Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

An oral nutritional supplement for malnourished patients
A sterile IV admixture providing complete nutrition to patients who cannot eat orally (Correct answer)
A concentrated glucose solution for hypoglycemia emergencies
A type of enteral feeding delivered through a nasogastric tube

Correct answer: A sterile IV admixture providing complete nutrition to patients who cannot eat orally

TPN is a complex sterile IV admixture containing dextrose, amino acids, lipids, electrolytes, vitamins, and trace elements for patients with non-functional GI tracts.

Question 2: What is the correct order for donning PPE?

Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves (Correct answer)
Any order is acceptable
Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection

Correct answer: Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

The correct donning sequence is gown first, then mask/respirator, eye protection/face shield, and gloves last. This prevents contamination during application.

Question 3: Acetaminophen elixir 160 mg/5 mL is ordered; dose is 480 mg. How many teaspoons is this?

1.5 tsp
4.5 tsp
3 tsp (Correct answer)
6 tsp

Correct answer: 3 tsp

480 ÷ (160/5) = 480/32 = 15 mL; 15 mL ÷ 5 mL/tsp = 3 tsp.

Question 4: What is a 'step therapy' requirement in pharmacy insurance?

A requirement to obtain multiple prescriptions at once
A protocol requiring patients to try a lower-cost drug before covering a higher-cost alternative (Correct answer)
A stepwise dosing schedule for a new medication
A process for incrementally increasing an insurance copay

Correct answer: A protocol requiring patients to try a lower-cost drug before covering a higher-cost alternative

Step therapy requires a patient to try a preferred (usually generic or lower-cost) drug first, and only covers the higher-cost drug if the first option fails.

Question 5: A pharmacy technician finds that a medication is not properly labeled. Which of the following should the technician do?

Inform the pharmacist about the labeling issue before proceeding (Correct answer)
Give the medication to the patient without a label, as the medication is safe
Apply a label to the medication and proceed with dispensing
Discard the medication immediately

Correct answer: Inform the pharmacist about the labeling issue before proceeding

The pharmacy technician should inform the pharmacist about any labeling issues before dispensing the medication. The pharmacist will assess whether the medication can be relabeled or if the medication is unsuitable for dispensing due to the labeling error.

Question 6: A physician orders amoxicillin 40 mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses for a 33-lb child. The suspension is 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL per dose?

6 mL (Correct answer)
8 mL
4 mL
5 mL

Correct answer: 6 mL

33 ÷ 2.2 = 15 kg; 15 × 40 = 600 mg/day ÷ 3 = 200 mg/dose; 200 ÷ (125/5) = 8 mL — wait, 200/25 = 8 mL.

Question 7: What is the primary purpose of a prior authorization (PA) in pharmacy billing?

To verify the patient's identity
To confirm the pharmacy's license
To obtain insurance approval before dispensing a specific medication (Correct answer)
To expedite dispensing

Correct answer: To obtain insurance approval before dispensing a specific medication

A prior authorization requires the prescriber to obtain insurance approval before a non-formulary or specialty drug will be covered.

Question 8: What is a drug contraindication?

A dosage calculation
A drug recommendation
A positive drug interaction
A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 9: What is HIPAA?

A medical diagnosis code
A hospital ranking system
A type of insurance plan
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy

HIPAA establishes national standards for protecting patient health information, ensuring privacy and security of medical records.

Question 10: A prescription reads 'GTT ii OS TID.' What does 'OS' indicate?

Left ear
Left eye (Correct answer)
Both eyes
Right eye

Correct answer: Left eye

'OS' is the Latin abbreviation for 'oculus sinister,' meaning left eye.

Question 11: Polyethylene glycol (PEG) suppository bases are classified as which type?

Emulsion base
Hydrogel base
Fatty or oleaginous base
Water-soluble base (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Water-soluble base

PEG bases are water-soluble and dissolve in rectal fluid rather than melting at body temperature.

Question 12: Why is air injected into a vial before withdrawing medication?

To sterilize the vial contents
To create positive pressure that helps draw the liquid into the syringe (Correct answer)
To dilute the medication before withdrawal
To test the vial for leaks

Correct answer: To create positive pressure that helps draw the liquid into the syringe

Injecting a volume of air equal to the desired withdrawal volume creates positive pressure inside the vial, making it easier to draw out the liquid without pulling in air bubbles.

Question 13: What is the primary purpose of a laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)?

To provide a sterile ISO Class 5 environment by passing air through a HEPA filter (Correct answer)
To store sterile IV bags at proper temperature
To control room temperature during compounding
To sterilize equipment using UV light

Correct answer: To provide a sterile ISO Class 5 environment by passing air through a HEPA filter

The LAFW uses a HEPA filter to remove particles from air and direct it over the work surface in a unidirectional flow, creating a sterile compounding zone.

Question 14: A powder for reconstitution says: 'Add 9.3 mL water to yield 10 mL of 100 mg/mL suspension.' If a dose of 250 mg is needed, how many mL are given?

2 mL
2.5 mL (Correct answer)
3 mL
1.5 mL

Correct answer: 2.5 mL

250 mg ÷ 100 mg/mL = 2.5 mL.

Question 15: What is aseptic technique in sterile compounding?

A set of practices designed to prevent microbial contamination during preparation of sterile products (Correct answer)
Autoclaving all equipment before use
Filtering all IV bags through a 0.2 micron membrane
Using antibiotics to sterilize IV solutions

Correct answer: A set of practices designed to prevent microbial contamination during preparation of sterile products

Aseptic technique includes proper garbing, hand washing, LAFW cleaning, and handling critical sites without contamination to ensure sterile product integrity.

Question 16: When a patient reports they are allergic to penicillin, what should the pharmacy technician do with this information?

Ask the patient to call their doctor instead
Only note it if the patient is currently being dispensed penicillin
Tell the patient penicillin allergies are rarely serious
Document the allergy in the patient profile and alert the pharmacist (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document the allergy in the patient profile and alert the pharmacist

Allergy information must be documented in the patient profile so the pharmacist can screen for cross-reactive drugs like cephalosporins.

Question 17: A prescription reads: 'metformin 500 mg tablets, 1 tab BID × 30 days.' How many tablets should be dispensed?

60 tablets (Correct answer)
90 tablets
45 tablets
30 tablets

Correct answer: 60 tablets

BID = twice daily; 2 tablets/day × 30 days = 60 tablets.

Question 18: What does NDC stand for, and what is it used for in pharmacy billing?

National Drug Code, a unique identifier for each drug product required on insurance claims (Correct answer)
National Dispensing Code, used to track prescribers
Narcotic Drug Certificate, required for Schedule II drugs
New Drug Classification, issued by the FDA upon approval

Correct answer: National Drug Code, a unique identifier for each drug product required on insurance claims

The NDC is an 11-digit number that uniquely identifies the manufacturer, drug, and package size, and it is submitted on every pharmacy insurance claim.

Question 19: What is the purpose of garbing when entering a cleanroom?

To maintain comfortable working temperature inside the cleanroom
To prevent the compounder from shedding microorganisms and contaminating sterile preparations (Correct answer)
To comply with OSHA uniform regulations for healthcare workers
To protect the technician from chemical exposure

Correct answer: To prevent the compounder from shedding microorganisms and contaminating sterile preparations

Humans naturally shed skin cells and microorganisms, so garbing with gown, gloves, mask, hair cover, and shoe covers creates a barrier to protect sterile products.

Question 20: Which ointment base is MOST appropriate when the goal is to absorb water and deliver hydrophilic drugs?

Absorption base (anhydrous lanolin) (Correct answer)
Water-soluble base (PEG)
Hydrocarbon base (petrolatum)
Emulsion base (O/W)

Correct answer: Absorption base (anhydrous lanolin)

Absorption bases like anhydrous lanolin can incorporate water and are suitable for hydrophilic active ingredients.

Question 21: A prescription for a pediatric patient reads 'Ibuprofen 10 mg/kg PO q6h PRN pain.' The child weighs 22 lbs. What is the correct dose?

50 mg
150 mg
200 mg
100 mg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100 mg

22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg; 10 kg × 10 mg/kg = 100 mg per dose.

Question 22: Which of the following best describes the DEA's definition of 'diversion' of controlled substances?

The movement of controlled substances from legitimate medical channels to illicit use (Correct answer)
A pharmacy transferring controlled substance inventory to another DEA registrant
Shipping controlled substances across state lines
Dispensing controlled substances with a valid prescription to a non-patient

Correct answer: The movement of controlled substances from legitimate medical channels to illicit use

Diversion refers to redirecting controlled substances from legitimate, legal medical use into illegal channels for non-medical or abuse purposes.

Question 23: Which of the following is true about over-the-counter (OTC) medications?

They require a prescription to be dispensed
They are exempt from all labeling requirements
They are regulated by the DEA
They can be dispensed without a prescription by a licensed pharmacist (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They can be dispensed without a prescription by a licensed pharmacist

Over-the-counter (OTC) medications are deemed safe and effective for use by the general public without a doctor's prescription, provided they are used as directed. While a pharmacist can offer guidance, a prescription is not a requirement for their sale.

Question 24: Which of the following medications is most likely to cause an allergic reaction in patients?

Metformin
Penicillin (Correct answer)
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen

Correct answer: Penicillin

Penicillin is widely recognized as one of the most common causes of drug allergies, with a significant portion of the population reporting hypersensitivity reactions. While other medications can cause allergies, penicillin's high incidence makes it a critical consideration in patient history.

Question 25: Under the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, a prescriber must generally have conducted at least one in-person medical evaluation before prescribing controlled substances via telemedicine. Which agency enforces this requirement?

State Board of Pharmacy
DEA (Correct answer)
CMS
FDA

Correct answer: DEA

The DEA enforces the Ryan Haight Act, which prohibits delivering, distributing, or dispensing controlled substances via the internet without a valid prescription from an in-person evaluation.

Question 26: What is an IV admixture?

A combination of two incompatible IV drugs in one bag
An IV solution contaminated with particulate matter
A premixed IV solution purchased from a manufacturer
A sterile preparation made by adding one or more medications or nutrients to a base IV solution (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A sterile preparation made by adding one or more medications or nutrients to a base IV solution

An admixture is created when a pharmacy technician aseptically adds drugs (e.g., antibiotics, electrolytes) to a base IV fluid such as normal saline or dextrose.

Question 27: Which preservative is commonly used in multi-dose compounded ophthalmic preparations?

Benzalkonium chloride (BAK) (Correct answer)
Thimerosal
Benzyl alcohol
Methylparaben

Correct answer: Benzalkonium chloride (BAK)

BAK is the most widely used preservative in ophthalmic solutions due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity.

Question 28: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

Proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Taking antibiotics
Cleaning the floor
Wearing gloves at all times

Correct answer: Proper hand hygiene

Hand hygiene (washing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rub) is the single most effective measure for preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 29: What is a pharmacy deductible?

The amount a patient must pay out-of-pocket before insurance begins covering prescriptions (Correct answer)
A fee charged to activate pharmacy benefits
The maximum amount an insurance plan will pay annually
A penalty for using an out-of-network pharmacy

Correct answer: The amount a patient must pay out-of-pocket before insurance begins covering prescriptions

A deductible is the set amount a patient must spend on covered medications before the insurance plan starts paying its share.

Question 30: A patient asks a technician whether it is safe to take ibuprofen with their blood pressure medication. The technician should:

Tell the patient ibuprofen is always safe with any blood pressure drug
Look up the answer online and advise the patient
Call the prescriber on the patient's behalf without involving the pharmacist
Refer the patient to the pharmacist for a drug interaction consultation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Refer the patient to the pharmacist for a drug interaction consultation

Drug interaction questions require pharmacist expertise; technicians must refer these inquiries rather than answer independently.

Question 31: A technician processes an electronic prescription for hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5/325 mg. As a Schedule II drug, which of the following is true regarding early refills?

It may be refilled after 75% of the days supply has elapsed
It cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required each time (Correct answer)
It may be refilled once with prescriber authorization
It may be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months

Correct answer: It cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required each time

Schedule II controlled substances cannot be refilled; a new valid prescription must be issued for each supply.

Question 32: A patient picking up warfarin asks why they need regular blood tests. Which response is most appropriate for a pharmacy technician?

Explain INR monitoring ensures the dose keeps blood thin enough without causing dangerous bleeding (Correct answer)
Inform the patient that only new patients need INR monitoring
Advise the patient that blood tests are optional for warfarin
Tell the patient to ask their insurance company

Correct answer: Explain INR monitoring ensures the dose keeps blood thin enough without causing dangerous bleeding

Pharmacy technicians can reinforce that warfarin requires INR monitoring to balance efficacy and bleeding risk, though detailed counseling is referred to the pharmacist.

Question 33: A prescription is written for Digoxin 0.25 mg daily. The available tablet strength is 0.125 mg. How many tablets should be dispensed to fulfill a 30-day supply?

60 tablets (Correct answer)
15 tablets
30 tablets
120 tablets

Correct answer: 60 tablets

The patient needs 0.25 mg daily, and the available tablet strength is 0.125 mg. This means 2 tablets are required per day (0.25 mg / 0.125 mg = 2 tablets/day). For a 30-day supply, the total number of tablets needed is 2 tablets/day * 30 days = 60 tablets.

Question 34: A veterinary drug is dosed at 0.1 mL/lb for a 30 lb dog. How many mL are needed?

3 mL (Correct answer)
30 mL
0.3 mL
300 mL

Correct answer: 3 mL

0.1 mL/lb × 30 lb = 3 mL.

Question 35: What does claim rejection code '75' typically indicate?

Drug not covered on formulary
Prior authorization required (Correct answer)
Patient not eligible
Refill too soon

Correct answer: Prior authorization required

Rejection code 75 means the insurance requires a prior authorization before it will reimburse for the prescribed medication.

Question 36: What are standard precautions in healthcare?

Only wearing gloves for known infections
Using masks during surgery only
Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious (Correct answer)
Hand washing after patient contact only

Correct answer: Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

Standard precautions assume all blood and body fluids are potentially infectious, requiring consistent use of barriers (gloves, gowns, masks) and hand hygiene for all patient interactions.

Question 37: What does informed consent require?

Explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient (Correct answer)
Family approval only
Getting any signature on a form
Verbal agreement only

Correct answer: Explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient

Informed consent requires that patients understand the proposed procedure, its risks and benefits, alternatives, and have the opportunity to ask questions before agreeing.

Question 38: A technician is preparing a 1:1000 epinephrine solution. How many mg of epinephrine are in 1 mL?

10 mg
0.1 mg
100 mg
1 mg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 mg

A 1:1000 ratio means 1 g per 1000 mL, which equals 1 mg per mL.

Question 39: What is the purpose of the 'Five Rights' in medication administration?

To organize inventory
To determine pricing
To classify medications
To prevent medication errors: right patient, drug, dose, route, time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To prevent medication errors: right patient, drug, dose, route, time

The Five Rights serve as a safety checklist to prevent medication errors during every administration.

Question 40: What is 'third-party billing' in pharmacy?

Billing a government agency for a drug recall
Billing the prescriber for the medication
Billing an insurance company or payer on behalf of the patient (Correct answer)
Billing a wholesaler for drug costs

Correct answer: Billing an insurance company or payer on behalf of the patient

Third-party billing means the pharmacy submits a claim to the patient's insurance plan, which then reimburses the pharmacy rather than the patient paying the full amount.

Question 41: What does 'QID' mean in prescription abbreviations?

Twice a day
Once a day
Four times a day (Correct answer)
Every other day

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID stands for 'quater in die' (Latin), meaning four times a day.

Question 42: What is 'touch contamination' in sterile compounding?

Accidental spilling of an IV solution on the workbench
Direct contact of a critical site (e.g., needle tip or vial stopper) with a non-sterile surface (Correct answer)
Using an expired disinfectant on the LAFW
Touching the HEPA filter during cleaning

Correct answer: Direct contact of a critical site (e.g., needle tip or vial stopper) with a non-sterile surface

Touch contamination occurs when critical sites such as needle tips, syringe hubs, or vial stoppers contact non-sterile surfaces, introducing microorganisms into sterile preparations.

Question 43: A physician orders 'Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL suspension — give 10 mL BID.' What is the total daily dose?

750 mg
500 mg (Correct answer)
250 mg
1000 mg

Correct answer: 500 mg

Each 10 mL dose contains 500 mg (10 mL × 250 mg/5 mL), and BID means twice daily, so 500 mg × 2 = 1000 mg — wait, 10 mL × (250/5) = 500 mg per dose × 2 = 1000 mg; correct answer is 1000 mg.

Question 44: Which of the following is NOT a required element on a DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule I or II substances?

Signature of the purchaser
Name and address of the supplier
Patient name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Number of packages

Correct answer: Patient name and date of birth

DEA Form 222 is an ordering form between registrants and does not require patient information; it records item, quantity, and supplier details.

Question 45: Which DEA form is used to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances?

DEA Form 222
DEA Form 106 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 224
DEA Form 41

Correct answer: DEA Form 106

DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss of Controlled Substances) must be filed when a registrant discovers theft or significant loss.

Question 46: Which of the following best describes a low-risk compounded sterile preparation (CSP) under USP 797?

A CSP made using simple aseptic transfers of sterile ingredients in an ISO Class 5 environment (Correct answer)
A CSP prepared in batches of more than 25 units
A CSP compounded outside a cleanroom for immediate use
A CSP involving non-sterile ingredients that have been sterilized

Correct answer: A CSP made using simple aseptic transfers of sterile ingredients in an ISO Class 5 environment

Low-risk CSPs involve simple aseptic manipulations of sterile ingredients and have the shortest assigned beyond-use dates due to minimal but possible contamination risk.

Question 47: What is a drug formulary tier system used for?

Determining the patient's copay level based on drug category (Correct answer)
Classifying drugs by strength
Ranking pharmacies by quality
Organizing drugs alphabetically

Correct answer: Determining the patient's copay level based on drug category

Formulary tiers assign drugs to categories (e.g., generics, preferred brands, non-preferred brands) with increasing copay amounts at higher tiers.

Question 48: What is the maximum BUD for an aqueous oral compounded preparation stored at room temperature under USP <795>?

30 days
6 months
1 year
14 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 14 days

USP <795> limits water-containing oral formulations stored at room temperature to a BUD of 14 days.

Question 49: What is HIPAA?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy (Correct answer)
A medical diagnosis code
A type of insurance plan
A hospital ranking system

Correct answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy

HIPAA establishes national standards for protecting patient health information, ensuring privacy and security of medical records.

Question 50: What does 'days supply' mean in the context of a prescription claim?

The number of days a drug remains stable after opening
The number of days a prior authorization is valid
The number of days the dispensed quantity is expected to last (Correct answer)
The number of days until the prescription expires

Correct answer: The number of days the dispensed quantity is expected to last

Days supply is calculated by dividing the dispensed quantity by the daily dose and is required on insurance claims to prevent early refills.

Question 51: An order is for 0.9% NaCl 250 mL to infuse over 90 minutes. What is the rate in mL/hr?

200 mL/hr
150 mL/hr
167 mL/hr (Correct answer)
125 mL/hr

Correct answer: 167 mL/hr

250 mL ÷ (90/60 hr) = 250 ÷ 1.5 = 166.7 ≈ 167 mL/hr.

Question 52: What is the primary purpose of providing a medication guide (MedGuide) to a patient?

To replace verbal counseling by the pharmacist
To serve as a billing document for the insurance company
To inform patients of serious risks associated with certain FDA-regulated medications (Correct answer)
To document that the patient picked up their prescription

Correct answer: To inform patients of serious risks associated with certain FDA-regulated medications

FDA-required MedGuides communicate serious risks, contraindications, and safe-use information for high-risk medications.

Question 53: What does co-insurance mean in pharmacy benefits?

A fixed dollar amount paid per prescription
A discount card used at the pharmacy
A percentage of the drug cost the patient pays after meeting the deductible (Correct answer)
Having two insurance plans simultaneously

Correct answer: A percentage of the drug cost the patient pays after meeting the deductible

Co-insurance is the patient's percentage share of the drug cost (e.g., 20%) after their deductible has been met, as opposed to a fixed copay.

Question 54: What does 'refill too soon' rejection mean in pharmacy billing?

The pharmacy submitted the claim to the wrong insurer
The drug requires a new prior authorization for each refill
The prescription has expired and cannot be refilled
The claim was submitted before the patient's days supply has nearly run out (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The claim was submitted before the patient's days supply has nearly run out

A 'refill too soon' rejection means the insurance will not yet pay for a refill because the calculated days supply from the previous fill has not been used up.

Question 55: What is a quantity limit (QL) restriction in pharmacy insurance?

A cap on how many pharmacies a patient can use
A limit on the drug's storage temperature
An insurance-imposed limit on the amount of medication dispensed per fill or time period (Correct answer)
A restriction on how many prescribers can prescribe a drug

Correct answer: An insurance-imposed limit on the amount of medication dispensed per fill or time period

A quantity limit restricts how much of a drug the insurer will cover (e.g., 30 tablets per 30 days) to ensure appropriate use and control costs.

Question 56: What does 'QID' mean in prescription abbreviations?

Once a day
Every other day
Four times a day (Correct answer)
Twice a day

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID stands for 'quater in die' (Latin), meaning four times a day.

Question 57: How many grams of dextrose are in 500 mL of D5W (5% dextrose in water)?

25 g (Correct answer)
5 g
50 g
10 g

Correct answer: 25 g

5% = 5 g/100 mL; 5 g × (500/100) = 25 g.

Question 58: What is the correct direction for cleaning the laminar flow hood interior?

Back to front in overlapping side-to-side strokes using sterile 70% IPA (Correct answer)
Side to side starting from the center outward
Front to back in overlapping side-to-side strokes
Top to bottom in circular motions

Correct answer: Back to front in overlapping side-to-side strokes using sterile 70% IPA

Cleaning from back to front prevents contaminated particles from flowing back over the clean work surface, and 70% IPA is the standard disinfecting agent.

Question 59: A vial contains 250 mg/5 mL. The order is for 375 mg. How many mL should be administered?

8 mL
7.5 mL (Correct answer)
6.5 mL
5 mL

Correct answer: 7.5 mL

375 mg ÷ (250 mg/5 mL) = 375 × 5/250 = 7.5 mL.

Question 60: What is a drug contraindication?

A drug recommendation
A dosage calculation
A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A positive drug interaction

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 61: If a drug has a concentration of 400 mg/250 mL and must run at 2 mg/min, what mL/hr rate should be set?

30 mL/hr
90 mL/hr
75 mL/hr (Correct answer)
60 mL/hr

Correct answer: 75 mL/hr

Concentration = 400/250 = 1.6 mg/mL; 2 mg/min ÷ 1.6 mg/mL = 1.25 mL/min × 60 = 75 mL/hr.

Question 62: A physician orders 250 mg of a medication to be given to a patient. The medication is available in 500 mg tablets. How many tablets should the pharmacy technician dispense?

2 tablets
5 tablets
1/2 tablet (Correct answer)
1 tablet

Correct answer: 1/2 tablet

To calculate the amount, divide the ordered dose by the available strength: 250 mg (ordered) / 500 mg (available) = 0.5. Therefore, the pharmacy technician should dispense 1/2 of a tablet.

Question 63: When a DEA-registered pharmacy permanently closes, controlled substances must be transferred or surrendered. Which DEA form is used to record the destruction of controlled substances by an authorized collector?

DEA Form 41 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 222
DEA Form 106
DEA Form 363

Correct answer: DEA Form 41

DEA Form 41 (Registrants Inventory of Drugs Surrendered) is used to document the surrender or destruction of controlled substances.

Question 64: A pharmacy technician notices that a batch of medication has been stored incorrectly, exposing it to extreme temperatures. What should the technician do next?

Continue to dispense the medication if it looks fine
Immediately report the incident to the pharmacist and quarantine the medication (Correct answer)
Dispense the medication but inform the customer of its potential issues
Dispose of the medication immediately without notifying anyone

Correct answer: Immediately report the incident to the pharmacist and quarantine the medication

Effective inventory control aims to maintain an optimal stock level, preventing both excessive overstocking (which can lead to waste from expiration or tied-up capital) and understocking (which can result in medication shortages and impact patient care). It balances supply with demand.

Question 65: A drug concentration is 2 mg/mL. The order calls for 0.5 mg/kg for a 40 kg patient. What volume should be given?

10 mL (Correct answer)
5 mL
20 mL
15 mL

Correct answer: 10 mL

0.5 mg/kg × 40 kg = 20 mg total; 20 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 10 mL.

Question 66: What is a drug contraindication?

A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A drug recommendation
A dosage calculation
A positive drug interaction

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 67: A patient weighs 154 lbs. A drug is dosed at 5 mg/kg/day divided into 2 equal doses. How many mg per dose?

770 mg
350 mg
385 mg
175 mg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 175 mg

154 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 70 kg; 70 × 5 = 350 mg/day ÷ 2 doses = 175 mg per dose.

Question 68: What does a pharmacy formulary contain?

A list of licensed pharmacies
A list of drugs covered by an insurance plan (Correct answer)
A schedule of pharmacist salaries
A record of patient prescriptions

Correct answer: A list of drugs covered by an insurance plan

A formulary is an insurance plan's approved list of covered medications, often organized into tiers that affect the patient's copay.

Question 69: What is the purpose of a biological safety cabinet (BSC) in pharmacy compounding?

To store hazardous drugs at controlled temperatures
To sterilize non-sterile ingredients before use
To measure the potency of chemotherapy drugs
To protect the operator and environment from hazardous drug exposure during compounding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect the operator and environment from hazardous drug exposure during compounding

A BSC uses vertical HEPA-filtered airflow to contain aerosols and protect the technician and cleanroom environment when compounding hazardous drugs like chemotherapy.

Question 70: Which system uses a centralized, high-density storage unit with a robotic arm to retrieve unit-dose medications in hospital pharmacies?

Pill-splitter device
Carousel/vertical carousel system (Correct answer)
Automated dispensing cabinet (ADC)
Blister pack machine

Correct answer: Carousel/vertical carousel system

Vertical carousel systems store medications in rotating shelves or a robotic retrieval unit, maximizing storage density and retrieval speed in centralized pharmacy settings.

Question 71: What is a nosocomial infection?

A childhood disease
An infection acquired in a healthcare facility (Correct answer)
A genetic condition
A respiratory infection

Correct answer: An infection acquired in a healthcare facility

Nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infections are acquired during the course of receiving medical treatment in a healthcare facility, not present at admission.

Question 72: A patient needs a 2% lidocaine solution. How many mg of lidocaine are in 10 mL?

20 mg
2 mg
2,000 mg
200 mg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 200 mg

2% = 2 g/100 mL = 20 mg/mL; 20 mg/mL × 10 mL = 200 mg.

Question 73: What does DAW stand for in pharmacy billing?

Drug Availability Warning
Drug Authorization Waiver
Dispense As Written (Correct answer)
Dispensing Approval Workflow

Correct answer: Dispense As Written

DAW (Dispense As Written) is a code indicating the prescriber requires the brand-name drug rather than a generic.

Question 74: A patient presents a prescription for oxycodone 30 mg tablets written by a physician licensed in another state. Under federal law, which statement is correct?

It is invalid and cannot be filled
It requires a DEA Form 222 to dispense
It can only be filled if the physician has a DEA number in the dispensing state
It can be filled if it meets both the issuing state and dispensing state requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It can be filled if it meets both the issuing state and dispensing state requirements

A controlled substance prescription written by an out-of-state prescriber is valid if it meets the legal requirements of both the prescriber's state and the state where it is being filled.

Question 75: What is a beyond-use date (BUD) in sterile compounding?

The date the laminar flow hood was last certified
The manufacturer's expiration date printed on the vial
The date after which a compounded sterile preparation should not be used (Correct answer)
The date a prior authorization expires

Correct answer: The date after which a compounded sterile preparation should not be used

The BUD is assigned by the compounder and indicates the latest date/time the preparation should be administered, based on risk level and storage conditions per USP 797.

Question 76: Which abbreviation on a medication order indicates the drug should be given sublingually?

PR
SL (Correct answer)
INH
PO

Correct answer: SL

SL stands for sublingual, meaning the medication is placed under the tongue for absorption.

Question 77: A Schedule II controlled substance prescription is called in by a physician to the pharmacy for a patient in a long-term care facility. Under federal law, what must the pharmacist obtain before dispensing?

Nothing — verbal orders are acceptable for LTC facilities
A written prescription within 7 days (Correct answer)
A written prescription within 30 days
A written prescription within 72 hours

Correct answer: A written prescription within 7 days

For Schedule II substances dispensed in emergency situations, federal law requires the prescriber to furnish a written prescription to the pharmacy within 7 days.

Question 78: When a pharmacy technician performs cycle counts on an automated dispensing cabinet, what is the main purpose of this activity?

To reorder medications from the wholesaler
To check medication expiration dates only
To reconcile the physical count with the system inventory count (Correct answer)
To verify patient insurance information

Correct answer: To reconcile the physical count with the system inventory count

Cycle counts compare actual physical quantities in the ADC against the system's recorded quantity to identify and correct discrepancies.

Question 79: What does PPE stand for?

Post-Production Equipment
Pre-Planning Exercise
Personal Protective Equipment (Correct answer)
Professional Performance Evaluation

Correct answer: Personal Protective Equipment

PPE refers to equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards, including helmets, gloves, eye protection, and safety boots.

Question 80: What USP chapter governs the compounding of sterile preparations in US pharmacies?

USP 797 (Correct answer)
USP 825
USP 795
USP 800

Correct answer: USP 797

USP 797 sets standards for sterile compounding including environmental controls, personnel training, and beyond-use dating to prevent contamination and patient harm.

Question 81: What is the difference between generic and brand-name drugs?

Generic drugs are less effective
There is no difference
Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost (Correct answer)
Brand names are always better

Correct answer: Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost

Generic drugs contain the same active ingredients, dosage, and route as brand-name drugs but are marketed under their chemical name at lower cost after patent expiration.

Question 82: What does claim adjudication refer to in pharmacy billing?

Verifying a patient's identity at the counter
The insurance plan's process of reviewing and determining payment for a prescription claim (Correct answer)
Filling out a prior authorization form
Printing the patient's receipt

Correct answer: The insurance plan's process of reviewing and determining payment for a prescription claim

Adjudication is the real-time electronic process by which an insurance plan evaluates a submitted claim and returns an approval or rejection with reimbursement details.

Question 83: Which sig code instructs the patient to take medication every 8 hours?

TID (Correct answer)
Q12H
BID
QID

Correct answer: TID

TID (ter in die) means three times daily, which equals every 8 hours when spaced evenly.

Question 84: What is a drug contraindication?

A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A drug recommendation
A positive drug interaction
A dosage calculation

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 85: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

Taking antibiotics
Cleaning the floor
Proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Wearing gloves at all times

Correct answer: Proper hand hygiene

Hand hygiene (washing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rub) is the single most effective measure for preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 86: A topical cream is prescribed as 'apply TID to affected area, 30g tube.' At an estimated 1g per application, how many days will the tube last?

15 days
30 days
7 days
10 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 days

TID = 3 times daily; 30g ÷ 3g/day = 10 days.

Question 87: What is a nosocomial infection?

A childhood disease
An infection acquired in a healthcare facility (Correct answer)
A respiratory infection
A genetic condition

Correct answer: An infection acquired in a healthcare facility

Nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infections are acquired during the course of receiving medical treatment in a healthcare facility, not present at admission.

Question 88: What is the correct needle angle when withdrawing medication from a vial?

15 degrees
30 degrees
45 to 90 degrees with bevel up (Correct answer)
180 degrees (straight down)

Correct answer: 45 to 90 degrees with bevel up

Inserting the needle at 45–90 degrees with the bevel up allows smooth entry through the vial stopper and minimizes coring, which could introduce rubber particles into the solution.

Question 89: What is a pyrogen, and why is it significant in sterile compounding?

A type of HEPA filter contaminant detected during certification
A measurement unit for IV solution osmolarity
A fever-causing substance such as bacterial endotoxins that must be absent from sterile IV preparations (Correct answer)
A chemical preservative added to extend IV solution shelf life

Correct answer: A fever-causing substance such as bacterial endotoxins that must be absent from sterile IV preparations

Pyrogens, most commonly bacterial endotoxins, can cause fever and septic shock when introduced intravenously, so sterile preparations must be pyrogen-free.

Question 90: What is the 'usual and customary' (U&C) price in pharmacy billing?

The price a pharmacy charges cash-paying customers (Correct answer)
The price printed on the manufacturer's label
The price negotiated with a wholesaler
The maximum price set by the FDA

Correct answer: The price a pharmacy charges cash-paying customers

The U&C price is the standard cash price a pharmacy charges, and insurance plans typically reimburse the lower of the U&C or contracted rate.

Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam

The PTCE certifies pharmacy technicians through the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), validating knowledge in medications, federal requirements, patient safety, and order processing.

Questions

110 min

Time Limit

1400%

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

ptcb.zendesk.com — Test dates, eligibility, renewal, test delivery, retake policy, time limit · verified Oct 2026
ptcb.org — Fees, passing score, exam information · verified Oct 2026
myaccount.ptcb.org — Exam format, score validity, registration deadline, registration, score release · verified Oct 2026