ENT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ENT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient leaves the hospital against medical advice after a peritonsillar abscess drainage. What should the documentation include? → Patient capacity, risks explained, alternatives offered, and follow-up instructions
2. An organization accredited to jointly provide CME for physicians, nurses, and pharmacists most likely holds which accreditation? → Joint Accreditation for Interprofessional Continuing Education
3. What is the foundational principle of continuing education requirements in the Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Certification field? → Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders
4. Which CPT modifier indicates a procedure was performed bilaterally, such as bilateral myringotomy with tubes? → -50
5. Around which structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop? → Aortic arch at the ligamentum arteriosum
6. Where does the nasolacrimal duct open into the nasal cavity? → Inferior meatus
7. Which organization accredits providers that award AMA PRA Category 1 Credit for otolaryngology CME activities? → ACCME
8. What is the mainstay of treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis? → Repeated surgical debulking with preservation of normal tissue
9. When documenting flexible laryngoscopy findings of vocal fold paralysis, which detail is most important to record? → Side affected, position of the paralyzed fold, and glottic closure
10. Which syndrome is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss combined with thyroid goiter and is caused by SLC26A4 mutations? → Pendred syndrome
11. Which feature of CertLink questions supports learning rather than just testing? → Immediate feedback with explanations and references after each answer
12. Which tongue muscle is NOT supplied by the hypoglossal nerve? → Palatoglossus
13. What is the most common indication for adenotonsillectomy in pediatric patients? → Obstructive sleep apnea
14. Which disorder is most commonly associated with aging and results in gradual hearing loss? → Presbycusis
15. First-line management for anterior epistaxis unresponsive to direct pressure involves which intervention? → Chemical cautery with silver nitrate
16. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for assessing dizziness and balance disorders? → Vestibular function test
17. How should challenges in safety and compliance be addressed? → Apply systematic problem-solving, seek expert guidance when needed, and document decisions
18. What is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss? → Otitis media
19. After an intraoperative complication such as a CSF leak during sinus surgery, what is the recommended approach to disclosure? → Promptly and honestly disclose the event, its implications, and the plan
20. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis externa in an adult with an intact tympanic membrane? → Topical antibiotic ear drops
21. What quality assurance measure supports professional standards and ethics? → Regular self-assessment, peer review, and adherence to established standards
22. What is the foundational principle of communication and documentation in the Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Certification field? → Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders
23. Which part of the nasal cavity is responsible for filtering and humidifying incoming air? → Nasal turbinates
24. What quality assurance measure supports continuing education requirements? → Regular self-assessment, peer review, and adherence to established standards
25. How should professionals apply assessment and evaluation in daily practice? → Consistently integrate best practices into every aspect of professional work
26. Which nerve supplies the tensor tympani muscle? → Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
27. When delivering a new diagnosis of laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, which protocol provides a structured approach to breaking bad news? → SPIKES
28. Which sinuses drain through the ostiomeatal complex? → Maxillary, anterior ethmoid, and frontal
29. Otorrhea, retro-orbital pain, and abducens nerve palsy make up Gradenigo syndrome, which points to which condition? → Petrous apicitis
30. Which muscle is mainly responsible for opening the Eustachian tube? → Tensor veli palatini