NCLEX-PN Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A newly diagnosed diabetic patient asks why the provider ordered both insulin glargine at bedtime and insulin aspart with meals. What is the best explanation?

Glargine is given at bedtime because it only works during sleep
The two insulins are interchangeable; this regimen doubles the safety margin
Aspart is a long-acting insulin that keeps glucose stable between meals
Glargine covers background insulin needs 24 hours a day, while aspart controls the glucose spike that occurs after eating (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Glargine covers background insulin needs 24 hours a day, while aspart controls the glucose spike that occurs after eating

A basal-bolus regimen mimics normal pancreatic function: basal insulin (glargine) suppresses hepatic glucose between meals and overnight; bolus insulin (aspart) covers postprandial glucose excursions.

Question 2: A patient has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and reports mild discomfort. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

Encourage increased fluid intake and ambulation if tolerated (Correct answer)
Administer a Fleet enema immediately
Insert a rectal suppository without a physician order
Restrict dietary intake to clear liquids

Correct answer: Encourage increased fluid intake and ambulation if tolerated

Increasing fluid intake and encouraging ambulation stimulates peristalsis naturally and is the appropriate first-line nursing intervention before pharmacological measures.

Question 3: Which position is recommended to relieve lower back pain for a patient on bed rest?

Semi-Fowler's with knees slightly elevated (Correct answer)
High Fowler's with legs dependent
Supine with legs fully extended
Prone with arms extended overhead

Correct answer: Semi-Fowler's with knees slightly elevated

Semi-Fowler's position with knees slightly elevated reduces lumbar spine tension and is the most comfortable position for lower back pain relief.

Question 4: Which breath sound indicates the presence of fluid in the alveoli or small airways?

Rhonchi
Crackles (rales) (Correct answer)
Stridor
Wheezing

Correct answer: Crackles (rales)

Crackles (rales) are caused by air moving through fluid-filled or collapsed alveoli and small airways, indicating conditions such as pulmonary edema or pneumonia.

Question 5: What condition slows down metabolic rate?

Hypothyroidism (Correct answer)
Cardiac failure
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Cancer

Correct answer: Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones. These hormones are essential for regulating the body's metabolism. A deficiency in thyroid hormones leads to a slowed metabolic rate, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and decreased energy levels.

Question 6: A 4-year-old with a tibial shaft fracture is the patient the nurse is tasked with caring for. The nurse examines the patient's medical record and discovers a sequence of injuries linked to child abuse. Which of the following can the nurse use to support her claim of child abuse?

Stringent household rules
One or both parents have stressful jobs
One of the patient's parents suffers from a chronic disease
Parents' low education levels (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Parents' low education levels

While child abuse can occur in any demographic, research indicates a correlation between certain socioeconomic factors, including lower parental education levels, and an increased risk of child abuse and neglect. These factors can contribute to environments with higher stress and fewer resources, potentially increasing the likelihood of such incidents. Therefore, this information can serve as a supporting risk factor when investigating suspected child abuse, alongside other clinical evidence.

Question 7: Which of the following is a sign of hyperglycemia that an LPN should report to the supervising nurse or physician?

Pinpoint pupils and bradypnea
Diaphoresis, tremors, and pallor
Polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision (Correct answer)
Bradycardia and hypotension

Correct answer: Polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision

Classic hyperglycemia symptoms are the three polys—polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia—plus fatigue and blurred vision; the other options suggest hypoglycemia or unrelated conditions.

Question 8: During uterine contractions, moms create the hormone _________, which causes nursing mothers to expel milk.

None of the above
Oxytocin (Correct answer)
Minotocin
Angiotensin

Correct answer: Oxytocin

Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. During breastfeeding, suckling stimulates oxytocin release, which causes the myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands to contract, leading to the 'milk ejection reflex' or 'let-down.' It also plays a crucial role in uterine contractions during labor.

Question 9: An LPN is obtaining a capillary blood glucose sample from a client's fingertip. Which technique is correct?

Milk the finger vigorously before the puncture.
Use the first drop of blood for the reading.
Puncture the center of the fingertip pad.
Puncture the side of the fingertip. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Puncture the side of the fingertip.

The sides of the fingertips have fewer nerve endings and are more vascular than the center pad, making the puncture less painful and yielding a better blood sample. The first drop of blood should be wiped away as it may be contaminated with tissue fluid.

Question 10: In order to get their child's ear infection checked, a parent brings their child to the pediatric clinic. The healthcare professional (HCP) affirms the diagnosis and issues a cephalexin prescription. The nurse asks the parent if their child has ever experienced an allergic reaction to medication before submitting the prescription to the pharmacy. Which of the following medications would cause the nurse to contact the HCP if there has been an allergic response in the past?

Gentamycin
Tetracycline
Isotretinoin
Amoxicillin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Amoxicillin

Cephalexin is a cephalosporin antibiotic, and amoxicillin belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. There is a known risk of cross-sensitivity between penicillins and cephalosporins, meaning a patient allergic to penicillin may also experience an allergic reaction to cephalexin. Therefore, a history of amoxicillin allergy would necessitate contacting the HCP to discuss alternative medications or precautions.

Question 11: In the PQRST pain assessment acronym, what does the letter 'Q' represent?

Quantity — how much medication the patient needs
Quality — description of the pain character such as sharp, burning, or dull (Correct answer)
Quick — how fast the pain came on
Quadrant — the body area where pain is located

Correct answer: Quality — description of the pain character such as sharp, burning, or dull

In PQRST, Q stands for Quality, which describes the nature or character of the pain (e.g., sharp, throbbing, burning, aching).

Question 12: A patient with myasthenia gravis is in crisis and has increasing difficulty swallowing and speaking. The LPN's immediate priority is to:

Assess and protect the airway and notify the provider immediately (Correct answer)
Encourage the patient to rest and reassess in one hour
Administer the next scheduled dose of pyridostigmine
Obtain a stat chest X-ray

Correct answer: Assess and protect the airway and notify the provider immediately

Myasthenic crisis causes progressive respiratory muscle weakness; airway compromise is life-threatening and requires immediate provider notification and airway management.

Question 13: What symptoms and indicators are present in hypothyroidism?

Depression
Both Answers (Correct answer)
Fatigue

Correct answer: Both Answers

Hypothyroidism, a condition of insufficient thyroid hormone production, significantly slows down the body's metabolism. This metabolic slowdown commonly leads to persistent fatigue and a general lack of energy. Additionally, the hormonal imbalance can affect brain chemistry, often resulting in symptoms of depression and cognitive impairment, making both fatigue and depression key indicators of the condition.

Question 14: A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding about the risk for cancer. Which of the following client statements indicates the need for further teaching?

I used to smoke but switched to chewing tobacco 3 years ago (Correct answer)
I see a dermatologist regularly for the mole on my thigh
I take milk of magnesia for occasional constipation
I tan using an indoor tanning lotion instead of laying out in the sun

Correct answer: I used to smoke but switched to chewing tobacco 3 years ago

Switching from smoking to chewing tobacco does not eliminate the risk of cancer; it merely shifts the type of cancer risk. Chewing tobacco is a known carcinogen and significantly increases the risk of oral, esophageal, and pancreatic cancers. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of cancer risk reduction and highlights the need for further education on tobacco cessation.

Question 15: An LPN is assessing a client's pressure injury over the sacrum. The wound bed shows full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat, but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed. How should the LPN stage this injury?

Stage 3 (Correct answer)
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 4

Correct answer: Stage 3

A Stage 3 pressure injury is defined as full-thickness skin and tissue loss where adipose (fat) is visible in the ulcer, but bone, tendon, or muscle are not exposed. Slough or eschar may be present but do not obscure the depth of tissue loss. This stage represents a deep crater.

Question 16: A patient on Airborne Precautions needs to be transported to the radiology department for a CT scan. Which action should the LPN take?

Have the transporter wear an N95 respirator
Place an N95 respirator on the patient
Place a surgical mask on the patient (Correct answer)
No special precautions are needed during transport

Correct answer: Place a surgical mask on the patient

When a patient on Airborne Precautions must leave their room, they should wear a surgical mask to minimize the dispersal of respiratory secretions and contain the source of infection. Healthcare workers transporting the patient do not need to wear an N95 respirator outside the patient's room.

Question 17: A patient with pulmonary edema receives IV furosemide (Lasix). Which finding best confirms the medication is effective?

Elevated body temperature
Improved SpO2 and decreased crackles on auscultation (Correct answer)
Increased blood pressure
Decreased urine output

Correct answer: Improved SpO2 and decreased crackles on auscultation

Furosemide reduces excess pulmonary fluid through diuresis; effectiveness is confirmed by improved SpO2 and decreased crackles as fluid clears from the alveoli.

Question 18: A diabetic patient's Somogyi effect is suspected. Which assessment finding supports this?

Normal fasting glucose with postprandial spikes only
Steadily rising blood glucose throughout the entire day
Low fasting glucose that remains low all morning
Elevated fasting glucose after documented nocturnal hypoglycemia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Elevated fasting glucose after documented nocturnal hypoglycemia

The Somogyi effect (rebound hyperglycemia) occurs when nocturnal hypoglycemia triggers counter-regulatory hormone release, causing a high morning glucose.

Question 19: Which action is a fundamental component of Standard Precautions that should be applied to all patients?

Placing all patients in private rooms
Performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact (Correct answer)
Wearing a gown and gloves for all patient care
Wearing an N95 respirator for all patient contact

Correct answer: Performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact

Standard Precautions are based on the principle that all blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions (except sweat), nonintact skin, and mucous membranes may contain transmissible infectious agents. Hand hygiene is the single most important practice to reduce the transmission of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 20: Which assessment finding in a postoperative patient requires immediate reporting to the charge nurse?

Mild incisional pain rated 3/10
Urine output of 35 mL/hour
Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg (Correct answer)
Temperature of 99.2°F at 24 hours post-op

Correct answer: Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg

A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, a sign of possible hemorrhage or shock requiring immediate intervention.

Question 21: An LPN is caring for a patient with a stage 2 pressure injury on the coccyx. Which dressing type is most appropriate?

Hydrocolloid dressing (Correct answer)
Wet-to-dry dressing
Alginate dressing
Dry gauze dressing

Correct answer: Hydrocolloid dressing

Hydrocolloid dressings maintain a moist wound environment and are recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries with minimal to moderate exudate.

Question 22: Which site preparation technique is correct before subcutaneous insulin injection?

Rub the site vigorously with alcohol immediately before inserting the needle
Apply a warm compress for 5 minutes to increase absorption speed
Pinch the skin and inject at a 90-degree angle only in obese patients
Cleanse the site with an alcohol swab and allow it to dry completely before injecting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cleanse the site with an alcohol swab and allow it to dry completely before injecting

Allowing alcohol to dry prevents a stinging sensation and ensures it does not enter the subcutaneous tissue, which could irritate or degrade the insulin.

Question 23: A pressure injury on a client's coccyx is completely covered by hard, dry, black eschar. How should this wound be staged?

Unstageable (Correct answer)
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4

Correct answer: Unstageable

An unstageable pressure injury is characterized by full-thickness skin and tissue loss in which the extent of the damage cannot be confirmed because it is obscured by slough or eschar. The eschar must be removed to expose the base of the wound before it can be accurately staged.

Question 24: A patient's primary care cannot be assumed by a registered vocational nurse:

Two days post-appendectomy
With a venous access device (Correct answer)
In the fourth stage of labor
With bipolar disorder

Correct answer: With a venous access device

The scope of practice for a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) generally does not include the initiation or management of complex intravenous therapies, especially those involving central venous access devices (CVADs). Managing a patient with a venous access device often requires advanced assessment, medication administration, and complication management skills that typically fall within the Registered Nurse (RN) scope of practice.

Question 25: Which of the following patients is at highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)?

A pregnant patient with gestational diabetes on diet control alone
An elderly patient with type 2 diabetes who develops pneumonia and reduced oral intake (Correct answer)
A 16-year-old with type 1 diabetes who skips a meal
A type 2 diabetic patient on metformin with a fasting glucose of 140 mg/dL

Correct answer: An elderly patient with type 2 diabetes who develops pneumonia and reduced oral intake

HHS typically affects older type 2 diabetic patients during acute illness; the combination of reduced fluid intake, impaired thirst, and stress hyperglycemia drives extreme hyperosmolarity.

Question 26: Which statement reflects the correct relationship between the LPN and the UAP regarding delegation?

The UAP is independently responsible for all tasks once assigned
The LPN is responsible for tasks delegated and must supervise appropriately (Correct answer)
The UAP can refuse any task delegated by the LPN without consequence
The LPN directs the UAP's work but cannot discipline them

Correct answer: The LPN is responsible for tasks delegated and must supervise appropriately

The LPN holds supervisory responsibility for delegated tasks and must monitor their performance.

Question 27: A client with diabetes mellitus is being discharged. The LPN reinforces teaching about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the client be taught to report?

Increased thirst and frequent urination (Correct answer)
Shakiness and sweating
Sudden confusion and headache
Cool, clammy skin

Correct answer: Increased thirst and frequent urination

The classic symptoms of hyperglycemia are the '3 Ps': Polydipsia (excessive thirst), Polyuria (excessive urination), and Polyphagia (excessive hunger). These occur as the body tries to get rid of excess glucose through the urine, leading to dehydration and thirst.

Question 28: A patient with diabetes mellitus has a fingerstick blood glucose reading of 58 mg/dL and is reporting feeling shaky and dizzy. What is the LPN's first nursing action?

Provide the patient with 4 ounces of orange juice (Correct answer)
Administer the patient's scheduled dose of insulin
Recheck the blood glucose in one hour
Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: Provide the patient with 4 ounces of orange juice

A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL with symptoms indicates hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further decline. The first action is to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 15 grams of glucose (e.g., 4 oz of juice or regular soda), to quickly raise the blood sugar level.

Question 29: A patient cannot swallow oral medications due to dysphagia. Which alternative route is most appropriate for analgesic delivery?

Subcutaneous injection
Rectal suppository or IV route per order (Correct answer)
Oral liquid formulation
Topical lotion

Correct answer: Rectal suppository or IV route per order

When a patient cannot take oral medications due to dysphagia, alternative routes such as rectal suppository, IV, or transdermal delivery may be ordered depending on the medication.

Question 30: A patient's urine is dark amber and concentrated. This finding most likely indicates which condition?

Urinary tract infection
Renal failure with anuria
Adequate hydration
Dehydration and insufficient fluid intake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dehydration and insufficient fluid intake

Dark amber, concentrated urine is a classic sign of dehydration; the kidneys conserve water by producing less, more concentrated urine.

Question 31: What is the most reliable early indicator of respiratory distress in an adult patient?

Restlessness and anxiety (Correct answer)
Cyanosis
Decreased respiratory rate
Bradycardia

Correct answer: Restlessness and anxiety

Restlessness and anxiety are early signs of hypoxia as the brain detects decreased oxygen; cyanosis is a late sign appearing only after significant desaturation.

Question 32: Which of the following blood glucose values meets the ADA diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?

Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions (Correct answer)
2-hour OGTT glucose of 130 mg/dL
Fasting plasma glucose of 110 mg/dL
Random blood glucose of 140 mg/dL without symptoms

Correct answer: Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL on two separate occasions

The ADA requires a fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL confirmed on two separate occasions (or once with symptoms) to diagnose diabetes.

Question 33: What distinguishes a task that is 'routine' and delegable from one that requires nursing judgment?

Routine tasks are those the UAP has done many times before
Routine tasks are defined solely by facility policy, not nursing standards
Routine tasks have predictable outcomes and do not require assessment or evaluation (Correct answer)
Any task done at the bedside is considered routine

Correct answer: Routine tasks have predictable outcomes and do not require assessment or evaluation

Delegable routine tasks have predictable, stable outcomes that do not require the nurse's clinical judgment.

Question 34: A client is prescribed rapid-acting insulin (lispro) on a sliding scale to be administered before meals. The LPN should administer the insulin at what time?

Immediately after finishing the meal
At the same time each day, regardless of meals
30 to 60 minutes before the meal
No more than 15 minutes before the meal begins (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No more than 15 minutes before the meal begins

Rapid-acting insulins, like lispro, aspart, and glulisine, have a very fast onset of action (10-15 minutes). They should be administered shortly before meals (within 15 minutes) to coincide with the rise in blood glucose from food intake.

Question 35: A UAP caring for multiple patients asks the LPN which task to do first. The LPN should base prioritization on:

Which room is closest to the nursing station
Each patient's clinical acuity and time-sensitive needs (Correct answer)
The order in which patient call lights were activated
The UAP's personal preference and familiarity with each patient

Correct answer: Each patient's clinical acuity and time-sensitive needs

Clinical acuity and urgency of patient needs determine proper task prioritization.

Question 36: A 5-year-old girl with a fever, chills, and trouble walking is taken to the emergency room by her grandmother. The nurse makes an effort to undress the infant but finds it difficult. The nurse also discovered bruising near the vaginal region after conducting a thorough examination. Which of the following should the nurse start with?

Collect the clothing and underwear of the child
Record all the findings
Inform the law enforcement for a possible child abuse (Correct answer)
Provide privacy and disregard the behavior of the child

Correct answer: Inform the law enforcement for a possible child abuse

The nurse's immediate priority is the child's safety. Bruising near the vaginal region, difficulty undressing, and the child's age are strong indicators of potential child abuse, specifically sexual abuse. Nurses are mandated reporters and have a legal and ethical obligation to report suspected abuse to law enforcement or child protective services to ensure the child's protection.

Question 37: How frequently should a urinary catheter drainage bag be emptied to prevent infection and maintain accurate output measurement?

Only when completely full
Every 30 minutes regardless of volume
Once per day at the end of the shift
Every 8 hours or when the bag is two-thirds to three-quarters full (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 8 hours or when the bag is two-thirds to three-quarters full

The catheter drainage bag should be emptied at least every 8 hours or when two-thirds to three-quarters full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate intake and output records.

Question 38: A patient on warfarin reports eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables daily. What is the primary concern?

Increased bleeding risk due to vitamin K deficiency
Renal toxicity from oxalate accumulation
Hyperkalemia from excess potassium
Decreased anticoagulant effect due to high vitamin K intake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreased anticoagulant effect due to high vitamin K intake

Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effect, so high intake of leafy greens can decrease INR and increase clot risk.

Question 39: A patient with a new colostomy refuses to look at the stoma or participate in care. The LPN's best therapeutic response is:

'Your family can take care of this for you at home.'
'I understand this is difficult. Would you like to watch while I care for it today?' (Correct answer)
'You'll need to learn this before discharge.'
'Many patients feel the same way at first, but you'll get used to it.'

Correct answer: 'I understand this is difficult. Would you like to watch while I care for it today?'

Acknowledging the patient's feelings and offering a gradual approach (observing first) respects autonomy and facilitates adaptation to the body change.

Question 40: The nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client's family asks the nurse what this is. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

Bipolar disorder is a type of depression that includes attention deficit disorder symptoms
Bipolar disorder just means that the mood alternates with the seasons, and it becomes worse in the winter
Bipolar disorder is just another type of depression, except depression occurs in cycles
Bipolar disorder means there are cycles of depression as well as hyperactivity, or mania (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bipolar disorder means there are cycles of depression as well as hyperactivity, or mania

Bipolar disorder is characterized by significant mood swings that include distinct episodes of both depression (low mood, loss of interest) and mania or hypomania (elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, increased energy). This explanation accurately describes the core features of the disorder, helping the family understand the client's condition as a cyclical mood illness.

Question 41: A nurse is taking care of a patient that is about to die. Which of the following is an example of aiding the patient's cultural needs?

Orienting the patient's family of what to expect when the time comes.
Listening to the patient's requests and qualms.
Helping the patient to move the body's position in bed.
Asking the patient if the wake will be held in a church or in another venue. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Asking the patient if the wake will be held in a church or in another venue.

Cultural needs often involve specific beliefs and practices surrounding death, dying, and post-mortem rituals. Asking about the wake venue directly addresses the patient's or family's cultural or religious preferences for end-of-life arrangements. This demonstrates respect for their traditions and helps ensure that their cultural needs are met during a sensitive time.

Question 42: When reinforcing teaching about insulin injection site rotation, what is the best instruction for the LPN to provide?

Use the same injection spot for every dose.
Only use the abdomen for insulin injections.
Alternate between the right and left arm for each injection.
Rotate sites within one area before moving to a new area. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rotate sites within one area before moving to a new area.

To ensure consistent insulin absorption and prevent lipodystrophy (changes in subcutaneous fat), clients should rotate injection sites within one anatomical area (e.g., the abdomen) for about a week before moving to a new area (e.g., the thigh). Using the same exact spot repeatedly can cause tissue damage.

Question 43: A 55-year-old female patient who has a possible case of meningitis is given to the nurse's care. To collect the patient's cerebral spinal fluid for testing, a lumbar puncture is required. Which approach from the list below should the nurse use to avoid complications after the lumbar puncture?

Encourage fluid intake (Correct answer)
Apply pressure to the site
Adjust the bed's head at a 30-degree angle for 6 to 8 hours
Keep the patient flat for 1 to 3 hours

Correct answer: Encourage fluid intake

A common complication after a lumbar puncture is a post-dural puncture headache, caused by leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Encouraging fluid intake helps replenish CSF volume, which can alleviate or prevent these headaches. While keeping the patient flat was traditionally recommended, current evidence supports hydration as a more effective strategy for preventing post-lumbar puncture headaches.

Question 44: During urinary catheter insertion, the catheter touches a non-sterile surface and becomes contaminated. What should the nurse do?

Flush the catheter with sterile saline before inserting
Wipe the catheter with an alcohol swab and continue
Discard the contaminated catheter and obtain a new sterile catheter (Correct answer)
Continue with the insertion since the contamination was minor

Correct answer: Discard the contaminated catheter and obtain a new sterile catheter

Any break in sterile technique requires discarding the contaminated catheter and using a new sterile catheter to prevent introducing bacteria into the bladder.

Question 45: A patient reports pain rated 8/10 on the numeric scale. What is the LPN's priority action?

Administer a PRN analgesic if ordered (Correct answer)
Reposition the patient for comfort
Document the pain rating in the chart
Notify the charge nurse or supervising RN

Correct answer: Administer a PRN analgesic if ordered

When a PRN analgesic is ordered, administering it is the priority intervention for a pain rating of 8/10 before escalating further.

Question 46: Which intervention is most effective for preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in an intubated patient?

Maintaining head of bed elevation at 30-45 degrees (Correct answer)
Performing oral care once daily
Deflating the endotracheal cuff every 4 hours
Keeping the head of bed flat at all times

Correct answer: Maintaining head of bed elevation at 30-45 degrees

Elevating the head of bed 30-45 degrees reduces aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions, which is the primary mechanism by which VAP develops.

Question 47: A nurse is reinforcing teaching a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when reinforcing the teaching?

You will need to wear a mask at all times
You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment
You will need to continue to take the multi medication regimen for 4 months
You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication (Correct answer)

Correct answer: You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication

Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis treatment involves regular sputum cultures to confirm the absence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Sputum samples are typically collected periodically, such as every 2-4 weeks, until two consecutive samples are negative. This is a critical aspect of ensuring successful treatment, confirming the client is no longer infectious, and preventing further transmission.

Question 48: A client tells the nurse, "My mother spent many years in a mental institution, and my father would abuse me when my mother was not around." Based on tis data, which is the client at greatest risk for developing?

an eating disorder
Poor relationships with the opposite sex
Substance abuse
A personality disorder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A personality disorder

A history of parental mental illness and childhood abuse are significant risk factors for developing personality disorders. These early traumatic experiences and unstable family environments can profoundly impact an individual's development of self-identity, emotional regulation, and interpersonal functioning. These impacts are core features of personality disorders, making this the greatest risk.

Question 49: When a UAP states they are uncomfortable performing a delegated task, the LPN should:

Explore the reason for discomfort and provide support or reassign as appropriate (Correct answer)
Document the refusal and assign the task to another UAP
Report the UAP to the charge nurse for insubordination
Insist the UAP complete the task since it is within their scope

Correct answer: Explore the reason for discomfort and provide support or reassign as appropriate

Understanding why a UAP is uncomfortable may reveal a safety concern that requires reassignment or education.

Question 50: Which assessment finding best indicates that a patient's pain medication has been effective?

The patient's blood pressure has increased
The patient requests a higher medication dose
The patient reports pain decreased from 8/10 to 2/10 and is able to rest (Correct answer)
The patient is sleeping and cannot be aroused

Correct answer: The patient reports pain decreased from 8/10 to 2/10 and is able to rest

Effective pain management is indicated by a significant decrease in self-reported pain intensity along with improved function and rest.

Question 51: A patient with Clostridium difficile (C. diff) infection requires which type of isolation precautions?

Contact precautions with gown and gloves (Correct answer)
Droplet precautions with surgical mask
Neutropenic (reverse) isolation precautions
Airborne precautions with N95 respirator

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gown and gloves

C. diff spreads via the fecal-oral route through spores on surfaces; contact precautions (gown and gloves) and handwashing with soap and water are required.

Question 52: A CKD patient is being informed by a nurse about two therapy alternatives. What benefit of peritoneal dialysis (PD) over hemodialysis is the following?

The patient needs to allot a schedule for PD since it is done daily.
There is stricter monitoring by healthcare professional when using PD.
A catheter will be surgically attached to your abdominal region.
The procedure for PD does not require a machine. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The procedure for PD does not require a machine.

A key benefit of peritoneal dialysis (PD) over hemodialysis is that it typically does not require a large, external blood filtration machine. While some forms of PD use an automated cycler, the core process utilizes the patient's own peritoneal membrane as a natural filter. This allows for greater flexibility, often enabling patients to perform treatments at home and offering more independence compared to the clinic-based, machine-dependent nature of hemodialysis.

Question 53: Which of the following sensory-perceptual deficits is associated with left-brain stroke (right hemiplegia)?

Overestimation of physical abilities
Difficulty judging position and distance
Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks (Correct answer)
Impulsivity and impatience at performing tasks

Correct answer: Slow and possibly fearful performance of tasks

A left-brain stroke typically results in right hemiplegia and is associated with deficits in language, analytical thinking, and a cautious, slow, and often fearful approach to tasks. Patients may be hesitant to perform tasks due to a fear of making mistakes or not being able to complete them correctly. This contrasts with the impulsivity often seen in right-brain strokes.

Question 54: A nurse applies a cold pack to a patient's swollen ankle after a sprain. What is the primary therapeutic purpose?

Prevent infection at the injury site
Reduce inflammation, swelling, and pain through vasoconstriction (Correct answer)
Increase circulation to promote healing
Relax the surrounding muscles

Correct answer: Reduce inflammation, swelling, and pain through vasoconstriction

Cold therapy causes vasoconstriction, which reduces blood flow to the injured area, limiting swelling, inflammation, and pain in the acute phase of injury.

Question 55: Which treatment is most effective for treating constipation while pregnant?

Taking a mild over-the-counter laxative
Reduction of iron intake by half or more
Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables (Correct answer)
Lying flat on back when sleeping

Correct answer: Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetables

Constipation is common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure from the growing uterus. The safest and most effective first-line treatment involves dietary modifications. Increasing fiber intake through fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, along with adequate fluid intake, helps soften stools and promote regular bowel movements without the risks associated with laxatives.

Question 56: A UAP asks the LPN to delegate suctioning a patient with a new tracheostomy. The LPN should:

Ask the charge RN to make the delegation decision
Decline to delegate because suctioning a new trach requires clinical assessment (Correct answer)
Teach the UAP and supervise the first time, then delegate independently
Delegate the task if the UAP has done it before on other patients

Correct answer: Decline to delegate because suctioning a new trach requires clinical assessment

Suctioning a new tracheostomy involves risk and clinical judgment beyond the UAP's scope of practice.

Question 57: Which technique describes correct use of incentive spirometry?

Exhale deeply into the device and hold for 10 seconds
Inhale slowly and deeply, hold breath 3-5 seconds, then exhale slowly (Correct answer)
Inhale quickly and forcefully to achieve the highest volume possible
Breathe rapidly in and out 10 times per set for maximum benefit

Correct answer: Inhale slowly and deeply, hold breath 3-5 seconds, then exhale slowly

Correct incentive spirometry requires slow, deep inhalation to expand alveoli, a 3-5 second breath hold to maintain alveolar expansion, then slow exhalation.

Question 58: The nurse is providing care to a client who is diagnosed with a personality disorder. Which finding indicates the treatment plan has been beneficial for this client?

The client has ceased self-mutilating behavior and bathes once a week
The client eats sporadically and reports being told she has been bad and does not deserve to eat
The client sits with others in the lounge area conversing about current affairs (Correct answer)
The client asks others for money because the client's was stolen

Correct answer: The client sits with others in the lounge area conversing about current affairs

A key goal in treating personality disorders, especially those involving social difficulties, is to improve social interaction and engagement. The client conversing with others about current affairs demonstrates improved social skills, appropriate engagement, and a reduction in isolation. This indicates a beneficial treatment plan that is helping the client integrate more effectively into social settings.

Question 59: While the nurse is assisting with an admission history for a client at 39 weeks of gestation, the client tells the nurse that water has been leaking from her vagina for 2 days. The nurse should know that this client is at risk for which of the following?

Postpartum hemorrhage
Infection (Correct answer)
Hydramnios
Cord prolapse

Correct answer: Infection

Prolonged rupture of membranes (PROM), especially for 2 days, significantly increases the risk of intrauterine infection (chorioamnionitis) for both the mother and the fetus. The protective barrier of the amniotic sac is lost, allowing bacteria to ascend into the uterus. This is a critical concern requiring close monitoring and potential intervention to prevent serious complications.

Question 60: Which pulse needs to be felt when a baby is in cardiac arrest in order to assess cardiac function?

Brachial (Correct answer)
Carotid
Radial
Pedal

Correct answer: Brachial

When assessing cardiac function in an infant during cardiac arrest, the brachial pulse is the most reliable and accessible pulse to palpate. The brachial artery is located on the inside of the upper arm, between the elbow and the shoulder, making it easier to locate quickly in an emergency for infants.

Question 61: A client with type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and diaphoretic. The LPN checks the client's blood glucose, which is 58 mg/dL. The client is conscious and able to swallow. What is the LPN's priority action?

Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately without taking action.
Give the client a protein bar and a glass of milk.
Administer the client's scheduled dose of long-acting insulin.
Provide the client with 4 oz of orange juice. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Provide the client with 4 oz of orange juice.

The client is experiencing hypoglycemia. The priority for a conscious client is to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate to raise blood glucose levels quickly. The 'rule of 15' suggests giving 15 grams of a simple carbohydrate, such as 4 oz (120 mL) of juice or regular soda, and rechecking blood glucose in 15 minutes.

Question 62: A nurse is assisting with the management of a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report following epidural placement?

Fetal heart rate 160
2+ pedal edema
Early decelerations
Blood pressure 89/54 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Blood pressure 89/54 mmHg

Hypotension is a common and serious complication following epidural anesthesia, as it can cause vasodilation and a significant decrease in blood pressure. A blood pressure of 89/54 mmHg is dangerously low and can compromise uteroplacental perfusion, potentially harming the fetus. This finding requires immediate nursing intervention to restore adequate blood pressure.

Question 63: A normal blood sugar range is 80 to 180. False or true?

FALSE (Correct answer)
TRUE

Correct answer: FALSE

A normal fasting blood sugar range is typically considered to be 70 to 99 mg/dL. A range of 80 to 180 mg/dL is too broad and includes levels that would be considered prediabetic or diabetic, especially the upper end. Therefore, the statement that 80 to 180 is a normal range is false.

Question 64: An LPN is caring for a client with a suspected deep tissue injury (DTI) over the left trochanter. What clinical finding is consistent with this diagnosis?

Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
A purple, localized area of discolored intact skin. (Correct answer)
Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone.
A shallow crater with a pink wound bed.

Correct answer: A purple, localized area of discolored intact skin.

A deep tissue injury is a pressure-related injury to subcutaneous tissues under intact skin. It typically presents as a persistent, non-blanchable purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin or a blood-filled blister. The area may be preceded by tissue that is painful, firm, or boggy.

Question 65: A nurse is caring for a client who has dyspnea and is to receive oxygen continuously. Which of the following oxygen devices should the nurse use to deliver a precise amount of oxygen to the client?

Nasal cannula
Venturi mask (Correct answer)
Simple face mask
Nonrebreather mask

Correct answer: Venturi mask

A Venturi mask is specifically designed to deliver a precise and consistent concentration of oxygen, regardless of the client's breathing pattern. It achieves this by using different adapters that mix oxygen with room air in specific proportions. This makes it the ideal choice when a precise oxygen delivery is required for the client.

Question 66: Vasopressin _____________ urine production.

Increases
Decreases (Correct answer)
Stops
Intensify

Correct answer: Decreases

Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), is a hormone that regulates the body's water balance. It acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption from the renal tubules back into the bloodstream. This action decreases the amount of water excreted in the urine, thereby decreasing urine production and concentrating the urine.

Question 67: Which electrolyte imbalance most increases a patient's risk for digoxin toxicity?

Hypernatremia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypercalcemia
Hypokalemia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypokalemia

Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because low potassium increases myocardial sensitivity to the drug.

Question 68: A patient with diabetes and chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4 is at increased risk for which insulin-related problem?

No change in insulin pharmacokinetics with CKD
Prolonged hypoglycemia because the kidneys normally degrade insulin and this capacity is reduced (Correct answer)
Insulin resistance requiring higher doses due to uremic toxins
Rapid insulin clearance leading to frequent hyperglycemia

Correct answer: Prolonged hypoglycemia because the kidneys normally degrade insulin and this capacity is reduced

The kidneys contribute significantly to insulin degradation; as renal function declines, insulin half-life extends and hypoglycemia risk increases, often requiring dose reductions.

Question 69: The nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro (Humalog). When should this rapid-acting insulin be given relative to meals?

30–45 minutes before the meal
0–15 minutes before the meal or immediately after the first bite (Correct answer)
Only at bedtime regardless of meal schedule
1 hour after the meal

Correct answer: 0–15 minutes before the meal or immediately after the first bite

Rapid-acting analogs like lispro have an onset of 10–15 minutes and should be given just before or with meals to match their action to carbohydrate absorption.

Question 70: ADHD has just been identified in a teenage patient of a nurse. To address the problem, the patient's doctor recommended dextroamphetamine. What will happen if the patient drinks a lot of coffee and develops a cross-tolerance to dextroamphetamine?

Dextroamphetamine might need to be combined with a more potent drug to achieve the desired effect on the patient.
The use of Dextroamphetamine is no longer needed as it has the same effect as drinking a certain amount of coffee.
The current dose of Dextroamphetamine might not have the desired effect on the patient. (Correct answer)
A lower dose of Dextroamphetamine might be needed to achieve the desired effect on the patient.

Correct answer: The current dose of Dextroamphetamine might not have the desired effect on the patient.

Cross-tolerance occurs when tolerance to one drug (like caffeine from coffee) results in tolerance to another drug with a similar mechanism of action (like dextroamphetamine, both being stimulants). If the patient has developed cross-tolerance from excessive coffee consumption, their body will require a higher dose of dextroamphetamine to achieve the intended therapeutic effect. Consequently, the current dose might not be sufficient to manage their ADHD symptoms effectively.

Question 71: Which medication is classified as a non-opioid analgesic commonly used for mild to moderate pain?

Oxycodone
Hydromorphone
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) (Correct answer)
Morphine sulfate

Correct answer: Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic that works centrally and is first-line for mild to moderate pain without opioid side effects.

Question 72: An LPN is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is not on dialysis. The client's diet will most likely include a restriction of which nutrient?

Vitamin C
Protein (Correct answer)
Healthy fats
Complex carbohydrates

Correct answer: Protein

For clients with CKD who are not on dialysis, protein intake is often restricted. The kidneys are responsible for filtering the waste products of protein metabolism (like urea), and in CKD, this function is impaired. Restricting protein reduces the workload on the kidneys.

Question 73: Which statement best describes the 'Right Task' according to the Five Rights of Delegation?

The UAP has demonstrated competency for the task.
The task is repetitive, non-invasive, and has a predictable outcome. (Correct answer)
The LPN provides clear instructions for the task.
The patient's condition is stable.

Correct answer: The task is repetitive, non-invasive, and has a predictable outcome.

The 'Right Task' refers to delegating activities that are repetitive, require little supervision, are relatively noninvasive, have predictable results, and have minimal potential for risk. This ensures that the delegated task is appropriate for a UAP's skill level and scope of practice.

Question 74: A patient refuses pain medication despite rating pain at 7/10. What is the appropriate nursing action?

Ignore the refusal and document only the pain rating
Discharge the patient for noncompliance
Document the refusal, explore the patient's concerns, and notify the RN (Correct answer)
Administer the medication without the patient's consent

Correct answer: Document the refusal, explore the patient's concerns, and notify the RN

Patients have the right to refuse treatment; the nurse must document the refusal, explore the reasons, provide education, and notify the RN of the patient's pain and refusal.

Question 75: A nurse is assessing insulin injection sites on a patient who always injects in the same spot. What complication should the nurse look for?

Scar tissue at the injection site increases insulin absorption
Bruising alone is the only expected complication of repeated injections
Lipohypertrophy—a lumpy, fatty buildup that impairs insulin absorption (Correct answer)
Lipoatrophy only occurs with older animal-derived insulins, so it is not a concern

Correct answer: Lipohypertrophy—a lumpy, fatty buildup that impairs insulin absorption

Repeated injections in the same site cause lipohypertrophy, making absorption erratic and unpredictable, which destabilizes glucose control.

Question 76: The inappropriate rise in growth hormones is the cause of __ and .

Blindness
Gigantism (Correct answer)
Dwarfism (Correct answer)
All of the above

Correct answer: Gigantism

An inappropriate rise in growth hormone (GH) during childhood, before the epiphyseal plates have fused, leads to gigantism. This condition is characterized by excessive growth in height and overall body size. Dwarfism, conversely, is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone.

Question 77: A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states that she is anxious because she feels that she cannot get enough air. Vital signs are HR 117/min, RR 38/min, Temp 38.4C (101.2F), BP 100/54 mmHg. Which of the following actions is the priority action at this time?

Notify the provider
Administer heparin via IV infusion
Obtain a spiral CT scan
Administer oxygen therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administer oxygen therapy

The client is experiencing acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, anxiety, a high heart rate, high respiratory rate, and low blood pressure, indicating significant respiratory distress and potential hypoxemia. Administering oxygen therapy is the priority action to address the immediate physiological need for oxygen and improve the client's respiratory status. Stabilizing the client's breathing is crucial before further diagnostic tests or provider notification.

Question 78: A patient has been receiving palliative care for the past several weeks in light of her worsening condition following a series of strokes. The caregiver has rung the call bell, stating that the patient now "stops breathing for a while, then breathes fast and hard, and then stops again." The nurse would recognize that the patient is experiencing

Bradypnea
Death rattle
Apnea
Cheyne-Stokes respirations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by cycles of progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop (apnea). This pattern is commonly seen in patients nearing the end of life, especially those with severe neurological conditions like stroke, and indicates severe brainstem dysfunction.

Question 79: A patient's blood pressure was tested by a nurse, who got a reading of 140/110 mmHg. The patient became nervous as a result. What is the patient to do, according to the nurse?

'Your blood pressure is not that high. Just control your diet and it will surely become lower in a few days.''
'Your blood pressure is very high! I will give you medication to lower it, and you need to continue this medication indefinitely.''
'You need to be admitted right away and we will strictly monitor your blood pressure and other vital signs for at least 24 hours.''
'We need to run diagnostics to find the root cause of your hypertension and other issues that might be present as well.'' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'We need to run diagnostics to find the root cause of your hypertension and other issues that might be present as well.''

A blood pressure reading of 140/110 mmHg indicates severe hypertension. The nurse's most appropriate initial response is to recommend further diagnostics to identify the underlying cause of this elevated blood pressure and assess for any related health issues. This comprehensive approach ensures proper diagnosis and guides the development of an effective, individualized treatment plan, rather than immediately initiating indefinite medication or dismissing the reading.

Question 80: Hazardous object handling and disposal are additional duties for nurses. Which of the following actions demonstrates proper treatment of infectious or hazardous wastes?

A clear liquid in a vial is disposed by emptying the contents in the washroom.
Photosensitive substances are stored in clean and clear bottles.
Used PPEs are disposed in the trash bin along the hallway.
Labeling the containers of specimens to be examined. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Labeling the containers of specimens to be examined.

Proper labeling of specimen containers is a critical step in the safe handling and disposal of infectious or hazardous wastes. It ensures that all personnel are aware of the contents, allowing them to take appropriate precautions during transport, examination, and disposal, thereby preventing misidentification and potential exposure. The other options describe unsafe or improper practices.

Question 81: A patient on opioid analgesics must be monitored closely for which life-threatening complication?

Respiratory depression (Correct answer)
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: Respiratory depression

Opioids suppress the central nervous system and can cause respiratory depression, which is the most dangerous and potentially fatal side effect.

Question 82: Which action by the LPN best demonstrates understanding of HIPAA regulations?

Sharing login credentials with a coworker to access lab results quickly during a code
Discussing a patient's condition with the family in the hallway when no other patients are nearby
Logging out of the electronic health record after reviewing a patient's chart (Correct answer)
Faxing medical records without a cover sheet to another facility

Correct answer: Logging out of the electronic health record after reviewing a patient's chart

Logging out of the EHR after use protects patient data from unauthorized access, which is a core HIPAA privacy and security requirement.

Question 83: For inactive elderly men, active adult women, and kids, the suggested daily calorie intake is:

1600 calories
2400 calories
2800 calories
2000 calories (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2000 calories

The suggested daily calorie intake varies based on age, sex, activity level, and individual metabolism. However, 2000 calories per day is a commonly cited general guideline for many adult women, inactive elderly men, and children (depending on age and activity level). It serves as a benchmark for a balanced diet.

Question 84: Which of the following best describes how doctors listen for bowel sounds?

Auscultation (Correct answer)
Rectal examination
Palpation
Percussion

Correct answer: Auscultation

Auscultation is the medical term for listening to the internal sounds of the body, typically using a stethoscope. This technique is specifically employed by healthcare professionals to assess bowel sounds, as well as heart sounds, lung sounds, and blood flow. Percussion involves tapping, palpation involves touching, and a rectal examination is a different type of physical assessment.

Question 85: The nurse who works in the behavioral health unit is creating a client's plan of care. The client is socially awkward, won't participate in group therapy sessions, and has a history of hurling objects at other clients. Which nursing diagnostic for the client is of the utmost importance?

Ineffective coping
Impaired social interaction
Risk for other-directed violence (Correct answer)
Social isolation

Correct answer: Risk for other-directed violence

The client's history of 'hurling objects at other clients' directly indicates a potential for harm to others. In nursing, client and staff safety is always the highest priority. Therefore, 'Risk for other-directed violence' is the most crucial nursing diagnosis as it addresses the immediate potential for physical harm to individuals in the environment.

Question 86: Which of these nursing actions can the RN working in a long-term care facility delegate to an experienced LPN who is caring for a patient with a permanent tracheostomy?

Suctioning the tracheostomy when needed (Correct answer)
Determining the need for replacement of the tracheostomy tube
Educating the patient about self-care of the tracheostomy
Assessing the patient's risk for aspiration

Correct answer: Suctioning the tracheostomy when needed

LPNs, especially experienced ones, are trained and competent in performing routine procedures like tracheostomy suctioning for stable patients. This task falls within their scope of practice as it is a technical skill rather than requiring complex assessment, diagnosis, or teaching. The other options involve higher-level assessment, critical thinking, and patient education, which are typically within the RN's scope.

Question 87: When performing a sterile dressing change, the LPN accidentally touches the sterile field with an ungloved hand. What is the correct action?

Discard the contaminated supplies and obtain a new sterile setup (Correct answer)
Continue the procedure quickly to minimize contamination time
Apply an antiseptic to the touched area and proceed
Document the breach and monitor for infection

Correct answer: Discard the contaminated supplies and obtain a new sterile setup

Any break in sterile technique requires discarding contaminated materials and starting fresh to prevent infection.

Question 88: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate assisting with the administration of if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

Nifedipine (Adalat)
Calcium gluconate (Correct answer)
Ferrous sulfate
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Correct answer: Calcium gluconate

Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. If a client receiving magnesium sulfate shows signs of toxicity, such as decreased deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, or decreased urine output, calcium gluconate should be administered intravenously. It rapidly reverses the effects of hypermagnesemia, preventing severe complications.

Question 89: What one of the following is not a contributing cause to wound dehiscence?

Infection at the surgical site
Allergic reaction to sutures (Correct answer)
Diabetes
Unhealthy tissue

Correct answer: Allergic reaction to sutures

Wound dehiscence is the partial or complete separation of wound edges, often caused by factors that impair healing or increase tension on the wound. Diabetes, infection at the surgical site, and unhealthy tissue (e.g., poor nutrition, compromised circulation) are all known risk factors that negatively impact wound healing. An allergic reaction to sutures, while problematic, typically causes localized inflammation or irritation rather than directly leading to the physical separation of a wound.

Question 90: An assessment of the patient's diet is to be done by the nurse for a type-2 diabetic patient who is 53 years old. The patient is 5 feet 9 inches tall and 173 pounds in weight. The patient has a 25.5 BMI. What inferences about the patient's health can the nurse draw?

The patient is obese
The patient's weight is normal
The patient is extremely obese
The patient is overweight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The patient is overweight

A Body Mass Index (BMI) between 25.0 and 29.9 kg/m² is classified as overweight. Since the patient's BMI is 25.5, they fall into this category. For a type-2 diabetic patient, understanding their weight status is crucial, as weight management is a significant component of diabetes care and can directly impact blood sugar control and overall health.

Question 91: A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops flank pain and dark urine. Which lab change would confirm a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Decreased BUN and creatinine
Elevated WBC count only
Elevated plasma free hemoglobin and hemoglobinuria (Correct answer)
Low serum LDH

Correct answer: Elevated plasma free hemoglobin and hemoglobinuria

Hemolysis releases free hemoglobin into the plasma and urine, producing hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria as definitive markers of a hemolytic reaction.

Question 92: A patient's oxygen saturation drops to 88% while sleeping. Which position change should the LPN implement first?

Left lateral decubitus position
Prone position
Trendelenburg position
High Fowler's position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High Fowler's position

High Fowler's position (60–90°) maximizes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm.

Question 93: An LPN notes a patient's white blood cell (WBC) count is 18,000/mm³. The LPN interprets this finding as most likely indicating:

Infection (Correct answer)
Dehydration
A risk for bleeding
Anemia

Correct answer: Infection

The normal WBC count is typically between 4,500 and 11,000/mm³. An elevated WBC count, known as leukocytosis, is a common physiological response to infection or inflammation as the body increases its production of infection-fighting cells.

Question 94: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of dumping syndrome following gastric surgery. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Increase protein in the diet (Correct answer)
Drink at least one glass of water with each meal
Eat three moderate-sized meals a day
Eat a bedtime snack that contains a milk product

Correct answer: Increase protein in the diet

For clients with dumping syndrome, increasing protein and fat in the diet helps slow gastric emptying and reduce the rapid shift of fluids into the small intestine. Protein-rich foods are digested more slowly, which can alleviate symptoms like nausea, diarrhea, and dizziness. This dietary modification is a cornerstone of managing dumping syndrome.

Question 95: Which clinical finding is most consistent with fecal impaction?

Bright red blood coating formed stool
Large, formed brown stool passed once daily
Pale, clay-colored stool with jaundice
Liquid stool oozing around hard stool mass with no formed stool for several days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Liquid stool oozing around hard stool mass with no formed stool for several days

Fecal impaction presents with liquid stool leaking around a hard, immovable stool mass; patients often report rectal fullness and no normal bowel movement for days.

Question 96: A patient's serum TSH is 0.05 mIU/L and free T4 is elevated. Which clinical findings would the LPN expect?

Hyperglycemia and polyuria
Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and weight loss (Correct answer)
Bradycardia, cold intolerance, and weight gain
Hyponatremia and lethargy

Correct answer: Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and weight loss

Low TSH with high free T4 indicates hyperthyroidism, causing increased metabolic rate with tachycardia, heat intolerance, and unintentional weight loss.

Question 97: A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which daily assessment is most important for monitoring fluid status?

Respiratory rate every 4 hours
Daily weight at the same time each morning (Correct answer)
Blood pressure sitting and standing
Intake and output every 8 hours

Correct answer: Daily weight at the same time each morning

Daily weights taken consistently in the morning before eating and after voiding provide the most accurate reflection of fluid retention or loss.

Question 98: After being accused of setting a fire, a patient is sent to the psychiatric ward for a forensic assessment. The antisocial personality disorder is his preliminary diagnosis. The nurse would anticipate discovering after looking through the client's file

A below-average intelligence
A history of consistent employment
An expression of remorse for his actions
A history of cruelty to animals (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A history of cruelty to animals

Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often with a history of conduct disorder in childhood. A history of cruelty to animals is a common and significant diagnostic criterion for conduct disorder, reflecting a lack of empathy and a precursor to adult antisocial behaviors.

Question 99: Which glands control hormone levels by negative feedback?

Adrenal gland
Exocrine gland
Both A and C (Correct answer)
Pituitary
Hypothalumus

Correct answer: Both A and C

The hypothalamus and pituitary gland work together as the main control centers for the endocrine system, regulating hormone levels through negative feedback loops. The hypothalamus controls the pituitary, which in turn regulates other endocrine glands, ensuring hormone levels are maintained within a narrow physiological range for proper body function.

Question 100: Which foot-care instruction is most important for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathy?

Inspect feet daily for cuts, blisters, and redness because sensation is reduced (Correct answer)
Cut toenails in a rounded shape to prevent ingrown nails
Soak feet in hot water for 20 minutes each evening to improve circulation
Walk barefoot indoors to promote natural foot movement

Correct answer: Inspect feet daily for cuts, blisters, and redness because sensation is reduced

Reduced sensation means injuries go unnoticed; daily visual inspection is the cornerstone of diabetic foot care to catch problems early.

Question 101: Which dietary modification is most effective for preventing constipation?

Eliminating all dairy products from the diet
Increasing dietary fiber (25–35 g/day) and fluid intake to at least 8 glasses of water daily (Correct answer)
Increasing protein intake and reducing carbohydrates
Eating three large meals per day instead of smaller frequent meals

Correct answer: Increasing dietary fiber (25–35 g/day) and fluid intake to at least 8 glasses of water daily

A high-fiber diet increases stool bulk and speeds intestinal transit, while adequate fluid intake softens stool and prevents constipation.

Question 102: The LPN notices the UAP did not report a patient's elevated temperature from two hours ago. What is the priority action?

File a complaint with the nurse manager
Immediately assess the patient's current status (Correct answer)
Document the UAP's failure to report in the chart
Counsel the UAP about reporting requirements

Correct answer: Immediately assess the patient's current status

The LPN's first priority is the patient's current clinical status, not the UAP's behavior.

Question 103: A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which of the following items is appropriate for the LPN to offer?

Orange juice with pulp
Lemon gelatin (Correct answer)
Cream of chicken soup
Vanilla milkshake

Correct answer: Lemon gelatin

A clear liquid diet includes liquids that are transparent and do not contain any solids or pulp. Gelatin is considered a clear liquid as it is liquid at body temperature. Orange juice with pulp, milk, and cream of chicken soup are not permitted on a clear liquid diet.

Question 104: Which position is most appropriate for a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress?

High Fowler's (90 degrees) (Correct answer)
Supine
Trendelenburg
Lateral recumbent

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90 degrees)

High Fowler's position promotes maximum lung expansion by allowing the diaphragm to descend fully, improving ventilation and oxygenation.

Question 105: The Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale is primarily designed for which patient population?

Elderly patients with dementia
Critically ill ventilated patients
Children and patients who have difficulty with numeric scales (Correct answer)
Postoperative patients in the PACU

Correct answer: Children and patients who have difficulty with numeric scales

The Wong-Baker FACES scale uses facial expression images and is validated for children ages 3 and older and adults who struggle with numeric or verbal scales.

Question 106: Surgical removal of the kidney

Cholecystectomy
Colporthaphy
Orchiectomy
Nephrectomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nephrectomy

Nephrectomy is the surgical procedure involving the removal of a kidney. The term combines 'nephro-' (referring to the kidney) and '-ectomy' (meaning surgical removal). This operation is performed for various conditions, including kidney cancer, severe kidney damage, or to remove a non-functioning kidney.

Question 107: A patient's urine specific gravity is 1.030. How should the LPN interpret this finding?

Concentrated urine, likely indicating dehydration (Correct answer)
Normal, well-hydrated status
Dilute urine suggesting overhydration
Indicates renal failure with inability to concentrate

Correct answer: Concentrated urine, likely indicating dehydration

Urine specific gravity >1.025 indicates highly concentrated urine, most commonly due to dehydration or inadequate fluid intake.

Question 108: The doctor has prescribed Sulfamylon cream dressings for a patient who has full-thickness burns on his or her hands and arms. The following should come first for the nurse when changing dressings:

Obtaining a blood glucose by finger stick
Requesting a daily complete blood count
Administering pain medication (Correct answer)
Checking the adequacy of urinary output

Correct answer: Administering pain medication

Changing dressings for full-thickness burns is an extremely painful procedure. The nurse's priority before starting the dressing change should be to administer adequate pain medication. This ensures patient comfort, reduces anxiety, and allows for better cooperation during the procedure, which is essential for effective wound care.

Question 109: A patient is using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is within the LPN's scope of practice?

Changing the opioid cartridge independently
Adjusting the lockout interval
Programming the PCA pump settings
Monitoring the patient's pain level and respiratory status (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitoring the patient's pain level and respiratory status

The LPN monitors the patient's response to PCA therapy including pain levels, sedation, and respiratory status, reporting changes to the RN.

Question 110: Which assessment finding is most consistent with urinary retention?

Frequent small voidings of less than 50 mL with a distended bladder (Correct answer)
Large volumes of bright red urine
Decreased blood pressure and tachycardia
Urinary output greater than 200 mL/hr

Correct answer: Frequent small voidings of less than 50 mL with a distended bladder

Urinary retention presents as inability to fully empty the bladder, often with overflow voiding of small amounts and a palpably distended, uncomfortable bladder.

Question 111: Which of the following drugs is related to the toxicity sign of "ringing in the ears," as described by a patient to the nurse?

penicillin
aspirin (Correct answer)
isoproterenol
hydroxyzine

Correct answer: aspirin

Tinnitus, commonly described as 'ringing in the ears,' is a well-known and classic symptom of aspirin toxicity, particularly when taken in higher doses. This ototoxicity is a significant indicator of potential salicylate poisoning. Nurses must recognize this symptom as a crucial warning sign and report it promptly to the healthcare provider.

Question 112: Which dietary factor most commonly contributes to constipation?

High protein intake
High fluid intake
High-fiber diet with fruits and vegetables
Low-fiber diet with insufficient fluids (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low-fiber diet with insufficient fluids

A diet low in fiber and fluids reduces stool bulk and slows peristalsis, leading to constipation and difficulty passing stool.

Question 113: Which pain assessment scale is most appropriate for a non-verbal adult patient who cannot self-report?

PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) (Correct answer)
Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS)
Wong-Baker FACES Scale

Correct answer: PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia)

The PAINAD scale assesses pain in non-verbal adults by observing behavioral indicators such as breathing, vocalization, and body language.

Question 114: Which nursing intervention best helps reduce pain and anxiety during a painful dressing change?

Applying restraints to prevent patient movement
Performing the procedure as quickly as possible without explanation
Dimming the lights and playing music
Administering PRN analgesic 30 minutes before the procedure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administering PRN analgesic 30 minutes before the procedure

Premedication with an analgesic 30 minutes before a painful procedure ensures peak medication effect and significantly reduces procedural pain.

Question 115: A patient's blood glucose before lunch is 245 mg/dL. The sliding scale orders 4 units of regular insulin for glucose 201–250 mg/dL. The patient also has a scheduled mealtime dose of 8 units of regular insulin. What total dose should the LPN prepare?

16 units (double the scheduled dose when glucose exceeds 200)
8 units (scheduled dose only; never add correction at mealtime)
4 units (correction dose only; skip scheduled dose when glucose is high)
12 units (8 scheduled + 4 correction) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 12 units (8 scheduled + 4 correction)

Scheduled mealtime insulin and sliding-scale correction insulin are additive; both are given together and drawn into the same syringe if both are regular insulin.

Question 116: A tiny drop of perspiration fell onto one of the scalpels as the operation was being performed. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this case?

Wipe the scalpel with a sanitized gauze before using it to the patient.
Disinfect the scalpel using chlorohexidine and dry it before using.
Set it apart from the other instruments and use another scalpel for the procedure. (Correct answer)
Immediately dispose the scalpel and use a sealed one.

Correct answer: Set it apart from the other instruments and use another scalpel for the procedure.

Any contamination of a sterile surgical instrument, even by perspiration, renders it non-sterile and unsafe for use in an operation. The immediate and correct action is to remove the contaminated scalpel from the sterile field and replace it with a new, sterile one. Attempting to wipe or disinfect it during surgery is insufficient to re-establish sterility and poses a significant risk of infection to the patient.

Question 117: Breakthrough pain medication should be administered in which manner?

Only after the patient has tried non-pharmacological methods for 2 hours
Only at scheduled intervals, never on demand
As needed (PRN) when the patient reports pain between scheduled doses (Correct answer)
At the nurse's discretion regardless of patient report

Correct answer: As needed (PRN) when the patient reports pain between scheduled doses

Breakthrough pain medications are PRN orders given when a patient experiences pain between scheduled doses, based on the patient's self-report.

Question 118: A patient with diabetes is NPO for a procedure. The provider orders to hold all oral antidiabetic agents. Which insulin type is MOST likely to still be administered?

No insulin of any type while the patient is NPO
Rapid-acting insulin before each meal
Basal (long-acting) insulin at a reduced dose (Correct answer)
Regular insulin sliding scale with every meal

Correct answer: Basal (long-acting) insulin at a reduced dose

Basal insulin maintains background glucose control even when the patient is fasting; rapid or meal-time insulin is withheld because there is no carbohydrate intake.

Question 119: What is the most critical factor for an LPN to consider before delegating any task to a UAP?

The time of day and staffing levels
The UAP's willingness to perform the task
The stability of the patient's condition (Correct answer)
Whether the task is interesting for the UAP

Correct answer: The stability of the patient's condition

The patient's stability is the most important consideration. Even routine tasks can become inappropriate to delegate if the patient is unstable, as their condition may change rapidly, requiring the skill and judgment of a licensed nurse.

Question 120: The nurse is planning care for an adolescent client experiencing the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which intervention would address hallucinations?

Explain that hallucinations are not real (Correct answer)
Discuss a homework assignment
Encourage spending time with others
Keep isolated in a quiet room

Correct answer: Explain that hallucinations are not real

When a client is experiencing hallucinations, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to gently and calmly explain that the hallucinations are not real. This helps orient the client to reality without directly confronting or arguing with their experience. Providing reality orientation helps to reduce distress and confusion associated with the hallucination.

Question 121: An immobilized patient is being cared for by a nurse. How can nurses prevent self-injury when caring for immobile patients?

Avoid bending over, leaning, and stretching when working with the patient (Correct answer)
Keep their feet shoulder-width apart, and in a straight line to maintain a proper stance
Put the patient at a comfortable height, which is usually at shoulder level
Keep a safe distance between the patient and nurse when moving the immobile patient

Correct answer: Avoid bending over, leaning, and stretching when working with the patient

To prevent self-injury when caring for immobile patients, nurses must prioritize proper body mechanics. Avoiding excessive bending over, leaning, and stretching minimizes strain on the nurse's back and joints, significantly reducing the risk of musculoskeletal injuries. Instead, nurses should utilize assistive devices, maintain a wide base of support, and keep the patient close to their body when performing transfers or repositioning.

Question 122: An LPN is planning care for a group of patients. Which task can be safely delegated to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)?

Assisting a stable, postoperative patient with bathing (Correct answer)
Performing a wound dressing change
Developing a plan of care for a new admission
Administering a scheduled oral pain medication

Correct answer: Assisting a stable, postoperative patient with bathing

Delegation to a UAP is appropriate for tasks that are routine, non-invasive, and do not require nursing judgment or assessment. Assisting a stable patient with activities of daily living, such as bathing, falls within the UAP's scope of practice.

Question 123: As soon as the thyroid is:

Normal function
Hyper active
Hypo active (Correct answer)
All of the above

Correct answer: Hypo active

This question likely refers to a condition or state of the thyroid gland. When the thyroid is hypoactive, it means it is underperforming and producing insufficient thyroid hormones. This leads to a slowed metabolic rate and symptoms characteristic of hypothyroidism, such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.

Question 124: A nurse is reinforcing teaching on the manifestation of complications to a client who has acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following complications should the client report to the provider?

Temperature of 36.8C (98.4 F)
Pitting edema (Correct answer)
Weight gain of 2lb in 1 week
Dry cough

Correct answer: Pitting edema

Acute glomerulonephritis often leads to fluid retention due to impaired kidney function, resulting in edema. Pitting edema is a significant manifestation of fluid overload and indicates worsening renal function. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly as it can signal potential complications like hypertension or heart failure.

Question 125: A infant who was delivered at 41 weeks gestation is being examined by a nurse. Which of the following traits would suggest that the baby is postterm?

Excess body fat
Leathery skin (Correct answer)
Flat areola without breast buds
Heels movable fully to the ears

Correct answer: Leathery skin

Postterm infants, delivered after 42 weeks gestation, often exhibit signs of placental insufficiency due to an aging placenta. This leads to dry, cracked, peeling, and leathery skin, along with a wasted appearance from decreased subcutaneous fat. These physical characteristics are key indicators of a postterm delivery.

Question 126: You are the LPN caring for adult medical and surgical patients on 2 East. Because there is a fire on 1 East, your unit has been told to evacuate your patients horizontally. Where are you going to transport your patients?

1 west
3 east
3 west
2 west (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 west

In a hospital fire evacuation, 'horizontal evacuation' means moving patients to a safe area on the same floor, typically to an adjacent fire compartment. If the fire is on 1 East, and the LPN is on 2 East, moving patients to 2 West would be a horizontal evacuation, as it's on the same floor and likely separated by a fire door.

Question 127: An intubated patient's ventilator alarm sounds, showing high peak airway pressure. What should the LPN do first?

Silence the alarm and document it
Remove the endotracheal tube immediately
Increase the tidal volume setting
Assess the patient and check tubing for kinks or obstruction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assess the patient and check tubing for kinks or obstruction

A high-pressure alarm may indicate secretions, patient biting the tube, tubing kinks, or bronchospasm; the LPN must first assess the patient and check for tubing issues.

Question 128: A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL. Which clinical manifestation would the LPN expect to observe?

Fatigue and shortness of breath (Correct answer)
Increased energy and normal skin color
Flushed skin and bradycardia
Hypertension and bounding pulses

Correct answer: Fatigue and shortness of breath

Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. A low hemoglobin level (anemia) results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, and tachycardia as the body tries to compensate.

Question 129: What exactly are gonads?

Adrenal glands
Sexual hormones
Testis and Ovaries (Correct answer)
Thyroid Glands

Correct answer: Testis and Ovaries

Gonads are the primary reproductive organs responsible for producing gametes (sperm or eggs) and sex hormones. In males, the gonads are the testes, and in females, they are the ovaries. These organs are essential for sexual reproduction and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

Question 130: Which statement accurately describes the action of long-acting insulin, such as insulin glargine?

It must be administered 30 minutes before each meal.
It is cloudy in appearance and must be gently rolled before use.
It provides a steady level of insulin with no significant peak. (Correct answer)
It has a rapid onset and a peak action in 1-2 hours.

Correct answer: It provides a steady level of insulin with no significant peak.

Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir) are designed to provide a steady, continuous level of insulin over a 24-hour period. They do not have a pronounced peak, which reduces the risk of hypoglycemia between meals and overnight. This mimics the basal insulin secretion of a healthy pancreas.

Question 131: An LPN is delegating care for a patient with type 2 diabetes. Which task is appropriate to delegate to the UAP?

Teaching the patient about signs of hypoglycemia
Administering sliding scale insulin
Assessing the patient's feet for skin breakdown
Performing a routine fingerstick blood glucose check (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performing a routine fingerstick blood glucose check

Measuring and recording blood glucose levels using a fingerstick is a routine task that can be delegated to a UAP once they have been properly trained. However, the LPN remains responsible for interpreting the result and taking appropriate action, such as administering insulin.

Question 132: The treatment with levodopa for a patient who has Parkinson's disease has begun. The nurse informs the patient that they will begin to see the expected outcomes in

4 to 5 weeks
1 week
2 to 3 weeks (Correct answer)
6 weeks

Correct answer: 2 to 3 weeks

Levodopa, a medication used to treat Parkinson's disease, works by converting into dopamine in the brain, helping to alleviate motor symptoms. However, its therapeutic effects are not immediate; it typically takes time for the medication to build up and for the patient's body to respond. Patients can generally expect to begin seeing noticeable improvements in their symptoms gradually over a period of 2 to 3 weeks.

Question 133: Which scenario represents unsafe delegation by an LPN?

Asking the UAP to assist a patient to the bathroom
Asking the UAP to take routine vital signs on a stable patient
Asking the UAP to administer a PRN pain medication (Correct answer)
Asking the UAP to weigh a patient before breakfast

Correct answer: Asking the UAP to administer a PRN pain medication

Medication administration is outside the UAP's scope of practice and is never a delegable task.

Question 134: What is often the first or most atypical sign of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an elderly patient?

Sudden confusion or change in mental status (Correct answer)
Gross hematuria
Fever above 103°F
Dysuria and burning on urination

Correct answer: Sudden confusion or change in mental status

Elderly patients often present with atypical UTI symptoms; acute confusion or change in mental status is frequently the earliest and most prominent sign.

Question 135: Inflammation of the nose

Rhinitis (Correct answer)
Craniotomy
Fibrous
Dermatitis

Correct answer: Rhinitis

Rhinitis is the medical term for inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the nose. This condition is commonly caused by allergies (allergic rhinitis) or viral infections (e.g., the common cold). Symptoms typically include sneezing, nasal congestion, a runny nose, and itching.

Question 136: Which element must be present for an LPN to legally delegate a task to a UAP?

A minimum of five years of UAP experience
The patient's verbal agreement to UAP care
A physician's written order approving the delegation
State nurse practice act authorization for that task to be delegated (Correct answer)

Correct answer: State nurse practice act authorization for that task to be delegated

Delegation must comply with the state nurse practice act, which defines what LPNs can delegate and to whom.

Question 137: Which nursing task should the nurse on the renal unit assign to the LPN?

Measure and record the urine in the bedside commode
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter before surgery (Correct answer)
Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
Feed the client who choked on food during the last meal

Correct answer: Insert an indwelling urinary catheter before surgery

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is a common procedure that falls within the scope of practice for an LPN, especially an experienced one, under the supervision of an RN. LPNs are trained in sterile technique and catheter insertion. The other tasks either involve higher-level assessment or are routine care that could be assigned to various personnel.

Question 138: Specialist in straight teeth

Periodontist
Orthodontist (Correct answer)
Optometrist
Proctologist

Correct answer: Orthodontist

An orthodontist is a dental specialist who focuses on the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of dental and facial irregularities, particularly misaligned teeth and improper bites (malocclusions). Their primary goal is to correct the positioning of teeth and jaws to improve oral function and aesthetics, effectively specializing in 'straight teeth.'

Question 139: A patient with type 2 diabetes has a fasting blood glucose of 58 mg/dL and reports feeling shaky and sweating. What is the LPN's priority action?

Offer a full meal and recheck glucose in one hour
Call the physician before giving anything by mouth
Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes (Correct answer)
Administer scheduled insulin dose immediately

Correct answer: Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes

The 15-15 rule—15 g rapid carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes—is the standard first-line treatment for mild-to-moderate hypoglycemia in a conscious patient.

Question 140: What is women's studies?

Craniotomy
Mastectomy
Hematology
Gynecology (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gynecology

Gynecology is the specialized branch of medicine that focuses on the health of the female reproductive system and women's health issues throughout their lifespan. It encompasses the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases related to the female reproductive organs. Therefore, it is the medical field directly associated with 'women's studies' in a healthcare context.

Question 141: A patient is using a nasal cannula at 4 L/min. What approximate FiO2 is being delivered?

44%
24%
60%
36% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 36%

At 4 L/min via nasal cannula, the approximate FiO2 is 36%; each liter per minute adds approximately 4% above the 21% baseline of room air.

Question 142: An LPN is caring for a patient diagnosed with influenza. Which type of room placement is most appropriate for this patient?

A negative-pressure airflow room
A private room or cohort with a patient with the same diagnosis (Correct answer)
A room with the door kept open to observe the patient
Any available semi-private room

Correct answer: A private room or cohort with a patient with the same diagnosis

Influenza is transmitted via droplets. Droplet Precautions require placing the patient in a private room. If a private room is not available, the patient can be cohorted with another patient infected with the same microorganism.

NCLEX-PN Exam

The NCLEX-PN exam certifies that an individual has the entry-level knowledge and skills required to practice as a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) or Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN). It assesses competencies across various client needs categories.

Questions

300 min

Time Limit

50%

To Pass

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