FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: (Refer to Figure 35.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F below standard?

183 MPH. (Correct answer)
181 MPH.
178 MPH.

Correct answer: 183 MPH.

To determine true airspeed, consult the aircraft's performance chart (Figure 35) for the specified power setting and pressure altitude. First, locate the 65% maximum continuous power section and the 9,500-foot pressure altitude line. Then, apply the temperature correction for 36°F below standard, which typically involves moving along the chart's temperature correction lines or interpolating. Following these steps on the chart reveals an approximate true airspeed of 183 MPH.

Question 2: To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

the same category and class of aircraft to be used. (Correct answer)
any aircraft.
the same type of aircraft to be used.

Correct answer: the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

To act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.57) require a pilot to have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days. Crucially, these operations must be performed in the same category and class of aircraft that will be used for the passenger flight, ensuring proficiency in the specific type of aircraft.

Question 3: (Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern. (Correct answer)
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.

Correct answer: Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.

Currituck County Airport (ONX) in Figure 20, Area 3, is a non-towered airport, indicated by the lack of a control tower symbol. At such airports, pilots use the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce their intentions and provide position reports to other aircraft in the vicinity. The recommended procedure is to transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when about 10 miles out and continue making position reports throughout the traffic pattern to ensure situational awareness among all pilots.

Question 4: (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME.
Mode C transponder and two-way radio. (Correct answer)
Mode C transponder and omnireceiver.

Correct answer: Mode C transponder and two-way radio.

To operate within Class C airspace, such as that surrounding Norfolk International (KORF) as depicted in Figure 20, area 1, an aircraft must be equipped with an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC and an operating Mode C transponder. The Mode C transponder provides automatic altitude reporting, which is crucial for ATC to maintain separation in this controlled airspace. These requirements ensure proper communication and identification for safety.

Question 5: In weight and balance calculations, arm is

weight times moment.
the distance between items.
the distance from the datum line to the item. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: the distance from the datum line to the item.

In aircraft weight and balance calculations, 'arm' is defined as the horizontal distance from a designated reference point, called the datum, to the center of gravity of a particular item. This distance is crucial for calculating the moment (weight x arm) of each component, which is then used to determine the aircraft's overall center of gravity.

Question 6: In the context of FAA certification, what is the most important consideration when implementing emergency procedures & contingency planning?

Minimizing documentation to save time
Delegating all responsibilities to junior staff
Completing implementation as quickly as possible regardless of quality
Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring alignment with established standards, stakeholder needs, and best practices

When implementing emergency procedures & contingency planning, FAA professionals must ensure alignment with industry standards and stakeholder needs. Hasty implementation without proper planning often leads to compliance issues and suboptimal outcomes.

Question 7: (Refer to Figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

122.95 MHz.
126.0 MHz. (Correct answer)
133.4 MHz.

Correct answer: 126.0 MHz.

Referring to Figure 25, area 2, locate Addison Airport. The control tower frequency is found within the airport information box, typically labeled 'CT' or 'TWR'. For Addison Airport, the control tower frequency is clearly indicated as 126.0 MHz.

Question 8: If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. (Correct answer)
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

Correct answer: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

The pitot-static system provides crucial pressure inputs to several flight instruments. The pitot tube supplies ram air pressure to the airspeed indicator, while the static vents provide ambient atmospheric pressure to the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator. Therefore, a blockage in both the pitot tube and static vents would render all three of these instruments inoperative or provide erroneous readings.

Question 9: When must a remote PIC report an accident to the FAA if a person other than the crew requires medical attention beyond first aid?

Immediately via radio
Only if the FAA requests a report
Within 10 calendar days (Correct answer)
Within 24 hours

Correct answer: Within 10 calendar days

Part 107.9 requires the remote PIC to report accidents involving serious injury or loss of consciousness within 10 calendar days.

Question 10: What are the properties of air that is unstable?

Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.
Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
Turbulence and good surface visibility. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Turbulence and good surface visibility.

Unstable air is characterized by a tendency for air parcels to rise, leading to vertical air currents and convective activity. This vertical movement often results in turbulence and the formation of towering clouds like cumulus. While unstable air can produce precipitation, the strong vertical mixing typically leads to good surface visibility as pollutants and moisture are dispersed upwards.

Question 11: Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL. (Correct answer)
3,000 feet AGL.
1,000 feet AGL.

Correct answer: 2,000 feet AGL.

Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 2,000 feet AGL over national wildlife refuges, parks, and wilderness areas. This advisory altitude, found in FAA Advisory Circulars (AC 91-36D) and noted on aeronautical charts, helps minimize disturbance to wildlife and preserve the natural environment. Flying lower than 2,000 feet AGL increases the risk of startling animals or causing environmental impact.

Question 12: Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

A decrease in relative humidity.
An increase in ambient temperature. (Correct answer)
An increase in barometric pressure.

Correct answer: An increase in ambient temperature.

Density altitude increases when the air becomes less dense. An increase in ambient temperature causes the air molecules to spread out, making the air less dense. This reduction in air density leads to a higher density altitude, which negatively impacts aircraft performance by reducing engine power, propeller efficiency, and wing lift.

Question 13: What does a SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information) advise drone pilots about?

Hazardous weather conditions significant to all aircraft (Correct answer)
Routine weather updates for flight planning
Temporary flight restriction locations
Local wind speed forecasts

Correct answer: Hazardous weather conditions significant to all aircraft

A SIGMET advises of hazardous weather conditions considered significant to all aircraft, including severe turbulence, icing, and volcanic ash.

Question 14: The primary purpose of ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is to:

Continuously broadcast current airport weather, runway conditions, and NOTAMs (Correct answer)
Provide radar vectors to arriving and departing aircraft
Issue IFR clearances to departing flights
Monitor emergency frequencies around the clock

Correct answer: Continuously broadcast current airport weather, runway conditions, and NOTAMs

ATIS continuously broadcasts non-control information such as weather, active runways, and NOTAMs to relieve controllers of repetitive transmissions.

Question 15: What weather condition can disrupt GPS signals?

Severe storms or cloud cover (Correct answer)
Fog.
Clear skies.
Dry heat.

Correct answer: Severe storms or cloud cover

GPS signals rely on a clear line of sight to satellites, and severe weather conditions like heavy rain, dense clouds, or thunderstorms can significantly disrupt them. These conditions can attenuate or block signals, leading to reduced GPS accuracy, signal loss, or even complete navigation failure, compromising drone safety.

Question 16: A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

white and green alternating flashes.
green, yellow, and white flashes.
two quick, white flashes between green flashes. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

A military air station can be identified at night by its unique rotating beacon light sequence. Unlike civilian airports which typically show alternating white and green flashes, a military airport beacon emits two quick, white flashes followed by a single green flash. This distinct pattern helps pilots differentiate military airfields from civilian ones.

Question 17: What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

Never-exceed speed.
Maneuvering speed. (Correct answer)
Maximum structural cruising speed.

Correct answer: Maneuvering speed.

Maneuvering speed (Va) is a critical airspeed limitation that is not color-coded on the airspeed indicator. It represents the maximum speed at which full or abrupt control inputs can be made without exceeding the aircraft's structural limits. Pilots must consult the aircraft's Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) or Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) for this specific speed.

Question 18: A remote pilot is flying at dusk and anti-collision lights are not functioning. What must the pilot do?

Fly only over unpopulated areas
Notify ATC before continuing
Land immediately and not continue the operation (Correct answer)
Reduce altitude below 200 feet AGL

Correct answer: Land immediately and not continue the operation

Without functioning anti-collision lights, night sUAS operations are not permitted, so the pilot must land the aircraft.

Question 19: Which FAA form is used to request a waiver from a Part 107 regulation?

FAA Form 7711-65 (Correct answer)
FAA Form 7711-2
FAA Form 8060-56
FAA Form 8710-1

Correct answer: FAA Form 7711-65

FAA Form 7711-65 (DroneZone online application) is used to apply for Part 107 waivers.

Question 20: With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. (Correct answer)
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Correct answer: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

For the purpose of airman certification, the FAA defines specific categories of aircraft. These categories include Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, and Lighter-than-air. These broad classifications group aircraft with similar operating characteristics and require distinct training and certification standards for pilots.

Question 21: Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

Steady green.
Flashing white.
Flashing green. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Flashing green.

Air traffic control towers use specific light gun signals to communicate with aircraft that are not equipped with radios or have radio failure. A flashing green light signal from the tower specifically clears a pilot to taxi. Other signals, such as a steady green (cleared for takeoff/landing) or flashing white (return to starting point), have different meanings.

Question 22: When solving a wind problem on the wind side of the flight computer, the first information to enter on the wind side is

groundspeed.
the wind. (Correct answer)
true course.

Correct answer: the wind.

When using the wind side of a flight computer (like an E6B), the initial step is to input the wind information. You first set the wind direction under the true index and then mark the wind velocity up from the grommet. This establishes the wind vector, which is essential before calculating other parameters like true heading and groundspeed.

Question 23: What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

Three essential conditions must be present for a thunderstorm to form: sufficient moisture to create clouds and precipitation, an unstable lapse rate that allows air to continue rising once lifted, and a lifting force to initiate that upward movement. This combination allows for the rapid vertical development of cumulonimbus clouds, which are characteristic of thunderstorms.

Question 24: A sUAS remote PIC may transfer operational control to another certificated remote PIC during a flight under which condition?

Transfer is never allowed mid-flight under Part 107
At any time with verbal handoff
Only if both pilots maintain VLOS and the handoff is coordinated (Correct answer)
Only when operating under a COA

Correct answer: Only if both pilots maintain VLOS and the handoff is coordinated

While Part 107 does not explicitly define mid-flight transfer procedures, safe practice requires both PICs to coordinate a handoff while maintaining VLOS at all times.

Question 25: Which authority grants waivers to specific Part 107 rules?

National Transportation Safety Board
Federal Aviation Administration (Correct answer)
Department of Homeland Security
Department of Transportation

Correct answer: Federal Aviation Administration

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is the sole authority responsible for regulating all aspects of civil aviation in the United States, including drone operations. Therefore, only the FAA has the power to grant waivers or authorizations to specific rules outlined in Part 107, allowing for operations that might otherwise be prohibited under certain conditions. This process ensures that any deviations from standard regulations are thoroughly reviewed for safety.

Question 26: Who holds final authority and responsibility when a visual observer is used?

The visual observer
The remote pilot in command (Correct answer)
The FAA
The aircraft owner or operator

Correct answer: The remote pilot in command

The remote pilot in command retains full authority and responsibility for the safety of the operation regardless of who assists.

Question 27: When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

7600.
1200. (Correct answer)
7700.

Correct answer: 1200.

Transponder code 1200 is the standard VFR squawk code. Unless specifically assigned a different code by Air Traffic Control, VFR aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL should select 1200. This code indicates their VFR status to radar facilities, allowing ATC to identify and track VFR traffic on their screens.

Question 28: A Part 107 remote pilot receives a LAANC authorization for 200 feet AGL in a UAS Facility Map grid cell. What is the maximum altitude the pilot may fly in that cell?

100 feet AGL to maintain safety margins
200 feet AGL as authorized (Correct answer)
300 feet AGL above structures
400 feet AGL (the Part 107 default)

Correct answer: 200 feet AGL as authorized

The LAANC-authorized ceiling of 200 feet AGL is the maximum allowed altitude for that specific grid cell.

Question 29: What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

Magnetic direction and knots.
Magnetic direction and miles per hour.
True direction and knots. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: True direction and knots.

Winds Aloft Forecasts (FDs) provide wind direction and speed at various altitudes. By aviation convention, the wind direction in these forecasts is always given in true degrees, not magnetic. The wind speed is consistently reported in knots, which is the standard unit for aircraft speed and wind speed in aviation meteorology.

Question 30: How often should firmware updates be checked?

Only after crashes.
Once a year.
Before major operations or monthly (Correct answer)
Never unless prompted.

Correct answer: Before major operations or monthly

Firmware updates should be checked regularly, ideally before major operations or monthly, because they often contain critical bug fixes, performance enhancements, and new safety features. Keeping the drone's software up-to-date ensures optimal functionality, reliability, and compliance with the latest operational standards.

Question 31: (Refer to Figure 22.) What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements in an airplane at night when conducting takeoffs and landings at Shoshone County Airport (Area 3) if the pattern altitude is 1,000 feet AGL?

3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport. (Correct answer)
Remain clear of clouds and operate at a speed that allows adequate opportunity to see other traffic and obstructions in time to avoid a collision.

Correct answer: 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within one-half mile of the airport.

Shoshone County Airport (area 3 on Figure 22) is located in Class G airspace from the surface up to 700 feet AGL. For VFR operations at night in Class G airspace, an exception allows for 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds, provided the aircraft remains within one-half mile of the airport and within the airport traffic pattern. This specific exception is designed for local operations near the airport under reduced visibility conditions.

Question 32: What is required to operate a drone in Class C airspace?

Military escort
No restrictions
Only daylight operations
ATC authorization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ATC authorization

To operate a drone in Class C airspace, which surrounds airports with moderate commercial traffic, remote pilots must obtain specific authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC). This requirement ensures safe integration of drone operations with manned aircraft and maintains the orderly flow of air traffic.

Question 33: (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?

Variable in direction at 4 knots.
No significant wind.
Variable in direction at 6 knots. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Variable in direction at 6 knots.

To determine the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast, locate the TAF for KMEM in Figure 15. Identify the forecast segment that begins at 1600Z and extends to the end of the forecast period. Within this segment, the wind information is typically presented as a direction and speed. Reading this portion of the TAF reveals a forecast of variable wind direction at 6 knots.

Question 34: (Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 14. (Correct answer)
Runway 24.
Runway 10.

Correct answer: Runway 14.

The correct answer is B because, by calculating the crosswind component for each runway using the wind component chart (Figure 36) with a reported wind of South at 20 knots, only Runway 14 (heading 140°) results in a crosswind component below the 13-knot maximum limit. For Runway 14, the angle difference is 40 degrees, yielding approximately 12.8 knots of crosswind, which is acceptable. Runways 10 and 24 would produce crosswind components exceeding the 13-knot limit.

Question 35: A remote pilot is operating in an area with spectators when the drone experiences a sudden loss of orientation. The safest immediate action is:

Continue flight at reduced speed until orientation returns
Land immediately in the safest available area away from people (Correct answer)
Climb to a safe altitude and restart orientation
Activate return-to-home immediately regardless of spectator positions

Correct answer: Land immediately in the safest available area away from people

When control is compromised near people, landing immediately in the least hazardous available area minimizes risk of injury.

Question 36: In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

review traffic control light signal procedures.
check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.103) outline the required preflight actions for pilots in command. For any VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, pilots must specifically determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. This ensures the aircraft can safely operate at the chosen airports under the prevailing conditions.

Question 37: (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

2130Z
2030Z.
2230Z. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2230Z.

First, convert the departure time from Pacific Standard Time (PST) to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) by adding 8 hours (1030 PST + 8 hours = 1830Z). Then, add the 4-hour flight duration to the UTC departure time. This results in a landing time of 2230Z (1830Z + 4 hours).

Question 38: Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

sink below the aircraft generating turbulence. (Correct answer)
rise into the traffic pattern.
rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.

Correct answer: sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

Wingtip vortices are powerful, rotating air masses generated by the pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces of a wing. These vortices rotate outwards and downwards, sinking below the aircraft that created them. They pose a significant wake turbulence hazard to following aircraft, especially those that are lighter.

Question 39: Before flying in a new location, a remote PIC should identify emergency landing zones (ELZs). Which factor is LEAST important when selecting an ELZ?

Distance from populated areas
Absence of overhead obstacles (power lines, trees)
Proximity to the operator's home base (Correct answer)
Accessibility for recovery personnel after landing

Correct answer: Proximity to the operator's home base

Proximity to the operator's home base is operationally convenient but irrelevant to the safety effectiveness of an emergency landing zone.

Question 40: Traffic Pattern Altitude (TPA) refers to:

The maximum altitude at which pattern operations are permitted
The altitude above the airport at which aircraft fly the rectangular traffic pattern (Correct answer)
The altitude at which the aircraft turns from base to final approach
The altitude used during straight-in instrument approaches

Correct answer: The altitude above the airport at which aircraft fly the rectangular traffic pattern

TPA is the altitude above ground level at which the traffic pattern is flown; it is typically 1,000 feet AGL for piston aircraft but varies and is published in the Chart Supplement.

Question 41: (Refer to Figure 260, area D.) The visibility in central New York just west of Circle D is mostly

MVFR – visibility 3 to 5 statute miles.
LIFR – visibility 0 to 1 statute mile. (Correct answer)
IFR – visibility 0 to 1 statute mile.

Correct answer: LIFR – visibility 0 to 1 statute mile.

Weather Depiction Charts use specific shading and symbols to graphically represent VFR, MVFR, IFR, and LIFR conditions. For central New York just west of Circle D, the chart would indicate LIFR (Low Instrument Flight Rules) conditions. LIFR is defined as a ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 statute mile, representing critical conditions for aviation.

Question 42: A remote pilot must carry a 1.5 lb inspection camera. To compensate for reduced endurance, which operational adjustment is most appropriate?

Fly at maximum speed to cover the mission before battery depletion
Add a second battery in series to double voltage
Plan shorter flight legs and schedule additional battery swap intervals (Correct answer)
Increase altitude to reduce air density and improve efficiency

Correct answer: Plan shorter flight legs and schedule additional battery swap intervals

Shorter legs with planned battery swaps are the safest and most practical way to manage reduced endurance when carrying heavier payloads.

Question 43: If a plane is purchased that has been operating with a Dealership Certificate of Registration, how long is the registration good for after purchase?

60 Days.
Must be immediately registered by the new owner. (Correct answer)
30 Days.

Correct answer: Must be immediately registered by the new owner.

When an aircraft is purchased from a dealer who held it under a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, the new owner must immediately register the aircraft in their own name. According to 14 CFR Part 47.31(b), the dealer's certificate is not transferable and does not provide a grace period for the new owner to operate the aircraft. The aircraft cannot be legally operated by the new owner until it is properly registered.

Question 44: (Refer to Figure 21.) The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL. (Correct answer)
2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL.

Referring to Figure 21, the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) represents a specific range of terrain elevation. According to the color legend typically found on sectional charts, the light tan color indicates terrain elevations varying from 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet Mean Sea Level (MSL).

Question 45: The CG is located how far aft of datum?

CG 119.8.
CG 92.44.
CG 94.01. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CG 94.01.

The Center of Gravity (CG) is calculated by summing the moments of all individual weights (empty aircraft, occupants, fuel, baggage) and then dividing this total moment by the total weight of the aircraft. The resulting value, 94.01, represents the CG's horizontal distance in inches aft of the datum line, as determined by a complete weight and balance calculation.

Question 46: A remote pilot is about to fly in cold weather (below 32°F / 0°C). Which battery-related precaution is most important?

Pre-warm the batteries and expect reduced capacity and flight time (Correct answer)
Use only alkaline batteries in cold weather instead of LiPo
Cold weather has no effect on LiPo battery performance
Charge the battery to 100% to compensate for cold weather losses

Correct answer: Pre-warm the batteries and expect reduced capacity and flight time

LiPo batteries suffer significant capacity reduction in cold temperatures, and flying without pre-warming them can cause sudden voltage drop and unexpected power loss mid-flight.

Question 47: If you are using fuel at the rate of 8 gallons per hour, how many gallons will you use in 3 hours and 30 minutes?

21 gallons.
28 gallons. (Correct answer)
33 gallons.

Correct answer: 28 gallons.

To calculate the total fuel used, multiply the fuel consumption rate by the duration of the flight. First, convert 3 hours and 30 minutes into a decimal form of hours (3.5 hours). Then, multiply the fuel burn rate of 8 gallons per hour by 3.5 hours, which results in a total fuel consumption of 28 gallons.

Question 48: What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

Maneuvering speed.
Turbulent or rough-air speed.
Never-exceed speed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Never-exceed speed.

The red line on an airspeed indicator represents the Never-Exceed Speed (VNE). This is the absolute maximum speed at which the aircraft can be operated under any circumstances without risking structural damage. Exceeding VNE can lead to structural failure, especially in turbulent air, and should always be avoided.

Question 49: A sectional chart legend shows a tick-mark symbol with 'UC' labeled. What does this mean for a depicted obstacle?

The obstacle is unlighted and in controlled airspace
The obstacle was recently updated (UC = Updated Chart)
The obstacle is uncharted and unofficial
The obstacle is under construction and the height may not be accurate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The obstacle is under construction and the height may not be accurate

The 'UC' label near an obstacle symbol indicates it is under construction, meaning the depicted height may change and pilots should exercise extra caution.

Question 50: When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle.
subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.
add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot must account for both wind correction and magnetic variation. To find the true heading from the true course, subtract a left wind correction angle (or add a right one). Then, to convert true heading to magnetic heading, add westerly magnetic variation (or subtract easterly variation). Therefore, adding westerly variation and subtracting a left wind correction angle correctly performs this conversion.

Question 51: The normal radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

30 nautical miles.
10 nautical miles.
20 nautical miles. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20 nautical miles.

Class C airspace typically has an inner core and an outer shelf. Beyond these defined boundaries, a procedural Outer Area is established to facilitate the orderly flow of arriving and departing traffic. This Outer Area normally extends out to 20 nautical miles from the primary airport. Pilots are requested to establish two-way radio communication within this area to allow ATC to provide advisories and manage traffic before it enters the more restrictive Class C airspace.

Question 52: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

5 miles.
3 miles. (Correct answer)
1 mile.

Correct answer: 3 miles.

This question refers to VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace (outside controlled airspace) at night. For altitudes above 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the regulation requires 3 statute miles visibility at night. The increased visibility requirement compared to daytime operations in the same airspace is due to the reduced visual cues and increased difficulty in seeing and avoiding other aircraft and obstacles in darkness.

Question 53: (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude.........................3,750 ft Headwind....................................12 kts Temperature....................................Std

836 feet.
816 feet. (Correct answer)
794 feet.

Correct answer: 816 feet.

To determine the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle using Figure 38, start at 3,750 feet pressure altitude (interpolating between 2,500 and 5,000 ft). Standard temperature at this altitude is approximately 7.5°C (45.5°F), so move right to this temperature line. From there, move up to the reference line, then right to the 12 knots headwind line (interpolating between 10 and 15 kts). Finally, move down to the 'Total Distance over 50-ft obstacle' scale, which shows approximately 816 feet. Accurate interpolation is key for precise performance calculations.

Question 54: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?

An outlook briefing.
A supplemental briefing.
An abbreviated briefing. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An abbreviated briefing.

An abbreviated briefing is the appropriate type of weather briefing to request when a pilot needs to supplement or update mass disseminated weather data. This briefing is concise and focuses on specific elements of weather information, such as current conditions, NOTAMs, or TFRs, without repeating all the information already obtained from sources like ATIS, HIWAS, or self-briefing tools. It's ideal for quick updates or confirming specific details before flight.

Question 55: Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. (Correct answer)
Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.
Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.

Correct answer: Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on 121.5 MHz. By monitoring this frequency before shutting down the engine, a pilot can listen for their own ELT signal. This proactive check ensures that the ELT has not been inadvertently activated during flight or landing, preventing false alarms.

Question 56: (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?

230° true at 39 knots. (Correct answer)
230° true at 106 knots.
230° magnetic at 39 knots.

Correct answer: 230° true at 39 knots.

To interpret the Winds Aloft Forecast for STL at 12,000 feet, locate the corresponding entry in Figure 17. The code "2339" indicates the wind conditions. The first two digits, "23", represent a wind direction from 230 degrees true. The last two digits, "39", indicate a wind speed of 39 knots. All directions in Winds Aloft Forecasts are true, and speeds are in knots.

Question 57: Under Part 107 hazardous operations rules, which action is explicitly prohibited?

Flying below 100 feet in uncontrolled airspace
Operating without a visual observer in rural areas
Careless or reckless operation that endangers life or property (Correct answer)
Flying over private property without owner consent

Correct answer: Careless or reckless operation that endangers life or property

Part 107.23 explicitly prohibits careless or reckless operation of a sUAS that endangers the life or property of another person.

Question 58: A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. (Correct answer)
at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

Correct answer: at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

A Special VFR (SVFR) clearance allows a pilot to operate VFR within the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace when weather conditions are below the basic VFR minimums. For an SVFR clearance to be issued, the flight visibility must be at least 1 statute mile, and the aircraft must be able to remain clear of clouds. This provides a limited exception for VFR operations in marginal weather conditions, primarily for landing or departing.

Question 59: When reading a METAR, what does 'OVC008' in the sky condition field indicate?

Occasional clouds at 80 feet
Overcast clouds at 800 feet AGL (Correct answer)
8 octas of clouds at 8,000 feet
Open skies with visibility 8 miles

Correct answer: Overcast clouds at 800 feet AGL

OVC008 means overcast cloud layer at 800 feet AGL (cloud heights in METARs are reported in hundreds of feet).

Question 60: (See point 1 in Figure 53.) Near the Grupe (PVT) airport, the highest point on the land is

9,400 feet MSL. (Correct answer)
2,259 feet MSL.
4,540 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 9,400 feet MSL.

At point 1 in Figure 53, the large blue numbers '94' with a smaller '0' in the upper right corner of the quadrangle represent the Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF). The MEF indicates the highest obstacle or terrain feature within that specific quadrangle, expressed in hundreds of feet Mean Sea Level (MSL). Thus, '94' with a '0' signifies 9,400 feet MSL.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam

The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) exam certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially, ensuring safe and legal flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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