FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When calculating whether a sUAS exceeds 55 lbs, which of the following items must be included?

Airframe, motors, batteries, payload, and any attached accessories (Correct answer)
Airframe and batteries only, as payload is considered separate
Airframe and payload only
Airframe only, as per FAA Advisory Circular

Correct answer: Airframe, motors, batteries, payload, and any attached accessories

The FAA considers all items attached to or carried by the aircraft at takeoff as part of the total weight for the 55 lb limit.

Question 2: When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

During the first 5 minutes after the hour. (Correct answer)
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
Anytime.

Correct answer: During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

To prevent false alarms and interference with actual distress signals, Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) have specific testing regulations. ELT tests are permitted only during the first 5 minutes after the hour, and they must not last longer than three audible sweeps. This limited testing window minimizes the chance of search and rescue agencies misinterpreting test signals as real emergencies.

Question 3: (Refer to Figure 19.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?

Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation. (Correct answer)
Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.
Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent precipitation.

Correct answer: Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.

Weather charts like Figure 19 use standard symbols to depict forecast conditions. For the area just ahead of a stationary front, the chart would indicate specific ceiling and visibility ranges along with the type and continuity of precipitation. The correct answer reflects the interpretation of these symbols, indicating Marginal VFR (MVFR) conditions with continuous precipitation, which is common in areas of persistent lifting ahead of a stationary front.

Question 4: What is the maximum allowable altitude for drone flights under Part 107?

100 feet AGL
400 feet AGL (Correct answer)
200 feet AGL
500 feet AGL

Correct answer: 400 feet AGL

Under FAA Part 107, commercial drone pilots are generally restricted to a maximum altitude of 400 feet Above Ground Level (AGL). This limit is established to prevent conflicts with manned aircraft, which typically operate at higher altitudes, and to maintain a safe and organized airspace. Operations above 400 feet AGL require specific authorization or a waiver from the FAA.

Question 5: When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.
In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

Hazardous wind shear is a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance, which can be extremely dangerous for aircraft, especially during takeoff and landing. It is commonly associated with several atmospheric conditions, including low-level temperature inversions, where a layer of warm air sits above colder air, frontal zones where two air masses meet, and clear air turbulence (CAT) often found near jet streams.

Question 6: (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT......................................Std Pressure altitude..................Sea level Takeoff weight......................2,700 lb Headwind component......................Calm

1,000 feet.
1,700 feet.
1,400 feet. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1,400 feet.

To determine the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle using Figure 40, start at sea level pressure altitude. Standard temperature at sea level is 15°C, so move right to the 15°C line. From there, move up to the 2,700 lb takeoff weight line, then right to the reference line. With calm wind (0 knots headwind), move down to the 0 knots headwind line and read the total distance on the rightmost scale, which is 1,400 feet. This calculation is critical for safe takeoff operations.

Question 7: Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 30, 2015.
September 30, 2016. (Correct answer)
September 1, 2016.

Correct answer: September 30, 2016.

Transponder inspections, including the associated altitude reporting equipment, are required every 24 calendar months under 14 CFR Part 91.413. If the last inspection was performed on September 1, 2014, the 24-calendar-month period extends to the end of September 2016. Therefore, the next inspection must be completed no later than September 30, 2016.

Question 8: What is ground effect?

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.
The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.
The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.

Ground effect is the phenomenon where the presence of the Earth's surface alters the airflow patterns around an airplane's wings when flying very close to the ground. This interference reduces induced drag and increases lift, making the aircraft more efficient. It is a significant factor during takeoff and landing, affecting aircraft performance.

Question 9: Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
Air temperature lower than standard
Air temperature warmer than standard (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Air temperature warmer than standard

Altimeters are calibrated to a standard atmosphere. If the actual air temperature is warmer than standard, the air is less dense. In less dense air, the altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than the aircraft's true altitude, as the pressure levels are 'stretched out' higher than the instrument assumes. This is a critical concept for terrain clearance, often summarized as 'hot to cold, look out below'.

Question 10: A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

two quick, white flashes between green flashes. (Correct answer)
green, yellow, and white flashes.
white and green alternating flashes.

Correct answer: two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

A military air station can be identified at night by its unique rotating beacon light sequence. Unlike civilian airports which typically show alternating white and green flashes, a military airport beacon emits two quick, white flashes followed by a single green flash. This distinct pattern helps pilots differentiate military airfields from civilian ones.

Question 11: When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
121.5 and 243.0 MHz. (Correct answer)
118.0 and 118.8 MHz.

Correct answer: 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

When activated, an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) transmits a distress signal on specific frequencies to aid search and rescue efforts. The primary frequencies for ELTs are 121.5 MHz (civilian) and 243.0 MHz (military), although newer ELTs also transmit on 406 MHz for satellite detection. These frequencies are monitored by air traffic control and search and rescue agencies.

Question 12: What is the standard traffic pattern altitude for propeller-driven aircraft at most airports?

1,000 feet AGL (Correct answer)
500 feet AGL
2,000 feet AGL
1,500 feet AGL

Correct answer: 1,000 feet AGL

The standard traffic pattern altitude is 1,000 feet AGL unless otherwise specified in the Chart Supplement.

Question 13: Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?

Upper limit of the green arc.
Upper limit of the white arc.
The red radial line. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The red radial line.

The red radial line on an airspeed indicator marks the VNE, or Never-Exceed Speed. This is the absolute maximum speed at which the aircraft may be operated under any circumstances, as exceeding it can lead to structural damage or failure due to excessive aerodynamic stress.

Question 14: Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a

Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate. (Correct answer)
Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

Correct answer: Private Pilot Certificate.

According to 14 CFR Part 91.407(b), if an aircraft has undergone an alteration that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot before passengers can be carried. This pilot must hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate and operate the aircraft without passengers until its airworthiness is established. This ensures the aircraft is safe to fly with passengers after significant modifications.

Question 15: (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

1,300 feet AGL.
1,700 feet MSL.
1,300 feet MSL. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1,300 feet MSL.

To determine the floor of Class C airspace at the shelf area, one must refer to a sectional chart. For Savannah Class C airspace (Figure 23, area 3), the outer circle (shelf area) has a ceiling/floor notation. The notation '43/13' indicates that the airspace extends from 1,300 feet MSL up to 4,300 feet MSL. Therefore, the floor of the Class C airspace at the shelf area is 1,300 feet MSL.

Question 16: Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff? Front seat occupants.......................425 lb Rear seat occupants........................300 lb Fuel, main tanks............................44 gal

Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.
Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
Drain 9 gallons of fuel. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drain 9 gallons of fuel.

To adjust the aircraft's weight and CG for takeoff, one must first calculate the current total weight and moment with the given loading. Then, compare these values to the aircraft's allowable weight and balance envelope. Draining 9 gallons of fuel (approximately 54 pounds at 6 lbs/gallon) would reduce both the total weight and the total moment by a specific amount. This calculated reduction would bring both the aircraft's total weight and its center of gravity within the permissible limits for takeoff, as determined by the aircraft's weight and balance chart.

Question 17: (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

133.4 MHz.
126.0 MHz. (Correct answer)
122.95 MHz.

Correct answer: 126.0 MHz.

Referring to Figure 25, area 2, locate Addison Airport. The control tower frequency is found within the airport information box, typically labeled 'CT' or 'TWR'. For Addison Airport, the control tower frequency is clearly indicated as 126.0 MHz.

Question 18: With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. (Correct answer)
Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

Correct answer: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

For the purpose of airman certification, the FAA defines specific categories of aircraft. These categories include Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, and Lighter-than-air. These broad classifications group aircraft with similar operating characteristics and require distinct training and certification standards for pilots.

Question 19: If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

Approach control services.
Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
Airport Advisory Service. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airport Advisory Service.

When an airport control tower closes, if a Flight Service Station (FSS) is located on the same field, it will typically provide Airport Advisory Service. This service includes local airport traffic information, wind, altimeter setting, and other pertinent data to assist pilots operating at the non-towered airport. The FSS acts as a communication hub for pilots in the absence of tower control.

Question 20: Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

60 days.
30 days.
90 days. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 90 days.

To act as pilot in command carrying passengers, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category and class (and type, if a type rating is required) within the preceding 90 days. This requirement, found in 14 CFR Part 61.57(a), ensures recent proficiency in basic flight maneuvers before carrying others. If these operations were performed at night, they must have been to a full stop.

Question 21: What is the safest weather condition for drone operations?

Thunderstorms.
Heavy rain and wind.
Snow and low visibility.
Clear skies with calm winds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clear skies with calm winds

Clear skies with calm winds represent the safest weather conditions for drone operations. Clear visibility ensures the pilot maintains visual line of sight, while calm winds minimize the energy required for the drone to maintain stability, reducing the risk of environmental interference and ensuring a stable, predictable flight.

Question 22: A drone broadcasting live video at a public concert is hacked and the feed is intercepted. The remote pilot's best practice to mitigate this risk would have been:

Using a drone without FPV capability
Flying at higher altitude to reduce signal range
Using an encrypted video transmission link (Correct answer)
Disabling the return-to-home function

Correct answer: Using an encrypted video transmission link

Encrypted video links prevent unauthorized interception, protecting both the commercial client's content and the privacy of individuals inadvertently captured.

Question 23: (Refer to Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?

1,000-foot increase. (Correct answer)
1,300-foot increase.
1,100-foot decrease.

Correct answer: 1,000-foot increase.

To find the change in density altitude, refer to a density altitude chart (Figure 8). Locate the pressure altitude of 3,000 feet MSL and find the corresponding density altitude for both 35°F and 50°F. The difference between these two density altitude values, as read from the chart, indicates a 1,000-foot increase in density altitude due to the temperature rise.

Question 24: When cleared to 'cross ABC intersection at or above 5,000', what is the lowest altitude the pilot may cross ABC?

4,000 feet
5,000 feet (Correct answer)
Exactly 5,000 only
Any altitude below 5,000

Correct answer: 5,000 feet

An 'at or above 5,000' crossing restriction means the pilot must cross the fix at no lower than 5,000 feet.

Question 25: Please see Figure 44. In relation to the impediment 7 SM west of McKinney Airport, choose the appropriate answer (area 5).

The elevation of the top of the obstruction is 729 feet AGL.
The obstruction has high-intensity lights. (Correct answer)
The obstruction is unlighted.

Correct answer: The obstruction has high-intensity lights.

Referring to Figure 44, area 5, locate the obstruction 7 SM west of McKinney Airport. The symbol for this obstruction includes a lightning bolt, which is the standard sectional chart symbol for high-intensity lights. This indicates that the obstruction is equipped with powerful lights designed to be visible from a significant distance, especially during day and night.

Question 26: What force makes an airplane turn?

The vertical component of lift.
Centrifugal force.
The horizontal component of lift. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The horizontal component of lift.

When an airplane banks into a turn, the total lift vector is tilted. The vertical component of this tilted lift supports the aircraft's weight, while the horizontal component of lift acts inward towards the center of the turn. This horizontal component provides the necessary centripetal force to change the aircraft's direction.

Question 27: When communicating with ATC, a remote pilot should:

Be concise and use standard aviation phraseology (Correct answer)
Use informal language to be friendly
Only speak when spoken to
Use a cell phone instead of radio

Correct answer: Be concise and use standard aviation phraseology

Standard aviation phraseology ensures clear, efficient communication and reduces the risk of misunderstandings with ATC.

Question 28: Under Part 107, which weather condition would most likely require a waiver before conducting operations?

Clear skies with 15 mph steady winds
Flight visibility below 3 statute miles (Correct answer)
Temperatures above 90°F
Wind gusts up to 20 mph

Correct answer: Flight visibility below 3 statute miles

Part 107 requires minimum 3 statute miles flight visibility; operations below this visibility require a waiver from the FAA.

Question 29: Which of the following is a waiviable provision under Part 107?

The minimum pilot age of 16
The requirement to register the sUAS
The requirement to carry proof of registration
The prohibition on operating at night (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The prohibition on operating at night

Night operations under Part 107.29 are waiviable, and the FAA issued a final rule in 2021 also making them allowable with anti-collision lighting.

Question 30: What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

It has no effect on performance.
It increases performance.
It decreases performance. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It decreases performance.

High humidity means there is a greater concentration of water vapor in the air. Water vapor is lighter than the nitrogen and oxygen molecules that make up dry air. Therefore, humid air is less dense than dry air at the same temperature and pressure. This lower air density reduces engine power, propeller efficiency, and wing lift, consequently decreasing overall aircraft performance.

Question 31: What does a Sectional Chart provide for drone pilots?

Weather predictions
Airline seat charts
Details about terrain and airspace (Correct answer)
Only road maps

Correct answer: Details about terrain and airspace

Sectional Charts are crucial aeronautical maps that provide drone pilots with detailed information about terrain, elevations, obstacles, and, most importantly, airspace classifications and boundaries. They are essential for flight planning, helping pilots understand the operational environment and identify restricted areas.

Question 32: What does LAANC stand for in the context of Part 107 UAS operations?

Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (Correct answer)
Licensed Aviation Airspace and Notification Compliance
Licensed Airspace Access and Notification Clearance
Low Altitude Aircraft Navigation Control

Correct answer: Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability

LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability) is the FAA's automated system allowing near-real-time airspace authorization for UAS operators.

Question 33: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility. (Correct answer)
500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

Correct answer: 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

For VFR operations within Class D airspace, the basic weather minimums require a ceiling of at least 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles of visibility. These minimums ensure that pilots have adequate visual reference for safe flight operations, including takeoff, landing, and maneuvering within the airport traffic pattern. This helps maintain an orderly flow of traffic and reduces the risk of collisions in controlled airspace.

Question 34: If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

August 31, 1 year later.
August 31, 2 years later. (Correct answer)
August 8, next year.

Correct answer: August 31, 2 years later.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.56) require pilots to complete a flight review every 24 calendar months to remain current. A 'calendar month' means the review is valid until the end of the month, two years later. Therefore, if a flight review was completed on August 8th of this year, the next flight review is due by August 31st, two years later.

Question 35: In the context of FAA certification, what is the most important consideration when implementing sectional chart reading & navigation?

Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices (Correct answer)
Minimizing documentation to save time
Delegating all responsibilities to junior staff
Completing implementation as quickly as possible regardless of quality

Correct answer: Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices

When implementing sectional chart reading & navigation, FAA professionals must ensure alignment with industry standards and stakeholder needs. Hasty implementation without proper planning often leads to compliance issues and suboptimal outcomes.

Question 36: A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is

an outlook briefing. (Correct answer)
a prognostic briefing.
a forecast briefing.

Correct answer: an outlook briefing.

An outlook briefing is a type of weather briefing provided by an AFSS when the proposed departure time is 6 or more hours in the future. This briefing provides a general overview of the weather conditions expected for the planned flight, allowing the pilot to make preliminary go/no-go decisions or to anticipate potential weather challenges well in advance. It is less detailed than a standard or abbreviated briefing.

Question 37: What does 'AIRMET Sierra' (AIRMET S) specifically warn pilots about?

IFR conditions and/or mountain obscuration (Correct answer)
Turbulence below 18,000 feet
Non-convective low-level wind shear
Severe icing above FL200

Correct answer: IFR conditions and/or mountain obscuration

AIRMET Sierra warns of IFR conditions (ceiling below 1,000 feet and/or visibility below 3 miles) and mountain obscuration affecting light aircraft.

Question 38: If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

1829
1859
1929 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1929

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.57(b)) require a pilot to have made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 90 days to carry passengers at night. If sunset is 1830, the night currency period begins at 1930. Therefore, passengers cannot be carried after 1929 without meeting these night currency requirements.

Question 39: When reading a METAR, what does 'OVC008' in the sky condition field indicate?

Occasional clouds at 80 feet
Open skies with visibility 8 miles
8 octas of clouds at 8,000 feet
Overcast clouds at 800 feet AGL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Overcast clouds at 800 feet AGL

OVC008 means overcast cloud layer at 800 feet AGL (cloud heights in METARs are reported in hundreds of feet).

Question 40: When solving a wind problem on the wind side of the flight computer, the first information to enter on the wind side is

groundspeed.
true course.
the wind. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: the wind.

When using the wind side of a flight computer (like an E6B), the initial step is to input the wind information. You first set the wind direction under the true index and then mark the wind velocity up from the grommet. This establishes the wind vector, which is essential before calculating other parameters like true heading and groundspeed.

Question 41: A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Class C.
Class D. (Correct answer)
Class B.

Correct answer: Class D.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart is the standard depiction for Class D airspace. This airspace typically surrounds airports with an operational control tower and extends from the surface up to 2,500 feet AGL, with its lateral dimensions tailored to instrument procedures. Pilots must establish two-way radio communication with the control tower before entering Class D airspace.

Question 42: What is the most effective way to measure success in remote pilot decision-making within FAA professional practice?

Count only the number of activities completed
Rely solely on supervisor opinion
Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives (Correct answer)
Compare only with industry averages without considering context

Correct answer: Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives

Effective measurement combines multiple data sources — quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback — all aligned with clearly defined objectives for a comprehensive evaluation.

Question 43: Which of the following statements about flying near a Class E surface area extension is correct?

Class E surface areas never require authorization
Authorization is only needed above 400 feet AGL
No authorization is needed at any time
Authorization is required when a weather minimum triggers Class E to surface (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Authorization is required when a weather minimum triggers Class E to surface

Class E can extend to the surface around some airports, and when it does, sUAS operators must obtain authorization just as they would in other controlled airspace.

Question 44: Pilots should follow these guidelines while changing airports due to an emergency

rely on radio as your major navigational tool.
Ascent to a greater altitude to make it simpler to spot checkpoints.
Use estimates, rule-of-thumb calculations, and other suitable shortcuts to quickly change to the new course. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use estimates, rule-of-thumb calculations, and other suitable shortcuts to quickly change to the new course.

In an emergency situation requiring a change of airports, pilots should prioritize safety and efficiency. This often involves using practical estimates, rule-of-thumb calculations, and other suitable shortcuts to quickly adjust to the new course. While radio communication and maintaining altitude are important, rapidly adapting navigation with practical methods is crucial for managing the emergency effectively.

Question 45: What is the minimum age to obtain a Remote Pilot Certificate?

16 years (Correct answer)
21 years
13 years
18 years

Correct answer: 16 years

To be eligible for a Remote Pilot Certificate under FAA Part 107, an individual must be at least 16 years old. This age requirement ensures that pilots possess a certain level of maturity and cognitive ability to understand and adhere to complex aviation regulations and safety procedures. It aligns with the FAA's standards for responsible operation of unmanned aircraft.

Question 46: The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicated the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

owner or operator (Correct answer)
mechanic who performed thee work
pilot in command

Correct answer: owner or operator

While maintenance personnel perform the work and make the necessary entries, Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.403 and 91.405) place the ultimate responsibility on the aircraft owner or operator. They are accountable for ensuring the aircraft is airworthy and that all maintenance records are properly completed, indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

Question 47: How should FAA professionals handle confidential information related to privacy & public safety considerations?

Share freely with all colleagues for transparency
Store information without any security measures
Follow established protocols for data protection, access control, and disclosure in accordance with applicable regulations (Correct answer)
Delete all records after project completion

Correct answer: Follow established protocols for data protection, access control, and disclosure in accordance with applicable regulations

Confidential information must be handled according to established protocols, regulatory requirements, and professional ethics standards, including proper access control and disclosure procedures.

Question 48: Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. (Correct answer)
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.

Correct answer: The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

When departing from a satellite airport within Class C airspace that does not have an operating control tower, the pilot must establish two-way radio communication with the primary Class C airport's Air Traffic Control (ATC) as soon as practicable after takeoff. This ensures ATC is aware of the aircraft's presence and can provide appropriate services and separation within the controlled airspace. This is a critical safety procedure for integrating into controlled traffic.

Question 49: (Refer to Figure 35.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F above standard?

165 KTS. (Correct answer)
190 KTS.
159 KTS.

Correct answer: 165 KTS.

To determine the true airspeed using Figure 35, first calculate the actual temperature. Standard temperature at 10,500 feet is -6°C (21.2°F). Adding 36°F above standard gives an actual temperature of 57.2°F. On the chart, locate 10,500 feet pressure altitude, move right to the 57.2°F temperature line (interpolating between 50°F and 60°F), then move down to read the true airspeed, which is approximately 165 KTS. This chart helps pilots determine cruise performance based on altitude and temperature.

Question 50: How does high humidity affect drone battery performance?

Can reduce battery efficiency and increase risk of moisture damage (Correct answer)
Always doubles flight time
Has no measurable effect
Significantly increases battery capacity

Correct answer: Can reduce battery efficiency and increase risk of moisture damage

High humidity can reduce battery efficiency and may cause moisture damage to electronics, shortening flight time and risking equipment failure.

Question 51: What is the purpose of controlled airspace?

To allow unregulated flight
To manage and separate air traffic safely (Correct answer)
To block all drone operations
To reserve space for military drills

Correct answer: To manage and separate air traffic safely

The primary purpose of controlled airspace is to manage and separate air traffic safely, preventing collisions and ensuring an orderly flow of aircraft. Air traffic control services are provided within these areas to maintain communication and separation standards for all aircraft, including drones with proper authorization.

Question 52: A remote pilot discovers an Active Restricted Area along their planned route. What is the correct action?

Climb above the restricted area altitude and proceed
Contact the nearest FSS and request a TFR exemption
Proceed through the restricted area at reduced speed
Obtain permission from the controlling agency or reroute around the area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Obtain permission from the controlling agency or reroute around the area

Entry into an Active Restricted Area requires permission from the controlling or using agency, or the pilot must reroute around it.

Question 53: Which system provides near real-time ATC authorization for sUAS flights in controlled airspace?

LAANC (Correct answer)
ATIS
NOTAM
TFR

Correct answer: LAANC

LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability) uses automated grid maps to grant near real-time altitude approvals.

Question 54: Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. (Correct answer)
An in-flight radio communications failure.

Correct answer: An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) regulations (Part 830) specify certain incidents and accidents that require immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office. An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident is considered a serious incident requiring immediate reporting, as it indicates a potential loss of life or significant aircraft damage. Other listed options are generally not immediate notification events unless they lead to an accident.

Question 55: If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

Wind-shear turbulence. (Correct answer)
Steady rain.
Precipitation static.

Correct answer: Wind-shear turbulence.

Thunderstorms are associated with severe weather phenomena, and one of the most dangerous for aircraft on landing approach is wind-shear turbulence. Strong updrafts and downdrafts, particularly microbursts, can create abrupt and significant changes in wind speed and direction over short distances. Encountering such wind shear during a critical phase of flight like landing can drastically alter an aircraft's airspeed and lift, posing a serious hazard.

Question 56: Under FAA Remote ID rules, which public safety benefit does broadcast Remote ID provide?

It automatically prevents flight into restricted airspace
It encrypts the video feed to prevent interception
It alerts the pilot when battery is critically low
It allows the public and law enforcement to identify the operator of a nearby drone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It allows the public and law enforcement to identify the operator of a nearby drone

Remote ID broadcasts the drone's position, altitude, velocity, and operator location so law enforcement and the public can identify and locate the operator of any drone in flight.

Question 57: Which condition most affects barometric pressure sensors in drones?

Radio signals.
Dust.
Sudden weather changes (Correct answer)
Humidity.

Correct answer: Sudden weather changes

Barometric pressure sensors in drones are vital for maintaining altitude and stability, and sudden weather changes significantly affect their accuracy. Rapid shifts in atmospheric pressure due to developing weather systems, like fronts or thunderstorms, can cause these sensors to provide incorrect altitude readings, impacting drone control.

Question 58: A law enforcement agency wants to use a drone to monitor a lawful protest. Under Fourth Amendment considerations, which statement is most accurate?

Courts have consistently held that aerial surveillance of protests always requires a warrant
Open-air protests have no Fourth Amendment protection, so no warrant is needed
The FAA must approve law enforcement drone use before any flight
The constitutional analysis depends on the duration, resolution, and aggregation of data collected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The constitutional analysis depends on the duration, resolution, and aggregation of data collected

Courts apply a mosaic theory — prolonged high-resolution surveillance that aggregates data about individuals may cross constitutional thresholds even if the activity is in public.

Question 59: Which equation is correct?

TC + or - WCA = TH. (Correct answer)
MH + or - VAR = CH.
TH + or - DEV = MH.

Correct answer: TC + or - WCA = TH.

This equation represents the relationship between True Course (TC), Wind Correction Angle (WCA), and True Heading (TH). True Course is the desired path over the ground, while the Wind Correction Angle is applied to counteract the effect of wind. Adding or subtracting the WCA from the TC yields the True Heading, which is the direction the aircraft's nose must be pointed to maintain the desired course over the ground.

Question 60: An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

1349.6 hours.
1359.6 hours. (Correct answer)
1369.6 hours.

Correct answer: 1359.6 hours.

A 100-hour inspection is required for aircraft used for hire, and it is due every 100 hours of operation. To determine the next due date, simply add 100 hours to the current tachometer reading at which the last inspection was performed. Therefore, if the last inspection was at 1259.6 hours, the next is due at 1359.6 hours.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam

The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) exam certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially, ensuring safe and legal flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. We have not yet matched this exam's facts to an official source, so confirm fees, dates and rules with the exam body. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy