CPR Certification Exam (AHA/Red Cross Equivalent) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the correct compression depth for an infant during CPR?
- About 1.5 inches (4 cm) (Correct answer)
- About 3 inches (8 cm)
- About 0.5 inch (1 cm)
- About 2 inches (5 cm)
Correct answer: About 1.5 inches (4 cm)
Infant compressions should be about 1.5 inches, roughly one-third the depth of the chest.
Question 2: For a patient in shock with multiple trauma and suspected internal hemorrhage, what is the most important first aid principle?
- Perform abdominal compressions to tamponade internal bleeding
- Elevate all four extremities simultaneously
- Aggressively administer fluids by mouth to replace lost blood volume
- Control any external bleeding, maintain airway, keep the patient warm, call 911, and ensure rapid transport to trauma care—you cannot control internal bleeding with first aid (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Control any external bleeding, maintain airway, keep the patient warm, call 911, and ensure rapid transport to trauma care—you cannot control internal bleeding with first aid
Internal bleeding cannot be controlled with first aid—rapid transport to surgical trauma care while managing airways and external wounds is the only effective approach.
Question 3: When deciding which treatments to prioritize in a situation involving multiple victims, the following order of consideration is used:
- Circulation, breathing, mental status.
- Circulation, mental status, breathing.
- Breathing, circulation, mental status. (Correct answer)
- Mental status, breathing, circulation.
Correct answer: Breathing, circulation, mental status.
When a newborn does not start breathing on its own, the initial step is to gently stimulate the infant to encourage respiration. This can be done by rubbing the infant's back or gently tapping their feet. Immediate CPR or rescue breathing is typically reserved for situations where stimulation fails and the infant remains unresponsive or apneic.
Question 4: What is the difference between a 'closed' and 'open' wound?
- Closed wounds always require surgery
- Only open wounds can cause infection
- Closed wounds have intact skin (contusions, hematomas); open wounds have broken skin (lacerations, abrasions, punctures, avulsions) (Correct answer)
- Closed wounds are deeper than open wounds
Correct answer: Closed wounds have intact skin (contusions, hematomas); open wounds have broken skin (lacerations, abrasions, punctures, avulsions)
Wound classification: closed wounds (intact skin with internal bleeding/damage) versus open wounds (skin integrity broken, higher infection risk).
Question 5: How are burn injuries classified by depth, and what characterizes each degree?
- Mild, Moderate, Severe, Critical based on patient pain level
- Thermal, Chemical, Electrical, Radiation based on causative agent
- First-degree (superficial, redness only), Second-degree (partial thickness, blisters), Third-degree (full thickness, white/charred, painless), Fourth-degree (charred to bone/muscle) (Correct answer)
- Grade 1 (surface), Grade 2 (deep), Grade 3 (all layers), Grade 4 (bone)
Correct answer: First-degree (superficial, redness only), Second-degree (partial thickness, blisters), Third-degree (full thickness, white/charred, painless), Fourth-degree (charred to bone/muscle)
Burns are classified by depth: first-degree (superficial), second-degree (partial thickness with blisters), third-degree (full thickness, painless), fourth-degree (extending to muscle/bone).
Question 6: What compression depth is recommended for a child (age 1 to puberty) during CPR?
- About 2 inches (5 cm) (Correct answer)
- About 4 inches (10 cm)
- About 0.5 inch (1 cm)
- About 1 inch (2.5 cm)
Correct answer: About 2 inches (5 cm)
Child compressions should be about 2 inches, or one-third the depth of the chest.
Question 7: Which technique is recommended for chest compressions on an infant when a single rescuer is present?
- Heel of one hand
- Two-finger technique on the lower half of the breastbone (Correct answer)
- Thumb on the upper sternum
- Both hands stacked
Correct answer: Two-finger technique on the lower half of the breastbone
A lone rescuer uses the two-finger technique just below the nipple line on the lower half of the breastbone.
Question 8: When should pediatric AED electrode pads or attenuation keys be used?
- Only for infants under 6 months old
- Pediatric pads are not necessary; adult pads can always be used
- For children aged 1-8 years (or under 25 kg) when available (Correct answer)
- For all patients under 18 years old
Correct answer: For children aged 1-8 years (or under 25 kg) when available
Pediatric pads or attenuation keys should be used for children under 8 years or under 25 kg when available, as they reduce delivered energy to safe levels.
Question 9: Why is full chest recoil important between compressions?
- It lets the heart refill with blood (Correct answer)
- It prevents rib fractures entirely
- It conserves the rescuer's energy
- It increases body temperature
Correct answer: It lets the heart refill with blood
Allowing complete recoil lets the heart refill so the next compression circulates more blood.
Question 10: What is the purpose of the NRP assessment mnemonic 'STABLE' in post-resuscitation stabilization?
- It describes the steps of chest compressions
- It is a post-resuscitation stabilization framework: Sugar, Temperature, Airway, Blood pressure, Lab work, Emotional support (Correct answer)
- It defines criteria for stopping resuscitation
- It guides tracheal intubation technique
Correct answer: It is a post-resuscitation stabilization framework: Sugar, Temperature, Airway, Blood pressure, Lab work, Emotional support
STABLE guides post-resuscitation stabilization: Sugar (glucose), Temperature, Airway, Blood pressure, Lab work, and Emotional support for families.
Question 11: What is buprenorphine, and how does it differ from methadone in treating opioid use disorder?
- Buprenorphine is stronger than methadone
- Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression that can be prescribed by office-based providers; methadone is a full agonist requiring dispensing at licensed clinics (Correct answer)
- Methadone is safer than buprenorphine for overdose risk
- They are identical treatments with no clinical differences
Correct answer: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression that can be prescribed by office-based providers; methadone is a full agonist requiring dispensing at licensed clinics
Buprenorphine's partial agonist ceiling effect makes it safer in overdose; it can be prescribed in office-based settings, improving accessibility compared to methadone clinics.
Question 12: Why is early coronary reperfusion important after cardiac arrest?
- To avoid CPR
- To restart breathing
- To restore heart function (Correct answer)
- To reduce chest pain
Correct answer: To restore heart function
Early coronary reperfusion, typically through procedures like angioplasty or stenting, is critical if the cardiac arrest was caused by a heart attack (coronary artery blockage). Restoring blood flow to the heart muscle as quickly as possible helps to limit myocardial damage, improve cardiac function, and prevent further life-threatening arrhythmias, thereby improving survival and recovery.
Question 13: You are a lone rescuer and you witness the sudden collapse of a 10-year-old child. You have confirmed the scene is safe, and the child is unresponsive and not breathing normally. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
- Give 5 rescue breaths before starting compressions.
- Perform 2 minutes of CPR before calling 911.
- Leave the child to find an AED.
- Immediately call 911 or your local emergency number. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Immediately call 911 or your local emergency number.
For a witnessed collapse in a child, it is presumed to be a cardiac event. Therefore, the priority is to activate the emergency response system (call 911) and get an AED as quickly as possible before starting CPR.
Question 14: What is the maximum recommended interval between CPR and defibrillation during resuscitation?
- No CPR is needed before shock
- 30 seconds
- 5 minutes of CPR always before shock
- 10 seconds—compressions should continue until the last possible moment before shock (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 10 seconds—compressions should continue until the last possible moment before shock
The hands-off period before shock should be ≤10 seconds; the compressor continues until the AED is charged and ready.
Question 15: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer performing CPR on a child or infant?
- 5:1
- 30:2 (Correct answer)
- 10:2
- 15:2
Correct answer: 30:2
A single rescuer uses 30 compressions to 2 breaths for children and infants, the same as for adults.
Question 16: What is the role of fentanyl test strips in opioid overdose prevention?
- They detect opioid use in urine samples
- They allow people who use drugs to test their substances for the presence of fentanyl before use, enabling them to avoid or take precautions with contaminated drugs (Correct answer)
- They are prescription devices used only by pharmacists
- They are used by police to test seized drugs for evidence
Correct answer: They allow people who use drugs to test their substances for the presence of fentanyl before use, enabling them to avoid or take precautions with contaminated drugs
Fentanyl test strips detect fentanyl contamination in illicit drugs, empowering people to make informed decisions and reduce overdose risk.
Question 17: Which of the following signs most clearly indicates a *severe* airway obstruction, as opposed to a mild one?
- Wheezing between coughs
- Loud, forceful coughing
- A high-pitched noise while inhaling (stridor) (Correct answer)
- Ability to speak with difficulty
Correct answer: A high-pitched noise while inhaling (stridor)
A high-pitched noise (stridor) or the complete inability to make sound indicates that very little or no air is passing through the airway. This is a sign of a severe obstruction requiring immediate intervention. The other options are signs of a mild obstruction, where the victim can still move some air and should be encouraged to keep coughing.
Question 18: Two rescuers are performing CPR on a 7-year-old child. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio they should use?
- 30 compressions to 2 breaths
- 30 compressions to 1 breath
- 15 compressions to 1 breath
- 15 compressions to 2 breaths (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 15 compressions to 2 breaths
When two rescuers are present for child CPR, the ratio changes to 15 compressions followed by 2 breaths to provide more frequent ventilations, which are critical in pediatric emergencies often caused by respiratory issues.
Question 19: What safety precaution must always be taken immediately before delivering an AED shock?
- Apply oxygen at high flow
- Verify the patient's identity and next of kin
- Ensure no one is touching the patient by loudly announcing 'Clear!' and visually confirming all are clear (Correct answer)
- Check the patient's blood pressure
Correct answer: Ensure no one is touching the patient by loudly announcing 'Clear!' and visually confirming all are clear
Before shock delivery, announce 'Clear!' and visually confirm no one is in contact with the patient to prevent accidental electrocution.
Question 20: What is the 'Evzio' auto-injector in the context of opioid overdose response?
- An FDA-approved naloxone auto-injector that provides voice instructions to guide lay users through administration (Correct answer)
- A newer opioid medication for pain management
- A naloxone tablet for oral administration
- An electronic monitoring device for opioid overdose detection
Correct answer: An FDA-approved naloxone auto-injector that provides voice instructions to guide lay users through administration
Evzio is an FDA-approved naloxone auto-injector designed for community use, providing step-by-step electronic voice instructions during administration.
Question 21: What is the purpose of the 'analyze' phase in AED operation?
- To deliver a test shock to determine proper pad placement
- To analyze the patient's heart rhythm and determine whether a shock is indicated (Correct answer)
- To calculate the patient's blood pressure and oxygen saturation
- To notify the emergency medical services automatically
Correct answer: To analyze the patient's heart rhythm and determine whether a shock is indicated
The analyze phase uses the AED's algorithm to evaluate the cardiac rhythm and determine whether defibrillation (shock) is indicated.
Question 22: What compression rate is recommended for child and infant CPR?
- 100 to 120 per minute (Correct answer)
- 40 to 60 per minute
- 140 to 160 per minute
- 60 to 80 per minute
Correct answer: 100 to 120 per minute
The recommended rate is 100 to 120 compressions per minute for all ages.
Question 23: What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR in the BLS for Healthcare Providers guidelines?
- 60-80 compressions per minute
- 80-100 compressions per minute
- 100-120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
- 120-140 compressions per minute
Correct answer: 100-120 compressions per minute
The AHA recommends 100-120 compressions per minute for adult CPR to optimize cardiac output and perfusion pressure.
Question 24: What is the preferred two-rescuer compression technique for an infant?
- Two-finger technique
- One-hand heel technique
- Two thumb-encircling hands technique (Correct answer)
- Two stacked hands
Correct answer: Two thumb-encircling hands technique
The two thumb-encircling hands technique is preferred for infants when two rescuers are present because it produces better blood flow.
Question 25: What degree of burn affects only the outer layer of skin, causing redness and pain but no blisters?
- Fourth-degree burn
- First-degree (superficial) burn (Correct answer)
- Third-degree burn
- Second-degree burn
Correct answer: First-degree (superficial) burn
A first-degree burn affects only the epidermis, causing redness and pain without blistering.
Question 26: What is the mechanism of synthetic opioids like fentanyl causing 'wooden chest syndrome,' and how does it affect resuscitation?
- Fentanyl deposits in chest muscles making them stiff
- Rapid high-dose fentanyl administration causes rigidity of the chest and abdominal muscles via CNS mechanisms, making ventilation extremely difficult (Correct answer)
- Fentanyl causes the sternum to fuse to the ribs
- Wooden chest is caused by fentanyl allergy
Correct answer: Rapid high-dose fentanyl administration causes rigidity of the chest and abdominal muscles via CNS mechanisms, making ventilation extremely difficult
Fentanyl at high doses causes centrally-mediated muscle rigidity affecting the chest wall and abdomen, making bag-mask ventilation extremely difficult.
CPR Certification Exam (AHA/Red Cross Equivalent)
This exam certifies individuals in Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation techniques, enabling them to respond to cardiac and breathing emergencies.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- redcross.org — Score validity, renewal, test delivery, passing score · verified Oct 2026
- elearning.heart.org — Fees, score validity, passing score · verified Oct 2026
- shopcpr.heart.org — Test delivery · verified Oct 2026