EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A medical alarm company called reporting that a client pressed their medical alert button and the client advised them they fell and are injured, choose the most correct chief complaint.

30 Traumatic Injuries
17 Falls (Correct answer)
26 Sick Person
32 Unknown Problem

Correct answer: 17 Falls

The most correct chief complaint in this scenario would be "17 Falls" because the client pressed their medical alert button after falling and reporting that they are injured. This indicates that the fall is the primary concern and reason for the medical alarm call.

Question 2: A caller describes a patient with chest pain who is conscious and breathing. Which EMD protocol key question helps differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac origin?

Does the patient have a history of asthma?
Did the pain begin during physical exertion or at rest? (Correct answer)
Is the pain sharp or dull?
Is the patient sweating or pale?

Correct answer: Did the pain begin during physical exertion or at rest?

Exertional onset is a classic indicator of ischemic cardiac chest pain, distinguishing it from musculoskeletal or pulmonary causes.

Question 3: Which element is NOT required to prove negligence against an EMD?

The dispatcher breached their duty
The breach caused damages
A duty to act existed
The dispatcher intended to cause harm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The dispatcher intended to cause harm

Negligence does not require intent; it only requires proof of duty, breach, causation, and damages — intent is an element of intentional torts, not negligence.

Question 4: What is the primary purpose of 'key questions' in the MPDS interrogation protocol?

To assess the dispatcher's communication skills
To determine the most appropriate response level and pre-arrival instructions (Correct answer)
To gather demographic information for billing
To document liability information

Correct answer: To determine the most appropriate response level and pre-arrival instructions

Key questions are protocol-specific queries designed to identify the correct determinant code, response level, and appropriate pre-arrival instructions.

Question 5: What does the term 'Dispatch Life Support' (DLS) refer to?

A software system used to track emergency vehicle locations
Pre-arrival instructions given by EMDs to help callers assist patients (Correct answer)
Medical oversight of paramedic training programs
Advanced life support performed by dispatchers at the scene

Correct answer: Pre-arrival instructions given by EMDs to help callers assist patients

Dispatch Life Support refers to the telephone-guided instructions an EMD provides to callers to help sustain life before EMS arrives.

Question 6: A caller states their spouse has been burned by boiling water on the chest and abdomen. The patient is awake and in severe pain. After dispatching the appropriate response, what is the MOST appropriate Post-Dispatch Instruction (PDI) for the EMD to provide?

Have the patient drink plenty of cold water immediately.
Apply butter or ointment to soothe the pain.
Apply ice packs directly to the burned area.
Cover the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cover the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet.

For significant thermal burns, the priority after stopping the burning process is to protect the patient from infection and hypothermia. Covering the burn with a clean, dry dressing or sheet achieves this. Applying ice, ointments, or butter is contraindicated and can worsen the injury.

Question 7: Which organization developed and is responsible for maintaining the Medical Priority Dispatch System?

The National EMS Management Association
The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED) (Correct answer)
FEMA
The American Heart Association

Correct answer: The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED)

The IAED (formerly Priority Dispatch Corp) created and continually updates the MPDS protocols based on evidence and field data.

Question 8: In MPDS, what is the purpose of asking 'Tell me exactly what happened'?

To determine whether to automatically upgrade the response level
To complete the patient's full medical history before dispatching units
To stall the caller until a supervisor becomes available
To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To identify the chief complaint so the correct protocol can be selected

This open-ended question elicits the chief complaint from the caller, which is essential for selecting the correct MPDS protocol.

Question 9: When a newborn does not breathe after delivery, what is the first instruction an EMD should give?

Start full adult CPR compressions immediately
Wrap the baby in warm blankets only
Lay the baby face-down on a firm surface
Stimulate by rubbing the back and clear the airway (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stimulate by rubbing the back and clear the airway

Stimulating the newborn and ensuring airway clearance are the initial steps before progressing to resuscitation measures.

Question 10: When the patient is also the caller (self-reporting), how should interrogation be modified?

Record only the patient's name and address and dispatch
Use simpler language and ask questions in a way that does not increase patient panic (Correct answer)
Immediately transfer to a medical supervisor
Skip the chief complaint question since the patient should know it

Correct answer: Use simpler language and ask questions in a way that does not increase patient panic

Self-reporting patients may be in pain, afraid, or medically compromised, so calm, simple questioning reduces further agitation while still gathering needed information.

Question 11: During the Case Entry protocol, which of the following is NOT one of the four mandatory questions an EMD must ask?

"Okay, tell me exactly what happened."
"What's the phone number you're calling from?"
"What is the patient's name?" (Correct answer)
"What's the address of the emergency?"

Correct answer: "What is the patient's name?"

The four mandatory Case Entry questions are: "What's the address of the emergency?", "What's the phone number you're calling from?", "Okay, tell me exactly what happened?", and determining the patient's age, sex, consciousness, and breathing status. The patient's name is not a required component of the initial Case Entry protocol.

Question 12: When a caller cannot confirm whether the patient is conscious and breathing, the dispatcher should initially assign which response level?

Hold until a second caller confirms
The highest possible level until information is confirmed (Correct answer)
Alpha until confirmed otherwise
The lowest applicable level

Correct answer: The highest possible level until information is confirmed

EMD protocol requires dispatching at the highest defensible priority when life-threatening status cannot be ruled out, then downgrading if warranted.

Question 13: Which scenario represents a potential abandonment claim against an EMD?

Disconnecting a call after the caller hangs up
Ending a call after confirming units are en route and caller is safe
Placing a caller on hold for 30 seconds during peak volume and never returning (Correct answer)
Transferring a caller to a nurse hotline after providing initial instructions

Correct answer: Placing a caller on hold for 30 seconds during peak volume and never returning

Abandonment occurs when an EMD ends or suspends care obligations without ensuring patient safety or an appropriate handoff, such as leaving a caller on indefinite hold.

Question 14: Which of the following best describes the primary function of an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD)?

Provide direct patient care at the scene
Obtain information, prioritize calls, and provide pre-arrival instructions (Correct answer)
Train paramedics in field procedures
Diagnose medical conditions over the phone

Correct answer: Obtain information, prioritize calls, and provide pre-arrival instructions

EMDs gather caller information, assign appropriate response priorities, and provide pre-arrival instructions to help patients until field units arrive.

Question 15: How is mindfulness applied as a stress management tool for EMD dispatchers?

A supervisory oversight technique for monitoring dispatcher performance
A memorization technique for learning more dispatch protocols
A practice of maintaining non-judgmental present-moment awareness to reduce stress (Correct answer)
A radio communication protocol used during high-stress calls

Correct answer: A practice of maintaining non-judgmental present-moment awareness to reduce stress

Mindfulness trains dispatchers to remain present and non-reactive, reducing the stress response during and between calls.

Question 16: What is the primary purpose of 'calibration sessions' among EMD QA reviewers?

To review annual budget allocations for dispatcher training programs
To practice call-taking skills using dispatch simulation software
To update the CAD system with newly released MPDS protocol codes
To ensure consistent and uniform scoring standards across all reviewers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure consistent and uniform scoring standards across all reviewers

Calibration aligns reviewers on how to score specific protocol situations, reducing inter-rater variability and ensuring fair, consistent evaluations.

Question 17: The 'Emergency Rule' in emergency medical dispatch allows for the suspension of certain DLS instructions under specific circumstances. However, this rule NEVER applies to which set of critical events?

Seizures, diabetic problems, and allergic reactions.
Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest, Choking, and Childbirth. (Correct answer)
Traffic collisions, assaults, and sick persons.
Falls, fractures, and minor bleeding.

Correct answer: Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest, Choking, and Childbirth.

The Emergency Rule may be enacted during situations of extreme over-capacity, such as a mass casualty incident, allowing an EMD to suspend certain PAIs or PDIs. However, protocols explicitly state that this rule does not apply to situations where life-saving instructions are necessary, which are defined as cardiac/respiratory arrest, choking, and childbirth. For these calls, the EMD must stay on the line and provide instructions.

Question 18: What is the purpose of the 'controlled pause' technique during an emotionally charged EMD interrogation?

To allow a brief silence that prompts the caller to fill in more detail (Correct answer)
To signal the caller that the dispatcher is busy
To give the dispatcher time to consult protocol cards
To record a timestamp in the CAD system

Correct answer: To allow a brief silence that prompts the caller to fill in more detail

A controlled pause uses natural conversational silence as a cue for callers to volunteer additional information they may not have thought to provide.

Question 19: An EMD is handling a call for a 9-year-old child who is choking on food. The caller states the child is awake, coughing forcefully, and able to whisper. Based on the MPDS Choking Protocol (Protocol 11), what is the most appropriate Pre-Arrival Instruction?

Immediately begin abdominal thrusts (the Heimlich maneuver).
Encourage the child to continue coughing. (Correct answer)
Perform five back blows between the shoulder blades.
Lay the child on their back and start chest compressions.

Correct answer: Encourage the child to continue coughing.

For a patient with a partial airway obstruction who is still able to move air effectively (indicated by forceful coughing and the ability to make noise), the recommended instruction is to encourage them to continue coughing to expel the object on their own. Interventions like the Heimlich maneuver are reserved for complete airway obstructions where the patient cannot cough, speak, or breathe.

Question 20: When instructing a caller on bleeding control for a severe extremity wound, what should the dispatcher direct first?

Apply a tourniquet two inches above the wound
Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available (Correct answer)
Elevate the limb and apply ice
Rinse the wound with water before covering it

Correct answer: Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available

Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for severe bleeding before considering tourniquet application.

Question 21: A caller reports a 45-year-old construction worker has fallen. Which piece of information is most critical for the EMD to obtain to accurately determine the potential for life-threatening injuries?

The time the fall occurred.
If the patient has any obvious broken bones.
The height from which the patient fell. (Correct answer)
Whether the patient was wearing a helmet.

Correct answer: The height from which the patient fell.

The height of a fall is a primary indicator of the mechanism of injury (MOI). Falls from a significant height (typically >10-20 feet for adults) are associated with a high risk of severe, life-threatening internal injuries, even if the patient is initially conscious. This information directly impacts the dispatch determinant and the level of response sent.

Question 22: A caller reports a patient bleeding heavily from a leg wound after a power tool injury. What pre-arrival instruction should the dispatcher prioritize first?

Tell the caller to apply a tourniquet only if the limb is severed
Ask the caller to locate the nearest AED
Advise the caller to elevate the patient's head and give fluids
Instruct the caller to apply firm, direct pressure to the wound immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Instruct the caller to apply firm, direct pressure to the wound immediately

Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for controlling external hemorrhage and is the priority pre-arrival instruction for bleeding emergencies.

Question 23: A caller reports her baby appears to be in a breech position during active labor. How should the EMD respond?

Dispatch at high priority immediately and provide pre-arrival instructions (Correct answer)
Reassure the caller that it will resolve on its own
Tell her to drive herself to the nearest hospital
Instruct the caller to encourage the mother to push harder

Correct answer: Dispatch at high priority immediately and provide pre-arrival instructions

Breech presentation is a serious obstetric emergency requiring immediate high-priority dispatch and pre-arrival instruction support.

Question 24: What percentage of total monthly calls is the commonly accepted minimum for case review in a quality EMD program?

25–30%
50% or more
Less than 1%
5–10% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5–10%

Most QA standards and NAED accreditation guidelines require reviewing at least 5% of calls monthly to detect performance trends.

Question 25: An EMD is providing CPR instructions to a caller for an adult patient in cardiac arrest. The caller is untrained and hesitant to perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations. What is the EMD's best course of action based on current DLS standards?

Insist that ventilations are essential and refuse to provide further instructions until the caller agrees.
Terminate the call and wait for responders to arrive on the scene.
Tell the caller to find a bystander who is willing to perform ventilations.
Instruct the caller to perform chest compressions only. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Instruct the caller to perform chest compressions only.

Current international consensus guidelines and recommendations support providing chest-compressions-only CPR instructions (CCOIs) when a bystander is untrained, unwilling, or unable to perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations. This approach simplifies instructions and encourages immediate intervention, which is critical for survival.

Question 26: During a DLS call for a suspected stroke, which instruction set should the dispatcher provide to the caller?

Apply cold compresses to the head and elevate legs
Keep the patient calm, do not give food or water, note symptom onset time (Correct answer)
Give the patient aspirin and have them lie down
Have the patient walk slowly to test balance

Correct answer: Keep the patient calm, do not give food or water, note symptom onset time

For stroke patients, dispatchers instruct callers to keep the patient calm, avoid oral intake, and note the exact time symptoms began — critical for treatment decisions.

Question 27: An EMD receives a call from a frantic person who screams, "My husband can't breathe! He's turning blue!" before the line goes silent. The system shows the address but no callback number. What is the EMD's most critical first action?

Wait for the caller to call back with more information.
Notify the supervisor of a disconnected call before taking further action.
Dispatch the highest level of care available based on the initial chief complaint. (Correct answer)
Dispatch a basic life support (BLS) unit and attempt to call back.

Correct answer: Dispatch the highest level of care available based on the initial chief complaint.

Given the critical nature of the chief complaint (not breathing, turning blue), the EMD must act immediately on the information available. The standard of care requires dispatching the appropriate resources without delay. Since the patient is described as not breathing, this warrants the highest priority response, often coded as an 'Echo' level event.

Question 28: The group whose mission is to support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation, we work together to build, sustain and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate hazards is known as:

FEMA (Correct answer)
CEMP
.NIMS
NORAD

Correct answer: FEMA

FEMA, the Federal Emergency Management Agency, is the primary U.S. government agency responsible for coordinating the nation's response to disasters and emergencies. Its comprehensive mission encompasses all phases of emergency management: preparedness, protection, response, recovery, and mitigation, aligning perfectly with the broad support described for citizens and first responders.

Question 29: A caller reports a patient crushed under a heavy machine for approximately 30 minutes. Rescuers are about to lift the machine. What hazard should the EMD warn responders about?

Immediate fracture of all long bones
Hypothermia from prolonged immobility
Crush syndrome causing cardiac arrhythmias upon release (Correct answer)
Air embolism from pressure release

Correct answer: Crush syndrome causing cardiac arrhythmias upon release

Releasing prolonged crush pressure can flood the bloodstream with myoglobin and potassium, causing life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 30: A caller reports a 3-year-old child is choking on a small toy. The child is conscious but not making any sounds and appears to be turning blue. According to Dispatch Life Support (DLS) protocols, which set of instructions is most appropriate for the EMD to provide?

Advise the caller to perform a blind finger sweep of the child's mouth.
Instructions for a combination of back blows and chest thrusts. (Correct answer)
Tell the caller to lay the child down and begin chest compressions immediately.
Instructions for adult abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver).

Correct answer: Instructions for a combination of back blows and chest thrusts.

For a conscious choking infant or small child, standard DLS protocols, reflecting guidelines from organizations like the American Red Cross, recommend a 'five-and-five' approach. This involves administering five firm back blows between the shoulder blades followed by five chest thrusts. Adult abdominal thrusts are not recommended for small children due to the risk of internal injury. Blind finger sweeps are dangerous as they can push the object further down the airway. Chest compressions are for patients who are unconscious and not breathing.

Question 31: A caller reports a 2-year-old who ingested household chemicals. After dispatch, what should the EMD do?

Tell the caller to induce vomiting immediately
Advise giving the child milk to dilute the chemical
Provide pre-arrival instructions per poisoning protocol, referencing Poison Control guidance (Correct answer)
Disconnect the call after confirming dispatch

Correct answer: Provide pre-arrival instructions per poisoning protocol, referencing Poison Control guidance

EMDs must follow poisoning protocols which include pre-arrival instructions and may incorporate Poison Control guidance; inducing vomiting is contraindicated for chemical ingestion.

Question 32: When providing telephone CPR instructions, the dispatcher should direct the caller to compress the adult chest at what rate?

100-120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
80-100 compressions per minute
60-80 compressions per minute
120-140 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

Current guidelines specify 100-120 chest compressions per minute for effective CPR in adults.

Question 33: A 52 yr male calls and reports that he is having a hard time breathing and has been vomiting , choose the most correct chief complaint type.

26 Sick Person
6 Breathing Problems (Correct answer)
11 Chocking
32 Unknown Problem

Correct answer: 6 Breathing Problems

The most correct chief complaint type in this scenario is "6 Breathing Problems." This is because the caller is experiencing difficulty breathing, which is a serious symptom that requires immediate attention. The fact that he is also vomiting further indicates that his breathing difficulties may be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, "6 Breathing Problems" is the most appropriate choice as the chief complaint type.

Question 34: What is the primary goal of a comprehensive Quality Assurance/Quality Improvement (QA/QI) program in an emergency dispatch center?

To discipline EMDs who fail to follow protocol through punitive measures.
To identify system-wide performance trends and create opportunities for training and process improvement. (Correct answer)
To document every call in detail solely for the purpose of legal protection in case of a lawsuit.
To decrease average call handling times to increase the number of calls one EMD can take per shift.

Correct answer: To identify system-wide performance trends and create opportunities for training and process improvement.

The fundamental purpose of a QA/QI program is not to be punitive, but to be educational and focused on systemic improvement. It involves analyzing performance data to find trends, identify areas for additional training, and enhance the overall system to ensure a consistent, high level of care.

Question 35: A caller reports a child found unresponsive in a pool. The EMD protocol for pediatric drowning-related cardiac arrest differs from adult protocol primarily in that:

Bystanders should wait for AED before starting CPR
Compressions are not recommended for children under 8
Rescue breaths should be given before compressions if the caller is trained (Correct answer)
The compression depth is 3 inches for all pediatric patients

Correct answer: Rescue breaths should be given before compressions if the caller is trained

Pediatric drowning cardiac arrest is typically asphyxial, so ventilation is critical; trained rescuers should deliver 2 rescue breaths before compressions when appropriate.

Question 36: Taking a deep breath or avoiding personalizing the situation is a way to manage stress during an "in progress" incident.

False
True (Correct answer)

Correct answer: True

Taking a deep breath or avoiding personalizing an 'in progress' incident are common and effective stress management techniques for Emergency Medical Dispatchers (EMDs). These actions help maintain composure, focus on the task at hand, and prevent emotional overload, which is crucial for providing clear and effective instructions during high-stress situations. Managing stress allows EMDs to remain professional and deliver critical assistance without being overwhelmed by the emotional intensity of the call.

Question 37: The EMD receives a call about a patient with 'difficulty breathing.' Which question is the FIRST Key Question in most EMD systems after confirming consciousness?

Is the patient speaking in full sentences? (Correct answer)
Is the patient's chest moving?
Does the patient have a known lung condition?
When did the breathing problem start?

Correct answer: Is the patient speaking in full sentences?

Whether the patient can speak in full sentences quickly determines the severity of respiratory compromise.

Question 38: What is a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) primarily designed to accomplish?

Review protocol compliance and scoring
Assign blame for a poor dispatch outcome
Provide legal documentation of the incident
Help responders process emotional reactions to traumatic events (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Help responders process emotional reactions to traumatic events

CISD is a structured group process designed to help emergency personnel process emotional and psychological reactions following traumatic incidents.

Question 39: In MPDS, a 'Delta' level determinant generally indicates what type of situation?

A serious, potentially life-threatening emergency typically requiring ALS (Correct answer)
A minor, non-urgent medical situation
A routine interfacility transfer
A low-acuity psychiatric call only

Correct answer: A serious, potentially life-threatening emergency typically requiring ALS

Delta determinants identify serious, potentially life-threatening emergencies that typically warrant an ALS response.

Question 40: A caller reports the baby was born inside the intact amniotic sac (en caul). What must the EMD instruct?

It is normal and not urgent
Carefully rupture the sac so the newborn can breathe (Correct answer)
Leave the sac intact until EMS arrives
Submerge the baby in lukewarm water

Correct answer: Carefully rupture the sac so the newborn can breathe

A baby born en caul cannot breathe through the intact amniotic sac; the EMD must instruct the caller to carefully rupture it immediately.

Question 41: A caller reports a 70-year-old woman who is confused, has a fever, and is not acting like herself. The MOST appropriate protocol is:

Stroke (CVA)
Fever
Sick Person (Correct answer)
Unconscious/Fainting

Correct answer: Sick Person

When no single dominant chief complaint emerges and the patient is conscious with general illness symptoms, the Sick Person protocol is most appropriate.

Question 42: In MPDS Protocol 11 (Choking), an adult patient who can speak in full sentences should be classified as:

Full cardiac arrest — begin CPR instructions
Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response (Correct answer)
Complete airway obstruction requiring immediate Heimlich maneuver instructions
Anaphylaxis — ask about allergen exposure

Correct answer: Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response

The ability to speak indicates partial obstruction with air movement; complete obstruction presents with inability to speak, cough, or breathe.

Question 43: During a call for an imminent childbirth, the caller, who is with the mother, exclaims that the baby's head is crowning. Which of the following is a critical instruction the EMD must provide from the scripted protocol?

Tell the mother to push as hard as she can to speed up the delivery.
Instruct the caller to support the baby's head and tell the mother to pant and take short, quick breaths. (Correct answer)
Advise the caller to find a sterile clamp to cut the umbilical cord immediately.
Instruct the caller to pull on the baby's shoulders as soon as they appear.

Correct answer: Instruct the caller to support the baby's head and tell the mother to pant and take short, quick breaths.

Childbirth protocols guide the EMD to provide specific, step-by-step instructions. A key instruction when the baby is crowning is to have the caller support the emerging head without pulling and to coach the mother to pant through the contraction rather than pushing forcefully. This helps prevent tearing and allows for a more controlled delivery. Pulling on the baby or rushing to cut the cord are dangerous and not part of DLS instructions.

Question 44: Which of the following is the most critical Pre-Arrival Instruction for a patient with an object impaled in their chest?

Do not remove the object; stabilize it in place. (Correct answer)
Carefully attempt to remove the object if it is small.
Periodically wiggle the object to check for bleeding.
Push the object further in to stop any bleeding.

Correct answer: Do not remove the object; stabilize it in place.

An impaled object may be acting as a plug to control internal bleeding. Removing it can cause catastrophic hemorrhage. The correct DLS instruction is to leave the object in place and stabilize it to prevent further movement and internal damage until responders arrive.

Question 45: Which of the following chief complaint protocols is designed specifically for callers who report a patient with no signs of life?

Unknown Problem protocol
Cardiac Arrest protocol (Correct answer)
Sick Person protocol
Unconscious/Fainting protocol

Correct answer: Cardiac Arrest protocol

The Cardiac Arrest protocol is initiated when the patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally.

Question 46: The primary goal of the initial caller interrogation questions in any EMD protocol is to:

Ascertain the incident location, a callback number, the chief complaint, and the patient's status. (Correct answer)
Obtain a definitive medical diagnosis of the patient's condition.
Determine the patient's insurance and billing information.
Calm the caller down before proceeding with any other questions.

Correct answer: Ascertain the incident location, a callback number, the chief complaint, and the patient's status.

The universally accepted first steps in EMD are to determine the location of the emergency, a valid callback number, the primary problem (chief complaint), the patient's age, and their consciousness and breathing status. This information is essential for dispatching resources and selecting the correct protocol.

Question 47: Which of the following is an example of a Dispatch Life Support (DLS) skill performed by an EMD?

Administering supplemental oxygen through the dispatch console
Conducting a physical examination via video call
Guiding a caller through an emergency childbirth delivery over the phone (Correct answer)
Remotely prescribing medications over the phone

Correct answer: Guiding a caller through an emergency childbirth delivery over the phone

DLS includes guiding callers through emergency childbirth, CPR, choking relief, and other life-saving interventions before EMS arrives.

Question 48: A caller states their pregnant wife is fully crowning and delivery is imminent. After guiding delivery of the head, the dispatcher should next instruct the caller to:

Turn the mother onto her back and stop her from pushing
Cut the umbilical cord immediately with scissors
Check if the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck (Correct answer)
Pull the baby firmly downward to deliver the shoulders

Correct answer: Check if the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck

After the head delivers, check for nuchal cord (cord around the neck) before proceeding with shoulder delivery.

Question 49: Which of the following best describes the principle of 'Duty to Act' as it applies to an Emergency Medical Dispatcher?

The responsibility to personally respond to the scene if no other units are available.
The obligation to continue providing services once a call for help is answered and a special relationship is established. (Correct answer)
The requirement to provide medical advice only when certified as a paramedic.
The option to refuse to dispatch resources if the caller is uncooperative or verbally abusive.

Correct answer: The obligation to continue providing services once a call for help is answered and a special relationship is established.

The 'Duty to Act' for an EMD begins the moment a 911 call is answered. This establishes a 'special relationship' with the caller, creating an obligation to render assistance by following established protocols, dispatching help, and providing instructions until the responsibility of care is transferred to responding personnel. Ignoring a call or failing to dispatch can lead to liability.

Question 50: A caller reports a drowning victim who has been pulled from a pool. The patient is unconscious and not breathing. What is the FIRST instruction the EMD should give?

Apply a cold compress to the patient's forehead
Lay the patient face down to drain water
Begin rescue breathing or CPR immediately (Correct answer)
Wait for EMS to arrive before touching the patient

Correct answer: Begin rescue breathing or CPR immediately

Drowning victims in cardiac or respiratory arrest require immediate CPR; time to first breath or compression is the strongest predictor of survival.

Question 51: A dispatcher sends the wrong resource level and the patient's condition worsens. Which element of negligence does this most directly establish?

Breach
Damages
Causation (Correct answer)
Duty

Correct answer: Causation

Causation links the dispatcher's breach of protocol to the patient's worsened condition, establishing that the breach directly caused harm.

Question 52: Which question during caller interrogation best helps distinguish a stroke from a hypoglycemic emergency?

Does the patient have a history of heart disease?
Has the patient had a recent head injury?
Is the patient taking blood pressure medication?
Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin? (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin?

Asking about recent food intake and insulin use helps identify hypoglycemia, which can mimic stroke symptoms and is rapidly reversible with glucose administration.

Question 53: During a telephone-assisted CPR call, the caller says the patient 'took a breath.' The EMD should instruct the caller to:

Switch to rescue breathing only for 2 minutes
Check for a pulse before deciding whether to continue
Stop compressions immediately and monitor the patient
Continue compressions unless the patient is fully conscious and breathing normally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continue compressions unless the patient is fully conscious and breathing normally

Agonal breathing is common in cardiac arrest and should not be mistaken for effective respiration; compressions continue until the patient is clearly responsive and breathing normally.

EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED)

The Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) certification exam, administered by the International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED), tests knowledge of medical priority dispatch protocols, caller interrogation techniques, and dispatch life support instructions.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

80%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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