The normality of residuals
Correct answer: The overall influence of an observation on all fitted values
Cook's D combines each observation's leverage and residual to quantify how much it shifts the entire set of fitted values if removed.
Question 52: What comes next in the letter series: A, C, F, J, O, ___?
- T
- W
- V
- U (Correct answer)
Correct answer: U
The gaps between letters increase by 1: +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, so O + 6 = U.
Question 53: A sample statistic is used to estimate a population parameter. As sample size increases, what generally happens to the sampling error?
- It decreases (Correct answer)
- It increases proportionally
- It becomes impossible to calculate
- It remains constant
Correct answer: It decreases
Larger samples reduce sampling error because they provide more information and more closely approximate the population.
Question 54: Four friends — Adams, Brown, Cole, and Davis — each prefer a different branch: Army, Navy, Air Force, Marines. Brown prefers Navy. Adams does not prefer Army or Air Force. Davis prefers Marines. What branch does Cole prefer?
- Air Force (Correct answer)
- Navy
- Army
- Marines
Correct answer: Air Force
Brown = Navy, Davis = Marines, Adams ≠ Army and ≠ Air Force, so Adams = Air Force is ruled out; Adams must be Army, leaving Cole with Air Force.
Question 55: A staircase viewed from the side shows 4 steps going up from left to right. How many unit cubes are needed to build this staircase if each step is 1 unit wide and 1 unit tall?
- 4
- 8
- 10 (Correct answer)
- 16
Correct answer: 10
The columns have 1, 2, 3, and 4 cubes respectively, totaling 10 cubes.
Question 56: Which figure is the mirror image of a 'b'?
- g
- p (Correct answer)
- q
- d
Correct answer: p
The mirror image of 'b' flipped horizontally is 'd'.
Question 57: 'Every time I eat peanuts I get a stomachache; therefore peanuts cause my stomachaches.' This is an example of:
- Inductive reasoning (Correct answer)
- A formal proof
- A logical fallacy
- Deductive reasoning
Correct answer: Inductive reasoning
This is inductive reasoning — drawing a general conclusion from repeated specific personal observations.
Question 58: Which word best replaces 'VERBOSE' in a sentence calling for its antonym?
- Talkative
- Repetitive
- Elaborate
- Concise (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Concise
Verbose means using more words than necessary, so concise — expressing much in few words — is its antonym.
Question 59: A square has 4 equal sides each measuring 5 units. What is the perimeter of the square?
- 20 (Correct answer)
- 15
- 10
- 25
Correct answer: 20
The perimeter of a square = 4 × side length = 4 × 5 = 20 units.
Question 60: Select the word that best completes the sentence: 'The scientist's _______ approach to the data led her to question the widely accepted theory.'
- Credulous
- Skeptical (Correct answer)
- Complacent
- Perfunctory
Correct answer: Skeptical
Skeptical means questioning or doubting, which fits someone who challenges accepted theories based on data.
FAST Aptitude Selection Test
The FAST (Future Aptitude Selection Tool) is an aptitude assessment measuring cognitive skills, numerical and verbal reasoning, logical analysis, spatial reasoning, and analytical problem-solving for candidate selection purposes.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds