FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: An airplane said to be inherently stable will

require less effort to control.
not spin. (Correct answer)
be difficult to stall.

Correct answer: not spin.

An inherently stable airplane is designed to resist deviations from its trimmed flight path and to return to that path after being disturbed. While stability helps prevent unintentional spins by resisting uncontrolled rotations, it does not make an aircraft immune to spinning if mishandled. However, it significantly reduces the aircraft's tendency to enter or sustain a spin compared to an unstable aircraft.

Question 2: When must a current certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession?

When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.
Anytime when acting as a pilot in command or as a required crewmember. (Correct answer)
Only when passengers are carried.

Correct answer: Anytime when acting as a pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.3) clearly state that a pilot must have their appropriate pilot certificate and, if required, a current medical certificate in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. This requirement applies anytime the individual is acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember, ensuring their qualifications are verifiable.

Question 3: A remote pilot plans to fly near an Alert Area on a sectional chart. What should the pilot know about Alert Areas?

Alert Areas require ATC communication before entry
Alert Areas contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity; all aircraft are equally responsible for collision avoidance (Correct answer)
Flight is strictly prohibited and violators face criminal penalties
Alert Areas are active only during military exercises

Correct answer: Alert Areas contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity; all aircraft are equally responsible for collision avoidance

Alert Areas (depicted with 'A' and a number) warn of high volumes of training or unusual activity, and all aircraft — manned or unmanned — share equal responsibility for collision avoidance.

Question 4: Which of the following best describes disc loading in the context of drone payload performance?

Total thrust divided by the total rotor disc area, which increases with added payload (Correct answer)
The ratio of payload weight to total drone weight
The maximum weight the landing gear can support
The power consumed by the ESC under full throttle

Correct answer: Total thrust divided by the total rotor disc area, which increases with added payload

Disc loading (thrust/rotor area) rises with payload weight because more thrust must be generated across the same rotor area.

Question 5: How does center of gravity (CG) shift caused by payload placement affect sUAS flight?

Payload placement affects only forward speed, not stability
It can cause the drone to be nose-heavy or tail-heavy, degrading stability and control (Correct answer)
CG only matters for fixed-wing aircraft, not multirotors
A shifted CG automatically corrects itself via GPS stabilization

Correct answer: It can cause the drone to be nose-heavy or tail-heavy, degrading stability and control

An improperly positioned payload shifts the CG, forcing flight controllers to compensate and potentially degrading handling or exceeding control authority.

Question 6: Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is a continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information for specific airports, primarily in high-activity terminal areas. It provides essential data like weather, active runways, approaches in use, and NOTAMs. This service reduces frequency congestion by allowing pilots to obtain routine information without directly contacting air traffic control.

Question 7: (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

1 mile and clear of clouds. (Correct answer)
3 miles and clear of clouds.
1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

Correct answer: 1 mile and clear of clouds.

The town of Cooperstown and its airport (area 2 on Figure 26) are located in Class G airspace from the surface up to 700 feet AGL, as indicated by the magenta vignette. For VFR operations in Class G airspace during the day, below 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum weather requirements are 1 statute mile visibility and remaining clear of clouds. This allows for basic visual flight in uncontrolled airspace.

Question 8: (Refer to Figure 35.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions? Pressure altitude........................4,000 ft Temperature...............................+ 29 °C Manifold pressure........................21.3" Hg Wind.........................................Calm

36.1 gallons. (Correct answer)
31.4 gallons.
40.1 gallons.

Correct answer: 36.1 gallons.

To determine fuel consumption, first use Figure 35 to find the true airspeed (TAS) and fuel flow (GPH) for the given pressure altitude (4,000 ft), temperature (+29°C), and manifold pressure (21.3" Hg). With calm wind, the TAS equals the ground speed. Calculate the flight time by dividing the 500-nautical mile distance by the determined TAS. Finally, multiply the fuel flow rate by the flight time to arrive at the total fuel consumption of 36.1 gallons.

Question 9: What is the most effective way to measure success in commercial applications & business operations within FAA professional practice?

Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives (Correct answer)
Count only the number of activities completed
Rely solely on supervisor opinion
Compare only with industry averages without considering context

Correct answer: Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives

Effective measurement combines multiple data sources — quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback — all aligned with clearly defined objectives for a comprehensive evaluation.

Question 10: A sUAS has a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW) of 4.4 lbs. The drone itself weighs 3.2 lbs. What is the maximum payload it can carry while remaining legal under Part 107?

1.6 lbs
0.8 lbs
4.4 lbs
1.2 lbs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1.2 lbs

Payload capacity equals MTOW minus drone weight: 4.4 - 3.2 = 1.2 lbs.

Question 11: Under Part 107, which of the following is a condition that requires the remote PIC to land the sUAS immediately?

Visibility drops below 3 statute miles (Correct answer)
Battery level drops below 50%
Wind speed exceeds 15 knots
Altitude approaches 400 feet AGL

Correct answer: Visibility drops below 3 statute miles

Part 107.51 requires minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles from the control station, so deteriorating visibility below this requires ending the operation.

Question 12: On a sectional chart, a magenta dashed line surrounding a surface area indicates which airspace class?

Class B Mode C veil
Class D airspace
Class C airspace inner ring
Class E airspace that extends to the surface (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class E airspace that extends to the surface

A magenta dashed line on a sectional chart designates Class E airspace that begins at the surface, often around airports without control towers that have instrument approaches.

Question 13: (Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?

Runway 29.
Runway 32. (Correct answer)
Runway 6.

Correct answer: Runway 32.

The correct answer is C because, by calculating the crosswind component for each runway using the wind component chart (Figure 36) with a reported wind of North at 20 knots, only Runway 32 (heading 320°) results in a crosswind component below the 13-knot maximum limit. For Runway 32, the angle difference is 40 degrees, yielding approximately 12.8 knots of crosswind, which is acceptable. Runways 6 and 29 would produce crosswind components exceeding the 13-knot limit.

Question 14: (Refer to Figure 21.) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

122.2 MHz.
117.1 MHz. (Correct answer)
118.0 MHz.

Correct answer: 117.1 MHz.

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) broadcasts continuous summaries of hazardous weather information over select VOR navigation aids. To find the HIWAS frequency in the vicinity of Area 1 on Figure 21, locate the VOR station symbol. The associated frequency box for the Elizabeth City VOR (ECG) clearly shows "117.1" with an "H" in the upper right corner, indicating that HIWAS is available on that frequency.

Question 15: Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. (Correct answer)
cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.

Correct answer: stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

Steady precipitation preceding a front, particularly a warm front, is a strong indicator of stable air being gradually lifted. Stable air resists vertical displacement, leading to the formation of stratiform clouds (like nimbostratus) that produce widespread, continuous precipitation. This gradual lifting and lack of strong vertical currents typically result in little to no turbulence, making for a smoother flight compared to conditions associated with unstable air.

Question 16: What does the 'sterile cockpit' concept mean when applied to drone operations?

Eliminating non-essential conversation and distractions during critical flight phases (Correct answer)
Using a clear radio frequency free of interference
Keeping the drone physically clean and free of debris
Sanitizing equipment with approved cleaners after each use

Correct answer: Eliminating non-essential conversation and distractions during critical flight phases

The sterile cockpit concept means focusing entirely on safety-critical tasks during critical flight phases by removing non-essential distractions.

Question 17: Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

30 days.
90 days. (Correct answer)
60 days.

Correct answer: 90 days.

To act as pilot in command carrying passengers, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category and class (and type, if a type rating is required) within the preceding 90 days. This requirement, found in 14 CFR Part 61.57(a), ensures recent proficiency in basic flight maneuvers before carrying others. If these operations were performed at night, they must have been to a full stop.

Question 18: One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

type of precipitation.
stability of the air mass.
wind direction. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: wind direction.

A front is the boundary between two different air masses, and these air masses typically have distinct characteristics, including temperature, moisture, and most notably, wind direction. As an aircraft crosses a front, it transitions from one air mass to another, resulting in an observable and often abrupt change in wind direction due to the convergence or divergence of airflows associated with the frontal boundary.

Question 19: What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1273 feet MSL (Correct answer)
1283 feet MSL
1010 feet MSL

Correct answer: 1273 feet MSL

To solve this, locate Airpark East Airport on a sectional chart and identify the highest obstacle on its northeast side. For example, if the obstacle is marked as 773 feet MSL, adding the required 500 feet clearance yields a minimum altitude of 1273 feet MSL (773 + 500). Always refer to the specific sectional chart for accurate obstacle heights.

Question 20: (Refer to Figure 25, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

4,000 feet MSL. (Correct answer)
at the surface.
3,200 feet MSL.

Correct answer: 4,000 feet MSL.

Referring to Figure 25, area 4, Hicks Airport (T67) is located under a shelf of Class B airspace. The numbers associated with the solid blue lines indicate the ceiling and floor of the Class B airspace in hundreds of feet MSL. The segment directly above Hicks Airport shows '110/40', meaning the Class B airspace extends from 4,000 feet MSL up to 11,000 feet MSL. Therefore, the floor of the Class B airspace overlying Hicks is 4,000 feet MSL.

Question 21: On a sectional chart, a symbol showing 'MOA' with a defined boundary indicates:

A Mandatory Obstacle Avoidance zone
A Modified Obstacle Area with updated tower data
A Marine Operations Area restricted to military vessels
A Military Operations Area where high-speed military training may occur (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A Military Operations Area where high-speed military training may occur

MOA stands for Military Operations Area, where military training activities such as air combat maneuvers and low-altitude tactics may occur, posing hazards to civilian aircraft and drones.

Question 22: When operating in Class E airspace that extends to the surface (depicted by a dashed magenta line with a 'surface E' designation), what does a Part 107 pilot need?

Only a NOTAM filed 24 hours before flight
Visual line of sight waiver from the FAA
No authorization is needed because Class E is uncontrolled
ATC authorization because surface Class E is controlled airspace (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ATC authorization because surface Class E is controlled airspace

Class E airspace that extends to the surface is controlled airspace and requires ATC authorization for Part 107 operations.

Question 23: What does a depicted parachute symbol on a sectional chart warn drone pilots about?

Active parachute jumping operations in that area (Correct answer)
Military freefall training restricted to IFR flights
Ultralight vehicle activity zone
A skydiving landing zone only

Correct answer: Active parachute jumping operations in that area

A parachute symbol on a sectional chart marks areas with active parachute jumping operations, which create a collision hazard.

Question 24: When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

Mode 3/A code 1200. (Correct answer)
Mode 3/A code 7700.
Mode F code 1200.

Correct answer: Mode 3/A code 1200.

Transponder code 1200 is the standard VFR squawk code for aircraft operating below 18,000 feet MSL, unless ATC assigns a different code. 'Mode 3/A' refers to the specific transponder mode that transmits the four-digit code. This code allows ATC radar to identify the aircraft as VFR traffic, ensuring proper tracking and communication.

Question 25: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months

at least three flights in a powered glider.
at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot must meet specific recent experience requirements outlined in 14 CFR Part 61.69. This includes having made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot within the preceding 12 months. This regulation ensures the pilot maintains proficiency in the specialized skills needed for safe glider towing operations.

Question 26: (Refer to Legend 1) A VORTAC station is represented by

A single dot inside a square.
A single dot inside a hexagon.
A single dot inside a hexagon with tabs on three of the sides. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A single dot inside a hexagon with tabs on three of the sides.

A VORTAC station, when not located on an airport, is represented by a hexagon with a single dot in the center and three small 'tabs' extending from its sides. The hexagon with a dot signifies a VOR (VHF Omnidirectional Range), and the additional tabs indicate the presence of a TACAN (Tactical Air Navigation) component. This symbol helps pilots identify combined VOR and TACAN navigational aids.

Question 27: To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
set prior to flight on a known heading.
periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

The heading indicator (directional gyro) is a gyroscopic instrument that provides a stable heading reference, free from the oscillations and errors of a magnetic compass. However, due to a phenomenon called precession, the gyro slowly drifts over time. Therefore, pilots must periodically check and realign the heading indicator with the magnetic compass to ensure its accuracy throughout the flight.

Question 28: What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. (Correct answer)
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

Correct answer: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.3) mandate that a pilot acting as pilot in command must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft an appropriate pilot certificate and, if required for the operation, an appropriate current medical certificate. These documents verify the pilot's qualifications and medical fitness to fly, ensuring compliance with regulations.

Question 29: When should a remote pilot check that the compass is properly calibrated on a sUAS?

After any significant firmware update, change of operating location, or compass warning (Correct answer)
Before every flight regardless of any indicators
Only when the manufacturer recommends it annually
Only when flying over water

Correct answer: After any significant firmware update, change of operating location, or compass warning

Compass recalibration is needed after firmware updates, relocating to a new area far from the last calibration site, or when the flight controller shows a compass error.

Question 30: Why is airspace awareness critical for safety?

To comply with airspace rules and avoid risks (Correct answer)
To fly higher for photos.
To increase video frame rate.
To save battery power.

Correct answer: To comply with airspace rules and avoid risks

Airspace awareness is critical for safety as it enables drone pilots to comply with federal aviation regulations and avoid hazardous situations. Understanding airspace classifications, temporary flight restrictions, and proximity to airports prevents unauthorized incursions and minimizes the risk of collisions with manned aircraft.

Question 31: Which action best demonstrates the 'Antiauthority' hazardous attitude being corrected?

A pilot stops worrying about what could go wrong and flies confidently
A pilot who says 'Rules are for other people' decides to follow the regulations after all (Correct answer)
A pilot overcomes fear of the weather and launches despite a storm
A pilot ignores crew concerns and departs on schedule

Correct answer: A pilot who says 'Rules are for other people' decides to follow the regulations after all

Antiauthority is the attitude that rules don't apply to you; correcting it means choosing to follow regulations even when you disagree with them.

Question 32: A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Class D. (Correct answer)
Class C.
Class B.

Correct answer: Class D.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart is the standard depiction for Class D airspace. This airspace typically surrounds airports with an operational control tower and extends from the surface up to 2,500 feet AGL, with its lateral dimensions tailored to instrument procedures. Pilots must establish two-way radio communication with the control tower before entering Class D airspace.

Question 33: A sectional chart shows a military airport symbol. How is a military airport distinguished from a civil airport?

Military airports use a tick-mark star burst symbol around the runway layout (Correct answer)
Military airports are depicted with a shield symbol
Military airports are shown only in blue, while civil airports are shown in magenta
Military airports have dashed outlines instead of solid

Correct answer: Military airports use a tick-mark star burst symbol around the runway layout

Military airports on sectional charts are shown with a tick-mark (star-burst) pattern around the airport symbol to distinguish them from civil airports.

Question 34: A drone pilot is contracted for agricultural spraying. Under current FAA rules, what applies?

Only USDA-licensed pilots may perform aerial application
Agricultural drones must fly under 100 ft AGL
Chemical dispersal via drone is excluded from Part 107 and governed by other regulations (Correct answer)
Agricultural spraying is fully authorized under standard Part 107

Correct answer: Chemical dispersal via drone is excluded from Part 107 and governed by other regulations

Part 107 specifically excludes aircraft used for agricultural application; those operations fall under 14 CFR Part 137.

Question 35: Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than

September 30, 2015.
September 30, 2016. (Correct answer)
September 1, 2016.

Correct answer: September 30, 2016.

Transponder inspections, including the associated altitude reporting equipment, are required every 24 calendar months under 14 CFR Part 91.413. If the last inspection was performed on September 1, 2014, the 24-calendar-month period extends to the end of September 2016. Therefore, the next inspection must be completed no later than September 30, 2016.

Question 36: Under Part 107, what minimum distance must a sUAS maintain from clouds horizontally?

1,000 feet
3,000 feet
500 feet
2,000 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2,000 feet

Part 107.51(c) requires sUAS to stay at least 2,000 feet horizontally and 500 feet below clouds.

Question 37: (Refer to Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

Class G.
Class C.
Class E. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class E.

To determine the airspace type, one must refer to a sectional chart. The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport (Figure 20, area 1) is depicted with a magenta dashed line around it. A magenta dashed line on a sectional chart indicates Class E airspace extending to the surface, meaning controlled airspace begins at the surface around this airport.

Question 38: A remote PIC's pre-flight weather check shows forecast winds of 12 knots, but upon arriving at the site finds actual gusts to 28 knots. The aircraft is rated to 25 knots. What should the remote PIC do?

Reduce the planned operating radius to stay near the launch point
Cancel the operation — actual conditions exceed the aircraft's rated wind limit (Correct answer)
Fly at reduced altitude where wind speeds are typically lower
Launch quickly and land before a stronger gust arrives

Correct answer: Cancel the operation — actual conditions exceed the aircraft's rated wind limit

When actual wind conditions exceed the aircraft's rated limit, operating would be unsafe and outside the manufacturer's approved flight envelope — the operation must be cancelled.

Question 39: What is the purpose of the isogonic lines (lines of equal magnetic variation) printed on a sectional chart?

To show terrain elevation contours
To indicate areas where compass deviation is extreme
To mark the boundaries of magnetic anomaly areas
To allow pilots to convert between true and magnetic headings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To allow pilots to convert between true and magnetic headings

Isogonic lines on sectional charts connect points of equal magnetic variation, enabling pilots (and drone operators) to convert true headings from the chart to magnetic headings for navigation.

Question 40: Which condition is most dangerous for drone operations involving potential ice accumulation?

Flying during midday summer heat
Flying through visible moisture when temperatures are near or below freezing (Correct answer)
Flying in temperatures above 60°F with low humidity
Flying in dry desert conditions

Correct answer: Flying through visible moisture when temperatures are near or below freezing

Flying through visible moisture such as clouds, rain, or fog when temperatures are near or below freezing creates structural icing risk on drone components.

Question 41: How does a temperature inversion affect low-altitude drone flights?

Always improves visibility below the inversion layer
Eliminates turbulence completely
Can trap pollutants and reduce visibility; also creates unusual wind patterns (Correct answer)
Increases effective battery range

Correct answer: Can trap pollutants and reduce visibility; also creates unusual wind patterns

A temperature inversion can trap pollutants, haze, and fog below the inversion layer reducing visibility, and creates unusual wind shear at the inversion boundary.

Question 42: What entry must the pilot doing the VOR functioning check make in the aircraft log or other permanent record?

The date, place, bearing error, and signature. (Correct answer)
The date, place, satisfactory or unsatisfactory, and signature.
The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.

Correct answer: The date, place, bearing error, and signature.

According to FAA regulations (14 CFR Part 91.171), after conducting a VOR operational check, the pilot must make a specific entry in the aircraft logbook or other permanent record. This entry must include the date of the check, the place where the check was performed, the bearing error observed (or a statement that it was satisfactory), and the pilot's signature. This documentation ensures compliance and provides a record of the VOR's serviceability.

Question 43: (Refer to Figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

All.
KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.
KINK, KBOI, and KLAX. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

VFR (Visual Flight Rules) weather conditions require a ceiling greater than 3,000 feet AGL and visibility greater than 5 statute miles. By interpreting the METARs: KINK, KBOI, and KLAX all report 10 statute miles visibility and ceilings well above 3,000 feet (BKN250 or higher). In contrast, KJFK reports 1 1/2 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet, which are IFR conditions.

Question 44: The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established. (Correct answer)
the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.

Correct answer: the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are not fixed at a specific radius but are individually tailored to contain the instrument procedures (such as instrument approaches and departures) for which the controlled airspace is established. This ensures that aircraft operating under instrument flight rules are within controlled airspace during critical phases of flight, providing a safe and efficient environment for instrument operations.

Question 45: During a night operation, a remote pilot loses visual contact with the sUAS. What is the correct action?

Attempt to regain visual contact by descending the aircraft
Activate the drone's return-to-home feature and wait (Correct answer)
Immediately terminate the flight by activating the kill switch
Notify ATC and continue monitoring anti-collision lights

Correct answer: Activate the drone's return-to-home feature and wait

If visual contact is lost, activating a return-to-home or other recovery feature is the safest first response to regain control.

Question 46: True course is

the speed of the aircraft through the air.
course referenced to true north. (Correct answer)
the direction the nose is pointed.

Correct answer: course referenced to true north.

True course is the intended path of an aircraft over the ground, measured in degrees clockwise from true north. It is a fundamental concept in navigation, representing the desired direction of travel without accounting for magnetic variation or wind effects. It is distinct from magnetic course, which accounts for variation, and heading, which accounts for wind.

Question 47: For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

2,000 feet.
1,000 feet.
1 mile. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 mile.

For VFR flight operations in controlled airspace above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is 1 statute mile. This is part of the more stringent VFR weather minimums at higher altitudes, which also include 5 statute miles visibility, 1,000 feet below, and 1,000 feet above clouds. These increased requirements account for higher airspeeds and reduced reaction times at these altitudes.

Question 48: 1. Student or Recreational pilot. 2. Private or Commercial pilot. 3. None of the above.

Neither 1 or 2.
2. (Correct answer)
1.

Correct answer: 2.

This question is incomplete, but based on the options, it likely refers to privileges or requirements that apply to pilots with higher certification levels. Private and Commercial pilots possess broader privileges, such as acting as pilot in command in more complex operations or for compensation, compared to Student or Recreational pilots who operate under significant restrictions. Therefore, 'Private or Commercial pilot' represents a higher level of certification with expanded capabilities.

Question 49: When is a Remote Pilot Certificate required?

When flying a drone commercially (Correct answer)
For hobby flying of drones.
Only for flights over people.
Only for drone flights at night.

Correct answer: When flying a drone commercially

A Remote Pilot Certificate, also known as a Part 107 license, is a mandatory requirement for anyone operating a drone for non-hobbyist or commercial purposes. This includes activities like aerial photography for real estate, inspections, or any service where compensation is received. Hobbyist flying, however, falls under different regulations and does not require this certificate.

Question 50: How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. (Correct answer)
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.

Correct answer: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

An Airworthiness Certificate, once issued, remains valid indefinitely, provided the aircraft continues to meet its type design and is in a condition for safe operation. This validity is contingent upon the aircraft being properly maintained, inspected, and operated in accordance with all applicable Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs). Failure to comply with these requirements can invalidate the certificate.

Question 51: What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

Nimbostratus clouds.
Cirrus clouds.
Towering cumulus clouds. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Towering cumulus clouds.

Convective turbulence is caused by vertical air currents resulting from uneven heating of the Earth's surface. Clouds with significant vertical development, such as towering cumulus clouds and cumulonimbus clouds, are strong indicators of active convection and therefore convective turbulence. These clouds are formed by rapidly rising warm air, which creates turbulent conditions within and around them.

Question 52: A commercial sUAS operation requires lifting a 2.2 lb sensor to 300 ft AGL in calm winds. Which specification is most critical to verify before flight?

That the drone's FPV camera is operational
That the operation takes place before noon local time
That the payload is within the drone's rated payload capacity and the total MTOW is under 55 lbs (Correct answer)
That the drone has a minimum of 8 motors

Correct answer: That the payload is within the drone's rated payload capacity and the total MTOW is under 55 lbs

Confirming payload is within rated capacity and total weight is under 55 lbs ensures both manufacturer safety and FAA Part 107 compliance.

Question 53: On an instrument approach, the term 'DA' refers to what?

Departure Allowance
Decision Altitude on a precision approach (Correct answer)
Density Altitude
Distance to airport

Correct answer: Decision Altitude on a precision approach

DA (Decision Altitude) is the altitude on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the runway environment is not in sight.

Question 54: What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

Continuous updraft. (Correct answer)
Frequent lightning.
Roll cloud.

Correct answer: Continuous updraft.

The cumulus stage is the initial phase of a thunderstorm, characterized primarily by strong, continuous updrafts. During this stage, warm, moist air rises, condenses, and builds the towering cumulus cloud. There is no precipitation or lightning yet, as the cloud is still growing vertically, sustained by these persistent upward air currents.

Question 55: What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude
Rate of roll and rate of turn (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rate of roll and rate of turn

The miniature aircraft on a turn coordinator indicates the rate of roll and the rate of turn. When the aircraft is rolling, it shows the rate at which the aircraft is entering or exiting a turn. Once established in a turn, it indicates the rate at which the aircraft is changing its heading, providing crucial information for coordinated turns.

Question 56: Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown. (Correct answer)
Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.
Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.

Correct answer: Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on 121.5 MHz. By monitoring this frequency before shutting down the engine, a pilot can listen for their own ELT signal. This proactive check ensures that the ELT has not been inadvertently activated during flight or landing, preventing false alarms.

Question 57: What is the significance of checking the center of gravity (CG) on a sUAS before flight?

CG affects only the aesthetics of flight, not safety
CG only matters for fixed-wing aircraft, not multirotors
An improperly balanced CG can cause unpredictable flight characteristics and reduce motor authority (Correct answer)
CG shifts only occur when carrying external payloads above 2 pounds

Correct answer: An improperly balanced CG can cause unpredictable flight characteristics and reduce motor authority

An off-center CG forces some motors to work harder to maintain level flight, reduces maneuverability, and can cause the aircraft to flip if one motor reaches its limit.

Question 58: (Refer to Figure 269, area C.) What cloud layers are forecast in central New York?

Sky clear, few at 11,000 feet MSL and clear above.
Scattered layer at 15,000 feet MSL.
Few at 11,000 feet MSL and scattered at 15,000 feet MSL. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Few at 11,000 feet MSL and scattered at 15,000 feet MSL.

To determine the forecast cloud layers in central New York (Area C) from the Area Forecast (FA) in Figure 269, you need to interpret the cloud group. The forecast indicates "FEW011 SCT015", which translates to a few clouds at 11,000 feet MSL and a scattered layer of clouds at 15,000 feet MSL. Area Forecasts provide cloud heights in Mean Sea Level (MSL) unless explicitly noted as AGL.

Question 59: A commercial drone operator needs to carry a 0.5 lb camera package. The drone battery weighs 0.4 lbs and the airframe weighs 2.8 lbs. What is the total system weight for FAA compliance purposes?

3.3 lbs
4.1 lbs
3.2 lbs
3.7 lbs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3.7 lbs

Total weight includes airframe + battery + payload: 2.8 + 0.4 + 0.5 = 3.7 lbs.

Question 60: (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure altitude.................Sea level Headwind..............................4 kts Temperature.............................Std

356 feet.
401 feet. (Correct answer)
490 feet.

Correct answer: 401 feet.

To determine the approximate landing ground roll distance using Figure 38, start at sea level pressure altitude. Standard temperature at sea level is 15°C (59°F), so move right to the 15°C line. From there, move up to the reference line, then right to the 4 knots headwind line. Finally, move down to the 'Ground Roll' scale, which indicates approximately 401 feet. This chart provides essential data for planning landings on hard surfaces under various conditions.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) Exam

The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot (UAS) exam certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially, ensuring safe and legal flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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