AAT Level 2 Foundation Certificate in Accounting — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Negligence in law requires the claimant to prove:
- That a written contract existed between the parties
- That the defendant owed a duty of care, breached that duty, and the breach caused foreseeable loss or damage (Correct answer)
- Only that they suffered a loss
- That the defendant intended to cause harm
Correct answer: That the defendant owed a duty of care, breached that duty, and the breach caused foreseeable loss or damage
To succeed in a negligence claim, the claimant must prove three elements: (1) the defendant owed them a duty of care, (2) the defendant breached that duty by falling below the required standard, and (3) the breach caused foreseeable harm or loss to the claimant.
Question 2: Segregation of duties means:
- Different stages of a transaction or process are handled by different people to reduce the risk of fraud or error (Correct answer)
- Only managers can access the accounting software
- All finance tasks are performed by one person for efficiency
- Employees work in separate offices
Correct answer: Different stages of a transaction or process are handled by different people to reduce the risk of fraud or error
Segregation of duties is a key internal control. By ensuring no single person controls all stages of a transaction (e.g., ordering, receiving, and paying for goods), the risk of fraud and error is significantly reduced because it would require collusion.
Question 3: A variable cost is one that:
- Is always a direct cost
- Stays the same in total regardless of output
- Changes in total in direct proportion to the level of activity (Correct answer)
- Changes per unit as output changes
Correct answer: Changes in total in direct proportion to the level of activity
Variable costs change in total in direct proportion to the level of output or activity. If production doubles, total variable costs double. However, the variable cost per unit remains constant. Examples include raw materials and direct labour paid per unit.
Question 4: Vicarious liability means:
- A person is liable for their own negligence only
- Only directors can be held liable for company actions
- An employer can be held liable for wrongful acts committed by employees in the course of their employment (Correct answer)
- A company is never liable for its employees' actions
Correct answer: An employer can be held liable for wrongful acts committed by employees in the course of their employment
Under the principle of vicarious liability, an employer can be held legally responsible for the wrongful acts (torts) of employees committed during the course of their employment. This includes negligence and other wrongful acts carried out while performing job duties.
Question 5: Which of the following documents would a new employee in a finance team be expected to read and understand?
- The personal tax returns of all directors
- The company's policies on data protection, anti-money laundering, and health and safety (Correct answer)
- The company's marketing plan
- The minutes of every board meeting since the company was formed
Correct answer: The company's policies on data protection, anti-money laundering, and health and safety
New finance employees should familiarise themselves with key policies including data protection (handling of personal data), anti-money laundering procedures (recognising and reporting suspicious activities), health and safety, and the organisation's code of conduct.
Question 6: Goods costing £200 taken by the owner for personal use should be recorded as:
- Debit Drawings £200, Credit Purchases £200 (Correct answer)
- Debit Purchases £200, Credit Drawings £200
- Debit Drawings £200, Credit Sales £200
- Debit Sales £200, Credit Drawings £200
Correct answer: Debit Drawings £200, Credit Purchases £200
When the owner takes goods for personal use, it is treated as drawings. Purchases are reduced (credited) because the goods are no longer business stock, and drawings are increased (debited) to reflect the owner's withdrawal.
Question 7: Which of the following is the correct treatment of a dishonoured cheque from a customer in the cash book?
- Credit the cash book (bank column) (Correct answer)
- No entry in the cash book
- Debit the cash book (discount column)
- Debit the cash book (bank column)
Correct answer: Credit the cash book (bank column)
When a cheque is dishonoured, the bank reverses the receipt. In the cash book, the bank column is credited to reduce the balance (the money did not actually clear). The trade receivable is reinstated by debiting the customer's account.
Question 8: If a business produces 20,000 units and sells 18,000 units using absorption costing, the closing inventory will include:
- Only variable production costs
- No costs — unsold units have no cost
- Variable and fixed production costs for 2,000 unsold units (Correct answer)
- Only selling and distribution costs
Correct answer: Variable and fixed production costs for 2,000 unsold units
Under absorption costing, both variable and fixed production costs are included in the cost per unit. The 2,000 unsold units in closing inventory carry their full production cost (variable + an absorbed share of fixed costs).
Question 9: Materials, labour, and overheads are classified according to:
- The department that authorised them
- Their element or nature (Correct answer)
- Their behaviour only
- Their function only
Correct answer: Their element or nature
Classifying costs as materials, labour, and overheads is classification by element (or nature). This describes what the cost is. Costs can also be classified by function (production, admin, selling) or behaviour (fixed, variable).
Question 10: When processing a petty cash payment in accounting software, the entry is made through:
- The journal module only
- The purchase invoices module
- The sales module
- The bank payments module using the petty cash bank account (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The bank payments module using the petty cash bank account
Petty cash is treated as a separate bank account in accounting software. Payments from petty cash are processed through the bank payments function, selecting the petty cash account as the bank account and the appropriate expense nominal code.
Question 11: A bookkeeper discovers their employer has been paying cash wages 'off the books' to avoid National Insurance contributions. What is the most appropriate first step?
- Raise the concern internally with a senior manager or director (Correct answer)
- Report immediately to HMRC
- Resign immediately
- Ignore it as it is not directly their responsibility
Correct answer: Raise the concern internally with a senior manager or director
AAT guidance recommends raising concerns internally first before escalating to external authorities, unless internal routes are compromised.
Question 12: A business purchases goods on credit for £2,400 plus VAT at 20%. What is the correct double entry to record this transaction?
- Debit Purchases £2,400, Debit VAT £480, Credit Trade Payables £2,880 (Correct answer)
- Debit Purchases £2,400, Credit Trade Payables £2,400
- Debit Purchases £2,880, Credit Trade Payables £2,880
- Debit Trade Payables £2,880, Credit Purchases £2,400, Credit VAT £480
Correct answer: Debit Purchases £2,400, Debit VAT £480, Credit Trade Payables £2,880
Under UK VAT rules, the purchase is recorded net of VAT in the purchases account (£2,400), VAT is debited to the VAT control account (£480), and the full amount including VAT (£2,880) is credited to trade payables.
Question 13: A recurring transaction in accounting software is used for:
- Year-end adjustments only
- Correcting errors in the ledger
- One-off unusual transactions
- Transactions that occur regularly at set intervals, such as monthly rent (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Transactions that occur regularly at set intervals, such as monthly rent
Recurring transactions automate the entry of regular, repeated transactions such as monthly rent, standing orders, or subscription payments. The software posts the transaction automatically at the set frequency, saving time and reducing errors.
Question 14: The Sale of Goods Act 1979 (as amended) implies terms that goods sold in the course of business must be:
- Of satisfactory quality and fit for purpose (Correct answer)
- Manufactured within the last year
- Available for immediate delivery
- Free of charge
Correct answer: Of satisfactory quality and fit for purpose
The Sale of Goods Act 1979 implies terms into contracts for the sale of goods in the course of business. Key implied terms include that goods must be of satisfactory quality (s.14(2)), fit for purpose (s.14(3)), and match their description (s.13). For consumer sales, these are now largely covered by the Consumer Rights Act 2015.
Question 15: The principle of integrity in accounting ethics means:
- Being straightforward and honest in all professional and business relationships (Correct answer)
- Charging the highest possible fees
- Following instructions without question
- Always agreeing with your manager
Correct answer: Being straightforward and honest in all professional and business relationships
Integrity requires finance professionals to be honest, truthful, and straightforward in all professional dealings. This includes not being associated with misleading information and not allowing bias or conflicts of interest to influence professional judgement.
Question 16: The purpose of an internal control system is to:
- Safeguard assets, ensure accuracy of records, promote operational efficiency, and encourage compliance with policies (Correct answer)
- Replace the need for external auditors
- Ensure all profits are maximised regardless of ethics
- Prevent employees from taking annual leave
Correct answer: Safeguard assets, ensure accuracy of records, promote operational efficiency, and encourage compliance with policies
Internal controls are policies and procedures designed to protect business assets, maintain reliable accounting records, promote efficiency, and ensure compliance with laws and management policies. Examples include segregation of duties, authorisation limits, and physical controls.
Question 17: A suspense account is used to:
- Store petty cash transactions
- Record prepayments and accruals
- Record owner's drawings
- Temporarily hold the difference when the trial balance does not balance, until the errors are found and corrected (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Temporarily hold the difference when the trial balance does not balance, until the errors are found and corrected
When the trial balance does not balance, a suspense account is opened for the difference. This allows the financial statements to be prepared while errors are investigated. Once errors are found and corrected, the suspense account balance should be cleared to zero.
Question 18: Contribution per unit is calculated as:
- Total revenue minus total fixed costs
- Profit per unit plus fixed costs per unit
- Selling price per unit minus variable cost per unit (Correct answer)
- Selling price per unit minus total cost per unit
Correct answer: Selling price per unit minus variable cost per unit
Contribution per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit. It represents the amount each unit contributes towards covering fixed costs and then generating profit.
Question 19: What is the correct VAT fraction used to extract VAT from a VAT-inclusive amount at the standard rate of 20%?
- 20/100
- 1/6 (Correct answer)
- 1/4
- 1/5
Correct answer: 1/6
When VAT at 20% is included in a price, the VAT fraction is 20/120 which simplifies to 1/6. For example, if the VAT-inclusive price is £120, the VAT element is £120 × 1/6 = £20.
Question 20: Professional scepticism in accounting means:
- Being sceptical about the value of the accounting profession
- Refusing to believe anything anyone says
- Having a questioning mind and being alert to conditions that may indicate misstatement or error (Correct answer)
- Only questioning transactions over a certain value
Correct answer: Having a questioning mind and being alert to conditions that may indicate misstatement or error
Professional scepticism involves maintaining a questioning approach, being alert to inconsistencies, and critically assessing evidence. It does not mean being suspicious of everything, but rather being appropriately cautious and thorough in professional work.
Question 21: A debit entry on the VAT control account represents:
- A payment received from a customer including VAT
- Input VAT on purchases that can be reclaimed from HMRC (Correct answer)
- VAT owed to HMRC
- Output VAT charged on sales
Correct answer: Input VAT on purchases that can be reclaimed from HMRC
Input VAT (VAT paid on purchases) is recorded as a debit on the VAT control account because it is reclaimable from HMRC. Output VAT (charged on sales) is a credit. The balance shows the net amount due to or from HMRC.
Question 22: A payment of £340 for office expenses was debited to the office equipment account. This error is corrected by:
- Debit Suspense £340, Credit Office Equipment £340
- Debit Office Equipment £680, Credit Office Expenses £680
- Debit Office Expenses £340, Credit Office Equipment £340 (Correct answer)
- Debit Office Equipment £340, Credit Office Expenses £340
Correct answer: Debit Office Expenses £340, Credit Office Equipment £340
The expense was wrongly debited to an asset account (error of principle). To correct it, debit Office Expenses (where it should have gone) and credit Office Equipment (to remove the incorrect entry).
Question 23: An AAT member is offered free sports tickets by a supplier hoping to win a contract. Accepting the tickets would most likely threaten which fundamental principle?
- Confidentiality
- Professional behaviour
- Objectivity (Correct answer)
- Professional competence and due care
Correct answer: Objectivity
Gifts from suppliers create a self-interest threat to objectivity by potentially influencing the member's professional judgement.
Question 24: A business sells a product for £50. Variable costs are £30 per unit and total fixed costs are £100,000. How many units must be sold to break even?
- 2,000 units
- 10,000 units
- 3,333 units
- 5,000 units (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5,000 units
Contribution per unit = £50 - £30 = £20. Break-even point = Fixed costs / Contribution per unit = £100,000 / £20 = 5,000 units. At 5,000 units, total contribution exactly covers fixed costs, producing zero profit.
Question 25: The petty cash book had an opening imprest of £200. During the week, vouchers totalling £163.50 were recorded, and the cash remaining was £34.00. What action should be taken?
- Restore the imprest with £166.00
- Restore the imprest with £163.50 and investigate the £2.50 shortage (Correct answer)
- Restore the imprest with £163.50 only — the shortage is immaterial
- No action needed — the amounts are close enough
Correct answer: Restore the imprest with £163.50 and investigate the £2.50 shortage
Expected cash remaining: £200 - £163.50 = £36.50, but only £34 is in the box — a shortage of £2.50. The imprest should be restored with £166 (£200 - £34) to bring it back to £200, and the £2.50 discrepancy must be investigated.
Question 26: An error of commission occurs when:
- A transaction is posted to the wrong type of account entirely
- A transaction is posted to the correct type of account but the wrong specific account (Correct answer)
- A transaction is recorded at the wrong amount
- A transaction is completely left out of the books
Correct answer: A transaction is posted to the correct type of account but the wrong specific account
An error of commission occurs when a transaction is posted to the wrong account, but it is the right type of account. For example, posting a payment to Supplier A's account instead of Supplier B's account. The trial balance still balances.
Question 27: Overtime premium paid to production workers is usually treated as:
- A production overhead (indirect cost) (Correct answer)
- An administrative overhead
- A direct labour cost
- A selling expense
Correct answer: A production overhead (indirect cost)
The basic rate element of overtime is treated as direct labour, but the overtime premium (the extra amount above the basic rate) is usually classified as a production overhead. This is because the overtime may be due to general demand rather than a specific job.
Question 28: A direct debit appearing on the bank statement but not in the cash book is an example of:
- An item requiring adjustment to the cash book (Correct answer)
- An outstanding lodgement
- An unpresented cheque
- A bank error
Correct answer: An item requiring adjustment to the cash book
Direct debits are set up with the bank and appear on the statement when paid. If they have not been recorded in the cash book, the cash book needs to be updated. This is a cash book adjustment, not a timing difference.
Question 29: What does the term 'footing' mean in bookkeeping?
- Adding up a column of figures (Correct answer)
- Transferring totals from day books to ledger accounts
- Checking the bank statement against the cash book
- Entering a transaction in the wrong account
Correct answer: Adding up a column of figures
Footing means totalling a column of figures in an account or day book. It is a basic bookkeeping procedure to ensure columns are correctly added up before posting.
Question 30: A guarantee in the context of a company limited by guarantee means:
- The directors guarantee to repay all company debts personally
- The company guarantees all its products
- Each member guarantees to contribute a specified amount (usually £1) towards the company's debts if it is wound up (Correct answer)
- The government guarantees the company will not fail
Correct answer: Each member guarantees to contribute a specified amount (usually £1) towards the company's debts if it is wound up
In a company limited by guarantee (common for charities and not-for-profit organisations), members guarantee to pay a specified amount (typically £1) if the company is wound up. There is no share capital. Members' liability is limited to their guarantee amount.
Question 31: When is it acceptable for an AAT member to disclose confidential client information without the client's consent?
- When the member believes it would benefit the client
- When the information is more than five years old
- When a business contact asks for it informally
- When required to do so by law, such as in response to a court order (Correct answer)
Correct answer: When required to do so by law, such as in response to a court order
Confidential information can be disclosed without consent when there is a legal or regulatory duty to do so, such as a court order or statutory requirement.
Question 32: An overhead absorption rate (OAR) based on machine hours is most appropriate when:
- All products use the same amount of machine time
- The business only has one department
- Production is predominantly labour-intensive
- Production is predominantly machine-intensive (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Production is predominantly machine-intensive
A machine hour OAR is most suitable when production is machine-intensive because machine time is the main driver of overhead costs. Using machine hours as the basis fairly allocates overheads to products based on the resource that causes them.
Question 33: When setting up a new nominal account in accounting software, you must specify:
- The expected closing balance
- Only the opening balance
- The account name, nominal code, and account type (e.g., income, expense, asset, liability) (Correct answer)
- Only the account name
Correct answer: The account name, nominal code, and account type (e.g., income, expense, asset, liability)
Creating a new nominal account requires a unique code, a descriptive name, and classification of the account type (asset, liability, income, expense, etc.). This determines where it appears in the financial statements and how it is treated in reports.
Question 34: The opening balance on the suspense account is £500 debit. Investigation reveals a receipt of £500 from a customer was credited to the bank account but no other entry was made. The correcting journal entry is:
- Debit Bank £500, Credit Suspense £500
- Debit Trade Receivables £500, Credit Suspense £500
- Debit Suspense £500, Credit Trade Receivables £500 (Correct answer)
- Debit Suspense £500, Credit Bank £500
Correct answer: Debit Suspense £500, Credit Trade Receivables £500
The bank account was credited (incorrect — it should have been debited for a receipt) and no debit entry was made. However, the suspense account already has a £500 debit from the trial balance. To correct: Credit Trade Receivables £500 (the missing entry) and the suspense account debit is cleared.
Question 35: What is the purpose of a sales day book?
- To record bank transactions
- To record all credit sales from sales invoices (Correct answer)
- To record all purchase returns
- To record cash sales only
Correct answer: To record all credit sales from sales invoices
The sales day book (also called the sales journal) is a book of prime entry used to record credit sales invoices. Cash sales are recorded separately in the cash book.
Question 36: Health and safety in a finance office environment includes:
- Ensuring workstations are properly set up, taking regular breaks from screens, and reporting hazards (Correct answer)
- Health and safety does not apply to office environments
- Only the office manager is responsible for safety
- Only wearing safety goggles when using a calculator
Correct answer: Ensuring workstations are properly set up, taking regular breaks from screens, and reporting hazards
Under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 and Display Screen Equipment regulations, office workers should have properly set up workstations, take regular screen breaks, report hazards, and follow fire safety procedures. All employees share responsibility for safety.
Question 37: Overheads are also known as:
- Prime costs
- Variable costs
- Direct costs
- Indirect costs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Indirect costs
Overheads are indirect costs that cannot be directly attributed to specific units of production. They include production overheads (factory costs), administrative overheads, and selling and distribution overheads.
Question 38: The Partnership Act 1890 provides that, in the absence of a partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared:
- In proportion to each partner's capital contribution
- According to the hours each partner works
- Only profits are shared — losses are borne by the senior partner
- Equally between all partners (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Equally between all partners
Under the Partnership Act 1890, if there is no written partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared equally between partners regardless of the amount of capital each partner has contributed or the work each partner does.
Question 39: Payment terms of '30 days net' on a supplier account means:
- A 30% discount is available
- Payment must be made in 30 equal instalments
- The full invoice amount is due within 30 days of the invoice date (Correct answer)
- The supplier will deliver within 30 days
Correct answer: The full invoice amount is due within 30 days of the invoice date
Payment terms of '30 days net' mean the full amount of the invoice is due for payment within 30 days from the date of the invoice. No discount is offered — the net (full) amount must be paid by the due date.
Question 40: Which of the following would constitute the criminal offence of 'tipping off' in relation to money laundering?
- Disclosing to a client that a Suspicious Activity Report has been filed about them, in a way that could prejudice a money laundering investigation (Correct answer)
- Sharing information about a client's late payments with a credit agency
- Telling a colleague about a client's accounting errors
- Reporting a colleague's misconduct to a line manager
Correct answer: Disclosing to a client that a Suspicious Activity Report has been filed about them, in a way that could prejudice a money laundering investigation
Tipping off is a criminal offence that involves disclosing to a person under investigation that a SAR has been submitted, as this could prejudice the investigation.
Question 41: The finance function contributes to business decision-making by:
- Deciding which products the business should sell
- Approving all marketing campaigns
- Providing accurate, timely financial information and analysis to support management in making informed decisions (Correct answer)
- Making all business decisions independently
Correct answer: Providing accurate, timely financial information and analysis to support management in making informed decisions
The finance function provides crucial financial data, analysis, and reports (budgets, forecasts, variance analysis, costings) that management uses to make informed business decisions. Finance advises and informs but typically does not make strategic decisions alone.
Question 42: An unpresented cheque is one that has been:
- Returned as dishonoured
- Written by the business but not yet cleared through the bank (Correct answer)
- Cancelled by the bank
- Received by the business but not yet paid into the bank
Correct answer: Written by the business but not yet cleared through the bank
An unpresented cheque has been written and sent by the business (so it appears in the cash book) but has not yet been presented to and cleared by the bank (so it does not yet appear on the bank statement).
Question 43: When closing the financial year in accounting software, the system typically:
- Deletes all transactions from the previous year
- Transfers the profit or loss to retained earnings and carries forward the statement of financial position balances (Correct answer)
- Requires all transactions to be re-entered
- Stops working until a new licence is purchased
Correct answer: Transfers the profit or loss to retained earnings and carries forward the statement of financial position balances
Year-end closure transfers the net profit or loss to the retained earnings (capital) account and carries forward all statement of financial position balances as opening balances for the new year. Income and expense accounts are reset to zero.
Question 44: What is the AAT's recommended approach when a member faces an ethical dilemma that cannot be resolved internally?
- Seek guidance from the AAT's ethics advice service or another professional body (Correct answer)
- Comply with the employer's instructions to avoid conflict
- Ignore the dilemma if no one else has noticed it
- Resign from the job immediately
Correct answer: Seek guidance from the AAT's ethics advice service or another professional body
When internal resolution fails, AAT members are encouraged to seek independent guidance from the AAT ethics helpline or relevant professional bodies.
Question 45: A trial balance is prepared to:
- List all the transactions for the period
- Prepare the VAT return
- Check that the total debits equal total credits as an initial check on the accuracy of the double entry (Correct answer)
- Calculate the profit of the business
Correct answer: Check that the total debits equal total credits as an initial check on the accuracy of the double entry
The trial balance lists all ledger account balances to verify that total debits equal total credits. While it does not guarantee all entries are correct (some errors are not detected), it is a fundamental accuracy check.
Question 46: An audit trail in accounting software:
- Is used to calculate depreciation
- Provides a chronological record of all transactions entered, showing who entered them and when (Correct answer)
- Is only available in manual accounting systems
- Is the same as the trial balance
Correct answer: Provides a chronological record of all transactions entered, showing who entered them and when
The audit trail is a sequential, chronological record of every transaction processed in the accounting software. It shows the date, user, transaction type, accounts affected, and amounts, providing a complete record for audit and investigation purposes.
Question 47: A purchase ledger control account reconciliation revealed that a contra entry of £250 was recorded in the purchase ledger control account but not in the individual supplier account. To correct this, the entry required is:
- Debit the purchase ledger control account with £250
- No entry is needed in the control account
- Debit the supplier's account with £250 (Correct answer)
- Credit the supplier's account with £250
Correct answer: Debit the supplier's account with £250
A contra entry reduces the balance owed to a supplier (debit in the control account). Since it was recorded in the control account but not the individual supplier account, the supplier's account needs to be debited with £250 to match.
Question 48: When setting up a new supplier in accounting software, which of the following details is essential?
- The supplier's name, address, and default nominal code for purchases (Correct answer)
- The supplier's favourite colour
- Only the supplier's phone number
- The supplier's annual turnover
Correct answer: The supplier's name, address, and default nominal code for purchases
Essential supplier setup information includes the business name, address, contact details, payment terms, default nominal code (to categorise purchases), and VAT registration status. This ensures transactions are recorded correctly and the supplier can be paid.
Question 49: An email integration feature in accounting software allows you to:
- Access your personal email inbox
- Email invoices, statements, and reports directly to customers and suppliers from within the software (Correct answer)
- Send confidential payroll information to employees
- Send automated marketing emails to all contacts
Correct answer: Email invoices, statements, and reports directly to customers and suppliers from within the software
Email integration enables the software to send documents such as sales invoices, customer statements, credit notes, and reports directly to customers and suppliers via email. This speeds up communication and reduces printing and postage costs.
Question 50: A business has total costs of £120,000 at 15,000 units and £90,000 at 10,000 units. Using the high-low method, what are the total fixed costs?
- £45,000
- £60,000
- £90,000
- £30,000 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: £30,000
Variable cost per unit = (£120,000 - £90,000) / (15,000 - 10,000) = £30,000 / 5,000 = £6. Total fixed costs = Total cost - Variable costs at any level = £90,000 - (10,000 × £6) = £90,000 - £60,000 = £30,000.
Question 51: The Equality Act 2010 is relevant to the finance function because it:
- Relates only to customer-facing roles
- Prohibits discrimination in the workplace based on protected characteristics such as age, gender, race, and disability (Correct answer)
- Only applies to businesses with more than 250 employees
- Requires all employees to be paid the same salary
Correct answer: Prohibits discrimination in the workplace based on protected characteristics such as age, gender, race, and disability
The Equality Act 2010 protects employees and job applicants from discrimination based on protected characteristics including age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage, pregnancy, race, religion, sex, and sexual orientation. The finance function must ensure compliance in its practices.
AAT Level 2 Foundation Certificate in Accounting
The AAT Level 2 Foundation Certificate in Accounting is awarded by the Association of Accounting Technicians (AAT) and provides an introduction to core accounting and finance skills. The qualification covers bookkeeping transactions, bookkeeping controls, elements of costing, accounting software, working effectively in finance, and business and company law. All units are assessed through computer-based exams. It is widely recognised as an entry-level qualification for accounting careers in the UK.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- aat.org.uk — Eligibility, fees, passing score, score release · verified Sep 2026