EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What software platform, developed to automate MPDS protocol delivery, is widely used in EMD centers?

DispatchLink
MedComm Pro
ProQA (Correct answer)
CAD Master

Correct answer: ProQA

ProQA is the NAED-endorsed software that automates MPDS protocol delivery, guiding dispatchers through interrogation and instruction steps.

Question 2: When ProQA recommends a dispatch determinant but the dispatcher overrides it based on additional caller information, what must the dispatcher do?

Document the reason for override in the call record and notify a supervisor (Correct answer)
Call back the patient before dispatching
Always revert to the ProQA recommendation
Ignore the override option as it is not permitted

Correct answer: Document the reason for override in the call record and notify a supervisor

Dispatcher overrides must be documented with justification so QA reviewers can evaluate whether the deviation was appropriate.

Question 3: ________can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served, and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence.

Morality
Ethics
Self Respect
Professionalism (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Professionalism

Professionalism can be defined as behavior and attitude patterns exhibiting standards and character marked by pride in oneself and one's career, respect for the people served, and commitment to the continued development of skills in the pursuit of excellence.

Question 4: For a suspected stroke patient with sudden-onset difficulty breathing, the EMD dispatcher should also screen for stroke using FAST. What does the 'A' in FAST stand for?

Ataxia (balance loss)
Airway compromise
Alertness level
Arm weakness (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arm weakness

In the FAST stroke assessment tool, 'A' stands for Arm weakness, where one arm drifts down when both are raised.

Question 5: For a premature birth where the baby is delivered before EMS arrives, what is the most critical care concern?

Only the mother's temperature requires monitoring
The baby may overheat in normal room temperatures
Room temperature has no measurable effect on outcomes
The premature newborn is at high risk for hypothermia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The premature newborn is at high risk for hypothermia

Premature newborns lack insulating body fat and are highly vulnerable to rapid heat loss, making warmth a critical pre-arrival priority.

Question 6: When instructing a caller on bleeding control for a severe extremity wound, what should the dispatcher direct first?

Elevate the limb and apply ice
Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available (Correct answer)
Rinse the wound with water before covering it
Apply a tourniquet two inches above the wound

Correct answer: Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available

Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for severe bleeding before considering tourniquet application.

Question 7: A 52 yr male calls and reports that he is having a hard time breathing and has been vomiting , choose the most correct chief complaint type.

11 Chocking
32 Unknown Problem
6 Breathing Problems (Correct answer)
26 Sick Person

Correct answer: 6 Breathing Problems

The most correct chief complaint type in this scenario is "6 Breathing Problems." This is because the caller is experiencing difficulty breathing, which is a serious symptom that requires immediate attention. The fact that he is also vomiting further indicates that his breathing difficulties may be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, "6 Breathing Problems" is the most appropriate choice as the chief complaint type.

Question 8: A caller describes a patient who is 'having trouble walking and one side of his face is drooping.' The EMD should select:

Stroke (CVA) (Correct answer)
Sick Person
Traumatic Injury
Unconscious/Fainting

Correct answer: Stroke (CVA)

Facial drooping and unilateral weakness are classic stroke (CVA) signs, which require immediate activation of the Stroke protocol.

Question 9: A caller reports a patient with an open chest wound making a 'sucking' sound with each breath. What pre-arrival instruction is MOST appropriate?

Have the patient breathe as deeply as possible
Tell caller to have the patient cough forcefully
Instruct caller to cover the wound with a gloved hand or occlusive material (Correct answer)
Advise caller to apply firm compression to both sides of the chest

Correct answer: Instruct caller to cover the wound with a gloved hand or occlusive material

An occlusive dressing or gloved hand over a sucking chest wound helps prevent further air entry into the pleural space.

Question 10: A caller reports a patient was struck by lightning and is now unresponsive. What is the correct EMD response regarding scene safety?

Do not dispatch until the storm completely passes
Lightning victims remain electrically charged for 10 minutes
Lightning victims are safe to touch immediately after strike
The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching

Lightning poses an ongoing scene hazard; callers should seek shelter while remaining on the line, and responders should approach only when safe.

Question 11: With only one available unit and two simultaneous Priority 1 calls, what should primarily guide assignment?

The determinant code indicating the most immediately life-threatening condition (Correct answer)
The geographic area with historically higher call volume
The caller's emotional state during interrogation
The crew's stated preference based on prior experience with similar calls

Correct answer: The determinant code indicating the most immediately life-threatening condition

Determinant codes objectively rank call severity, providing an evidence-based standard for prioritizing the single available unit.

Question 12: How should a dispatcher adjust interrogation when questioning a child caller about an adult patient?

Use simple, age-appropriate language and ask one question at a time (Correct answer)
Transfer the call immediately to a supervisor
Terminate the call and request an adult callback
Use the same adult-level vocabulary to maintain professionalism

Correct answer: Use simple, age-appropriate language and ask one question at a time

Child callers require simple, concrete language and single questions at a time to gather accurate information without causing additional panic.

Question 13: What minimum score must candidates typically achieve to pass the EMD certification exam administered by NAED?

75%
70%
80% (Correct answer)
90%

Correct answer: 80%

Candidates must score at least 80% on the NAED EMD certification exam to receive their credential.

Question 14: An off-duty EMD witnesses a cardiac arrest at a shopping mall and provides CPR instructions via their personal phone. Their liability exposure in most states is governed by:

EMTALA, since they are a healthcare worker
No legal framework — off-duty actions are completely unregulated
Good Samaritan law, since they are acting as a private citizen outside their official role (Correct answer)
Their agency's dispatch protocols, which apply 24/7

Correct answer: Good Samaritan law, since they are acting as a private citizen outside their official role

When an EMD acts as a private citizen off duty, Good Samaritan statutes typically apply rather than the workplace duty-to-act standards.

Question 15: An EMD's responsibility for patient confidentiality, in line with regulations like HIPAA, means they must:

Avoid sharing PHI unless it is necessary for the treatment of the patient by responding personnel or for other legally permissible reasons. (Correct answer)
Announce the patient's name and medical complaint over all radio channels.
Refuse to give any information over the radio to responding units.
Share Protected Health Information (PHI) with family members who call back for an update.

Correct answer: Avoid sharing PHI unless it is necessary for the treatment of the patient by responding personnel or for other legally permissible reasons.

EMDs have an ethical and legal obligation to protect patient privacy. While HIPAA rules are complex, a key principle is that Protected Health Information (PHI) should only be shared for purposes of Treatment, Payment, or Operations (TPO). Sharing information with responding crews for treatment purposes is permissible and necessary, but indiscriminate sharing with the public or unauthorized individuals is a breach of confidentiality.

Question 16: What is the primary advantage of MPDS over purely ad hoc, experience-based emergency dispatching?

Response times are always guaranteed to be under four minutes
Consistency, error reduction, and enhanced medico-legal protection for dispatchers and agencies (Correct answer)
Personal dispatcher judgment is completely eliminated from all decisions
Dispatchers never require additional training after initial certification

Correct answer: Consistency, error reduction, and enhanced medico-legal protection for dispatchers and agencies

Standardized protocols ensure every caller receives consistent, evidence-based assistance and provide dispatchers with a documented, defensible decision framework.

Question 17: A caller reports their elderly neighbor feels 'unwell' and has a history of 'everything'. After Case Entry questions, the patient is conscious and breathing. The EMD cannot elicit a specific priority symptom. Which Chief Complaint Protocol is most appropriate to select initially?

Protocol 6: Breathing Problems
Protocol 32: Unknown Problem (Person Down)
Protocol 26: Sick Person (Correct answer)
Protocol 10: Chest Pain

Correct answer: Protocol 26: Sick Person

Protocol 26: Sick Person is designed for patients with non-categorizable chief complaints who do not have an identifiable priority symptom. Since the caller's description is vague ('unwell') and no priority symptoms like chest pain or breathing difficulty are mentioned, this protocol serves as the correct starting point to further interrogate and rule out higher-acuity conditions.

Question 18: During a respiratory distress call, the caller reports that the patient used their rescue inhaler twice with no improvement. The EMD dispatcher should:

Instruct the caller to give the patient an antihistamine instead
Advise the caller to have the patient use the inhaler a third time immediately
Tell the caller the medication needs 30 minutes to work
Upgrade the response priority based on failed bronchodilator response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Upgrade the response priority based on failed bronchodilator response

Failed response to bronchodilator therapy indicates potentially severe bronchospasm or an alternative diagnosis requiring upgraded EMS response.

Question 19: A caller reports a 45-year-old experiencing sudden-onset tearing chest pain that radiates to the back between the shoulder blades. The EMD should consider this presentation most consistent with:

Musculoskeletal strain from physical exertion
Panic attack with hyperventilation
Esophageal spasm mimicking cardiac pain
Aortic dissection requiring urgent ALS response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aortic dissection requiring urgent ALS response

Sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back is the classic description of aortic dissection, a life-threatening vascular emergency.

Question 20: For a conscious pediatric choking victim, what instructions should the EMD provide?

Have the child drink water to dislodge the object
Give age-appropriate back blows and abdominal thrusts per protocol (Correct answer)
Tell the caller to wait for the ambulance
Begin CPR immediately

Correct answer: Give age-appropriate back blows and abdominal thrusts per protocol

Age-appropriate choking relief (back blows and abdominal thrusts) must be instructed immediately for a conscious child who is choking.

Question 21: Why is tracking 'call processing time' a key metric in EMD quality assurance?

It measures operational efficiency and identifies delays that may adversely affect patient outcomes (Correct answer)
It calculates the total number of available EMS units per shift
It is required only for motor vehicle accident calls
It determines the dispatcher's annual performance bonus

Correct answer: It measures operational efficiency and identifies delays that may adversely affect patient outcomes

Shorter call processing times — especially in life-threatening calls — directly correlate with faster EMS response and better patient survival rates.

Question 22: A caller reports a patient who is 8 months pregnant and experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding. Which protocol applies?

Sick Person
Hemorrhage/Lacerations
Obstetric/Childbirth (Correct answer)
Abdominal Pain/Problems

Correct answer: Obstetric/Childbirth

Pregnancy-related emergencies including bleeding are handled under the Obstetric/Childbirth protocol.

Question 23: A caller reports a motorcyclist struck a guardrail at highway speed. The patient is unresponsive but breathing. What is the FIRST priority instruction for bystanders?

Begin CPR compressions
Do not move the patient unless there is immediate danger (Correct answer)
Elevate the patient's legs to prevent shock
Remove the helmet immediately to open the airway

Correct answer: Do not move the patient unless there is immediate danger

Spinal precautions require keeping the patient still unless there is an immediate life threat such as fire or traffic.

Question 24: During a cardiac arrest call, the dispatcher determines the patient is in ventricular fibrillation via AED. What pre-arrival instruction should be given immediately?

Instruct the caller to continue CPR until AED advises a shock (Correct answer)
Tell the caller to remove the AED pads after each shock
Advise the caller to turn off the AED and resume CPR only
Stop CPR and wait for AED to finish analysis

Correct answer: Instruct the caller to continue CPR until AED advises a shock

Dispatchers instruct callers to follow AED voice prompts and resume CPR immediately after each shock until EMS arrives.

Question 25: During a DLS call, a caller becomes panicked and begins yelling, making it hard to provide instructions. The dispatcher should:

Speak in a calm, firm, and controlled tone to redirect the caller's focus (Correct answer)
Raise their own voice to match the caller's intensity
Hang up and call back when the caller is calmer
Transfer the call to a supervisor immediately

Correct answer: Speak in a calm, firm, and controlled tone to redirect the caller's focus

Dispatchers are trained to use a calm, controlled, authoritative voice to de-escalate panicked callers and redirect focus to life-saving actions.

Question 26: A caller reports an adult with a severe nosebleed that has been going on for 20 minutes. The dispatcher should instruct the caller to:

Pack the nostril with tissue as deep as possible
Have the patient lie flat with legs elevated
Have the patient lean forward and pinch the soft part of the nose firmly (Correct answer)
Tilt the patient's head back and place ice on the forehead

Correct answer: Have the patient lean forward and pinch the soft part of the nose firmly

Leaning forward prevents blood from being swallowed and pinching the soft tissue of the nose applies pressure to the bleeding vessels.

Question 27: What term describes the emotional toll experienced by dispatchers who repeatedly handle traumatic emergency calls?

Dispatch overload
Shift fatigue
Protocol burnout
Compassion fatigue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compassion fatigue

Compassion fatigue is a recognized occupational hazard for dispatchers caused by sustained exposure to callers' traumatic and distressing situations.

Question 28: During the Case Entry protocol, which of the following is NOT one of the four mandatory questions an EMD must ask?

"Okay, tell me exactly what happened."
"What's the address of the emergency?"
"What is the patient's name?" (Correct answer)
"What's the phone number you're calling from?"

Correct answer: "What is the patient's name?"

The four mandatory Case Entry questions are: "What's the address of the emergency?", "What's the phone number you're calling from?", "Okay, tell me exactly what happened?", and determining the patient's age, sex, consciousness, and breathing status. The patient's name is not a required component of the initial Case Entry protocol.

Question 29: Which stressor is unique to dispatchers compared to field responders?

Dispatchers have direct physical contact with patients
Dispatchers face constant physical danger on scene
Dispatchers handle far fewer emergency calls per shift
Dispatchers cannot see outcomes and must cope with uncertainty about calls they handled (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dispatchers cannot see outcomes and must cope with uncertainty about calls they handled

Outcome ambiguity — dispatching help and giving instructions but never learning what happened to the patient — is a unique and significant psychological burden for dispatchers.

Question 30: An EMD receives a call for a person choking. The protocol requires providing Pre-Arrival Instructions for the Heimlich maneuver. The EMD, feeling rushed, dispatches the unit but fails to provide the instructions. The patient suffers a permanent brain injury due to hypoxia. In a negligence lawsuit, the EMD's failure to provide instructions would most likely be considered which element?

Damages
Duty to Act
Breach of Duty (Correct answer)
Causation

Correct answer: Breach of Duty

To prove negligence, four elements must be present: Duty to Act, Breach of Duty, Causation, and Damages. The EMD had a duty to follow the protocol. Failing to provide the required life-saving instructions represents the 'Breach of Duty' element, as it deviates from the established standard of care.

Question 31: During a call, the caller initially says 'headache' but then mentions the patient suddenly collapsed. The EMD should:

Stay on the Headache protocol since that was stated first
Use both protocols simultaneously
Switch to the Unconscious/Fainting protocol based on the updated information (Correct answer)
Document both complaints and wait for EMS to decide

Correct answer: Switch to the Unconscious/Fainting protocol based on the updated information

New critical information that changes the chief complaint requires the EMD to switch to the appropriate higher-priority protocol.

Question 32: A caller reports a severe arterial bleed from a deep laceration on a person's arm. After dispatching units, what is the MOST critical DLS instruction the EMD should provide?

Tell the caller to elevate the arm and apply firm, direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth. (Correct answer)
Advise the caller to give the patient aspirin to prevent clotting.
Ask the caller to find a cloth and begin cleaning the wound immediately.
Instruct the caller to apply a tourniquet using a belt just above the wound.

Correct answer: Tell the caller to elevate the arm and apply firm, direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.

For severe bleeding, standard DLS and first aid protocols prioritize bleeding control. The most important initial instruction is to apply firm, direct pressure over the wound with a clean cloth or dressing and, if possible, to elevate the extremity. While some protocols include dispatcher-instructed tourniquet application, direct pressure is the fundamental first step. Cleaning the wound or administering medication is not the immediate priority.

Question 33: In EMD Dispatch Life Support, the term 'agonal breathing' is important because it:

Indicates the patient is breathing adequately and does not need CPR
Can be mistaken for normal breathing, delaying CPR instructions (Correct answer)
Is a sign that CPR should be stopped immediately
Means the patient needs rescue breaths but not chest compressions

Correct answer: Can be mistaken for normal breathing, delaying CPR instructions

Agonal breathing (irregular, gasping breaths) may be mistaken for normal breathing by callers, causing delayed CPR initiation — dispatchers must recognize and clarify this.

Question 34: When a QA reviewer identifies a pattern of the same protocol error across multiple calls by one dispatcher, the most appropriate next step is to:

Initiate targeted coaching and a structured performance improvement plan (Correct answer)
Remove the dispatcher from call-taking duties immediately
Document the pattern without taking further action unless a complaint is filed
File a formal complaint with the state EMS licensing board

Correct answer: Initiate targeted coaching and a structured performance improvement plan

A pattern indicates a knowledge or skill gap that coaching and a formal improvement plan can address systematically.

Question 35: A caller reports a stabbing victim with a knife still embedded in the abdomen. What pre-arrival instruction should the EMD give?

Instruct the caller NOT to remove the knife (Correct answer)
Advise the caller to carefully remove the knife
Tell caller to apply a tourniquet around the abdomen
Tell the caller to push the knife in deeper to control bleeding

Correct answer: Instruct the caller NOT to remove the knife

Impaled objects should never be removed in the field because they may be tamponading a major vessel.

Question 36: What percentage of total monthly calls is the commonly accepted minimum for case review in a quality EMD program?

25–30%
Less than 1%
50% or more
5–10% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5–10%

Most QA standards and NAED accreditation guidelines require reviewing at least 5% of calls monthly to detect performance trends.

Question 37: Which MPDS protocol is typically used for pregnancy and childbirth emergency calls?

Protocol 7 (Burns)
Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB) (Correct answer)
Protocol 9 (Chest Pain)
Protocol 12 (Convulsions/Fitting)

Correct answer: Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB)

MPDS Protocol 24 specifically covers pregnancy and childbirth emergencies, including imminent delivery situations.

Question 38: A caller reports a 2-year-old who ingested household chemicals. After dispatch, what should the EMD do?

Provide pre-arrival instructions per poisoning protocol, referencing Poison Control guidance (Correct answer)
Tell the caller to induce vomiting immediately
Disconnect the call after confirming dispatch
Advise giving the child milk to dilute the chemical

Correct answer: Provide pre-arrival instructions per poisoning protocol, referencing Poison Control guidance

EMDs must follow poisoning protocols which include pre-arrival instructions and may incorporate Poison Control guidance; inducing vomiting is contraindicated for chemical ingestion.

Question 39: A dispatcher coaching a caller through a childbirth discovers the baby is presenting feet-first (breech). The dispatcher should:

Have the mother stop pushing entirely until EMS arrives
Upgrade unit response, instruct the caller not to pull the baby, and keep the mother calm and pushing only with contractions (Correct answer)
Guide delivery of the feet first, then instruct the caller to rotate the baby
Instruct the caller to push the baby back in to allow time for EMS arrival

Correct answer: Upgrade unit response, instruct the caller not to pull the baby, and keep the mother calm and pushing only with contractions

Breech delivery is a high-risk obstetric emergency — the dispatcher upgrades response priority, instructs the caller not to pull the baby, and provides emotional support while EMS responds rapidly.

Question 40: When a caller reports a 'possible allergic reaction' and mentions difficulty swallowing, the EMD should prioritize which determinant level?

CHARLIE (Potentially serious)
DELTA (Life-threatening) (Correct answer)
BRAVO (Serious)
ALPHA (Minor)

Correct answer: DELTA (Life-threatening)

Difficulty swallowing during an allergic reaction indicates potential anaphylaxis with airway involvement, which is a DELTA-level determinant.

Question 41: What is the primary legal benefit for an EMD who meticulously and consistently follows established, medically-approved dispatch protocols?

It allows the EMD to make independent medical judgments that override the protocol.
It eliminates the need for any further documentation of the call.
It grants the EMD complete and total immunity from all potential lawsuits.
It provides a strong, defensible position that the established standard of care was met. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It provides a strong, defensible position that the established standard of care was met.

While not providing absolute immunity, strict adherence to a medically-approved protocol is the strongest legal defense for an EMD. It demonstrates that the dispatcher's actions were in line with the accepted standard of care, making a claim of negligence very difficult to prove.

Question 42: An EMD dispatcher is handling a cardiac arrest call. The caller states an AED is available on site. The dispatcher should instruct the caller to:

Apply the AED pads but do not shock until EMS arrives
Use the AED immediately, pausing CPR only as long as necessary (Correct answer)
Wait for paramedics to arrive before using the AED
Use the AED only if CPR has been performed for at least 2 minutes

Correct answer: Use the AED immediately, pausing CPR only as long as necessary

Early defibrillation is critical; bystanders should use an available AED as quickly as possible, minimizing interruptions to CPR.

Question 43: A caller reports someone was stabbed in the abdomen. The EMD should select which protocol?

Traumatic Injury
Hemorrhage/Lacerations
Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma (Correct answer)
Abdominal Pain/Problems

Correct answer: Stab/Gunshot/Penetrating Trauma

Penetrating trauma such as stab wounds has a dedicated protocol that addresses specific interventions and dispatch priorities.

Question 44: When questioning a caller about chest pain, the EMD asks about 'associated symptoms.' Which combination is most consistent with a cardiac event?

Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath (Correct answer)
Headache, visual changes, and neck stiffness
Abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and back pain
Fever, productive cough, and pleuritic pain

Correct answer: Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath

Nausea, diaphoresis (sweating), and dyspnea are classic autonomic and sympathetic responses associated with acute coronary syndrome.

Question 45: An EMD is handling a call for a 30-year-old male whose hand was severed in a factory accident. The caller has successfully controlled the bleeding from the arm using direct pressure as instructed. What is the next critical instruction regarding the amputated part?

Wrap the hand in a moist sterile dressing, place it in a sealed bag, and put the bag in cool water. (Correct answer)
Place the hand directly into a container of ice water.
Discard the amputated part as it cannot be reattached.
Wash the hand thoroughly with soap and water before wrapping it.

Correct answer: Wrap the hand in a moist sterile dressing, place it in a sealed bag, and put the bag in cool water.

The proper procedure for preserving an amputated part is to wrap it in a clean, moist sterile dressing, place it in a sealed plastic bag, and then place that bag into a container of cool water or ice water. This keeps the part cool without causing freezing damage (frostbite) from direct contact with ice.

Question 46: What is the primary distinction between an EMD-certified dispatcher and a non-certified dispatcher?

Certified dispatchers earn higher salaries but handle fewer call types
Non-certified dispatchers are permitted to provide pre-arrival instructions in all US jurisdictions
Certified dispatchers are trained to use medical priority protocols and provide structured pre-arrival instructions (Correct answer)
Certified dispatchers handle only administrative and non-medical calls

Correct answer: Certified dispatchers are trained to use medical priority protocols and provide structured pre-arrival instructions

EMD certification qualifies dispatchers to apply approved medical protocols and deliver Dispatch Life Support, capabilities that non-certified dispatchers lack.

Question 47: When providing telephone CPR instructions, what should an EMD verify first before instructing compressions?

That the caller has prior CPR training and current certification
The caller's health insurance information and billing address
That it is safe for the caller to approach and that the patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally (Correct answer)
That at least two other callers have reported the same emergency

Correct answer: That it is safe for the caller to approach and that the patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally

Confirming the patient's unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing are the clinical triggers that justify beginning CPR, and scene safety ensures the caller is not in danger.

Question 48: Which specific emergency does MPDS Protocol 9 address?

Breathing problems
Chest pain (non-arrest)
Stroke and TIA
Cardiac and respiratory arrest (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cardiac and respiratory arrest

Protocol 9 is dedicated to Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest and contains the most critical pre-arrival instructions in MPDS.

Question 49: A caller reports a patient is having a diabetic emergency and is conscious but confused. The patient cannot identify if they are high or low blood sugar. The dispatcher should instruct the caller to:

Administer insulin from the patient's supply immediately
If the patient can swallow, give a small amount of sugar or sugary drink (Correct answer)
Give nothing by mouth until a blood glucose reading is confirmed
Have the patient exercise lightly to lower blood glucose

Correct answer: If the patient can swallow, give a small amount of sugar or sugary drink

For a conscious, confused diabetic patient who can swallow, giving sugar is safer than withholding it — hypoglycemia is immediately life-threatening and sugar will not cause serious harm if hyperglycemia is present.

Question 50: Pre-arrival instructions provided by an EMD are intended to:

Determine the hospital destination for the patient
Help the caller assist the patient until EMS arrives (Correct answer)
Replace the need for field EMS units
Document the patient's complete medical history

Correct answer: Help the caller assist the patient until EMS arrives

Pre-arrival instructions are designed to guide bystanders in providing immediate assistance, such as CPR, until trained responders reach the scene.

Question 51: In neurological emergencies, what is the significance of unequal pupils (anisocoria) reported by a caller during interrogation?

It is a normal finding requiring no special concern
It may indicate increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation (Correct answer)
It indicates the patient is not truly unconscious
It is only significant in patients under age 40

Correct answer: It may indicate increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation

Unequal pupils in the context of altered mental status or trauma can indicate life-threatening increased intracranial pressure or brainstem herniation, warranting highest-priority dispatch.

Question 52: After a successful delivery is coached over the phone, the dispatcher should instruct the caller regarding the umbilical cord to:

Do not cut the cord — wrap the baby warmly and wait for EMS (Correct answer)
Tie the cord with a shoelace and cut between the two ties
Cut the cord immediately using scissors from a kitchen drawer
Pull on the cord to deliver the placenta faster

Correct answer: Do not cut the cord — wrap the baby warmly and wait for EMS

Unless EMS is delayed significantly, callers should not cut the cord — keeping it intact while warming the baby and awaiting EMS is safer.

Question 53: When a caller cannot identify a single chief complaint and gives multiple unrelated symptoms, the EMD should:

Ask clarifying questions until one complaint is clearly dominant (Correct answer)
Select the protocol for the most recently mentioned symptom
Transfer the call to a supervisor immediately
Use the Sick Person protocol as a catch-all

Correct answer: Ask clarifying questions until one complaint is clearly dominant

The EMD must ask additional questions to identify the most serious or dominant chief complaint before protocol selection.

EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED)

The Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) certification exam, administered by the International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED), tests knowledge of medical priority dispatch protocols, caller interrogation techniques, and dispatch life support instructions.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

80%

To Pass

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