EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What term describes the emotional toll experienced by dispatchers who repeatedly handle traumatic emergency calls?

Compassion fatigue (Correct answer)
Protocol burnout
Shift fatigue
Dispatch overload

Correct answer: Compassion fatigue

Compassion fatigue is a recognized occupational hazard for dispatchers caused by sustained exposure to callers' traumatic and distressing situations.

Question 2: When instructing a caller on bleeding control for a severe extremity wound, what should the dispatcher direct first?

Apply a tourniquet two inches above the wound
Rinse the wound with water before covering it
Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available (Correct answer)
Elevate the limb and apply ice

Correct answer: Apply firm, direct pressure with the cleanest material available

Direct pressure is the first-line intervention for severe bleeding before considering tourniquet application.

Question 3: What percentage of total monthly calls is the commonly accepted minimum for case review in a quality EMD program?

25–30%
50% or more
5–10% (Correct answer)
Less than 1%

Correct answer: 5–10%

Most QA standards and NAED accreditation guidelines require reviewing at least 5% of calls monthly to detect performance trends.

Question 4: A caller describes a patient with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of their life.' What should the EMD dispatcher suspect?

Tension headache
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (Correct answer)
Cluster headache
Migraine headache

Correct answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A sudden, severe 'thunderclap' headache described as the worst ever experienced is the classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage, a life-threatening neurological emergency.

Question 5: Which of the following is an example of a Dispatch Life Support (DLS) skill performed by an EMD?

Guiding a caller through an emergency childbirth delivery over the phone (Correct answer)
Remotely prescribing medications over the phone
Administering supplemental oxygen through the dispatch console
Conducting a physical examination via video call

Correct answer: Guiding a caller through an emergency childbirth delivery over the phone

DLS includes guiding callers through emergency childbirth, CPR, choking relief, and other life-saving interventions before EMS arrives.

Question 6: A caller reports a 45-year-old construction worker has fallen. Which piece of information is most critical for the EMD to obtain to accurately determine the potential for life-threatening injuries?

Whether the patient was wearing a helmet.
The time the fall occurred.
The height from which the patient fell. (Correct answer)
If the patient has any obvious broken bones.

Correct answer: The height from which the patient fell.

The height of a fall is a primary indicator of the mechanism of injury (MOI). Falls from a significant height (typically >10-20 feet for adults) are associated with a high risk of severe, life-threatening internal injuries, even if the patient is initially conscious. This information directly impacts the dispatch determinant and the level of response sent.

Question 7: The primary goal of the initial caller interrogation questions in any EMD protocol is to:

Determine the patient's insurance and billing information.
Ascertain the incident location, a callback number, the chief complaint, and the patient's status. (Correct answer)
Calm the caller down before proceeding with any other questions.
Obtain a definitive medical diagnosis of the patient's condition.

Correct answer: Ascertain the incident location, a callback number, the chief complaint, and the patient's status.

The universally accepted first steps in EMD are to determine the location of the emergency, a valid callback number, the primary problem (chief complaint), the patient's age, and their consciousness and breathing status. This information is essential for dispatching resources and selecting the correct protocol.

Question 8: A caller reports a severe arterial bleed from a deep laceration on a person's arm. After dispatching units, what is the MOST critical DLS instruction the EMD should provide?

Instruct the caller to apply a tourniquet using a belt just above the wound.
Advise the caller to give the patient aspirin to prevent clotting.
Ask the caller to find a cloth and begin cleaning the wound immediately.
Tell the caller to elevate the arm and apply firm, direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tell the caller to elevate the arm and apply firm, direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.

For severe bleeding, standard DLS and first aid protocols prioritize bleeding control. The most important initial instruction is to apply firm, direct pressure over the wound with a clean cloth or dressing and, if possible, to elevate the extremity. While some protocols include dispatcher-instructed tourniquet application, direct pressure is the fundamental first step. Cleaning the wound or administering medication is not the immediate priority.

Question 9: What is the EMD dispatcher's role when a bystander takes over from the initial caller mid-interrogation?

Brief the new caller on what has been established and continue from that point (Correct answer)
Restart the interrogation entirely from the beginning
Hang up and wait for the new caller to initiate contact
Transfer the call to EMS units directly

Correct answer: Brief the new caller on what has been established and continue from that point

Briefing the new caller on confirmed information and picking up where interrogation left off prevents duplication and avoids wasting critical time.

Question 10: A _________ is anything of value intended to benefit the giver more than the receiver, given to a person because of position and authority rather than because of individual or personal qualities.

Benefit
Gift
Reward
Gratuity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gratuity

A gratuity is defined as something of value given, often with an expectation of favor or influence, to someone in a position of authority. Unlike a genuine gift, a gratuity is typically intended to benefit the giver by influencing the receiver's actions or decisions due to their official capacity, rather than being a personal gesture based on individual qualities.

Question 11: A bystander is performing chest compressions and says they are tiring. The EMD dispatcher should:

Encourage switching to another bystander if available, with minimal interruption (Correct answer)
Advise them to stop for 1 minute to rest before continuing
Instruct them to slow the compression rate to conserve energy
Tell them to perform rescue breathing only until help arrives

Correct answer: Encourage switching to another bystander if available, with minimal interruption

Rescuer fatigue causes compression quality to deteriorate; switching rescuers every 2 minutes maintains effective CPR with minimal pauses.

Question 12: During a quality assurance case review, the practice of 'blinding' the reviewer primarily serves what purpose?

To prevent the EMD from knowing which of their calls are being selected for review.
To remove all patient-identifying information to comply with HIPAA regulations.
To review the EMD's performance without knowledge of the patient's ultimate clinical outcome. (Correct answer)
To conceal the identity of the EMD from the quality assurance reviewer.

Correct answer: To review the EMD's performance without knowledge of the patient's ultimate clinical outcome.

Blinding in this context is designed to prevent 'outcome bias.' If a reviewer knows the patient had a negative outcome, they may subconsciously scrutinize the call more harshly. Conversely, knowing of a positive outcome might lead them to overlook minor deviations. Blinding the reviewer to the outcome ensures the EMD's performance is judged solely on their adherence to the established process and protocol.

Question 13: Which factor most affects protocol selection when handling a pediatric emergency call?

The child's age and approximate weight (Correct answer)
The parent's tone of voice
The child's school grade
The time of day the call occurs

Correct answer: The child's age and approximate weight

A child's age and approximate weight determine which pediatric protocols and instructions are appropriate for that patient.

Question 14: In EMD protocol systems, the chief complaint is best defined as:

The dispatcher's assessment of the situation
The primary problem stated by the caller in their own words (Correct answer)
The diagnosis provided by the caller
The list of all symptoms reported

Correct answer: The primary problem stated by the caller in their own words

The chief complaint is the caller's own description of the primary problem, not a medical diagnosis.

Question 15: A caller reports a patient was struck by lightning and is now unresponsive. What is the correct EMD response regarding scene safety?

Do not dispatch until the storm completely passes
Lightning victims are safe to touch immediately after strike
Lightning victims remain electrically charged for 10 minutes
The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The scene may still be dangerous; advise caller to move to shelter before approaching

Lightning poses an ongoing scene hazard; callers should seek shelter while remaining on the line, and responders should approach only when safe.

Question 16: What is the correct sequence for the opening steps of MPDS Case Entry?

Address → callback number → chief complaint → age and consciousness/breathing status (Correct answer)
Chief complaint → address → callback number → age
Callback number → age → chief complaint → address
Age → address → callback number → chief complaint

Correct answer: Address → callback number → chief complaint → age and consciousness/breathing status

MPDS Case Entry begins with address and callback number to enable dispatch, then gathers the chief complaint and patient status questions.

Question 17: 'Determinant accuracy' in an EMD quality assurance program specifically measures whether the dispatcher:

Entered the caller's address without typographical errors
Correctly selected the MPDS determinant code that matched the patient's condition (Correct answer)
Confirmed unit availability before dispatching
Achieved the target call processing time

Correct answer: Correctly selected the MPDS determinant code that matched the patient's condition

Determinant accuracy evaluates whether the dispatcher's final code selection (e.g., 9-Delta-1) correctly matched the clinical situation reported.

Question 18: When a caller disconnects before interrogation is complete, what should the dispatcher do first?

Attempt an immediate callback to the number and continue interrogation (Correct answer)
Send units only if a valid address was obtained
Close the call and log it as incomplete
Wait 5 minutes before attempting a callback

Correct answer: Attempt an immediate callback to the number and continue interrogation

An immediate callback attempt is required to gather missing information; if a location was confirmed, units should already be dispatched.

Question 19: A caller states their pregnant wife is fully crowning and delivery is imminent. After guiding delivery of the head, the dispatcher should next instruct the caller to:

Cut the umbilical cord immediately with scissors
Check if the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck (Correct answer)
Pull the baby firmly downward to deliver the shoulders
Turn the mother onto her back and stop her from pushing

Correct answer: Check if the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck

After the head delivers, check for nuchal cord (cord around the neck) before proceeding with shoulder delivery.

Question 20: Which of the following actions by an EMD would be a clear violation of patient confidentiality principles, potentially including regulations like HIPAA?

Informing the receiving hospital's emergency department of the patient's status and ETA.
Confirming the patient's name and specific medical condition to a news reporter who calls the dispatch center. (Correct answer)
Relaying the patient's chief complaint and address to the responding ambulance crew.
Documenting the patient's reported medical history in the official CAD record.

Correct answer: Confirming the patient's name and specific medical condition to a news reporter who calls the dispatch center.

Sharing Protected Health Information (PHI) with entities not directly involved in the patient's treatment or public safety response, such as the media, is a violation of patient confidentiality. Communications with other responders and healthcare facilities for the purpose of patient care are permissible.

Question 21: An EMD is providing CPR instructions to a caller for an adult patient in cardiac arrest. The caller is untrained and hesitant to perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations. What is the EMD's best course of action based on current DLS standards?

Tell the caller to find a bystander who is willing to perform ventilations.
Terminate the call and wait for responders to arrive on the scene.
Instruct the caller to perform chest compressions only. (Correct answer)
Insist that ventilations are essential and refuse to provide further instructions until the caller agrees.

Correct answer: Instruct the caller to perform chest compressions only.

Current international consensus guidelines and recommendations support providing chest-compressions-only CPR instructions (CCOIs) when a bystander is untrained, unwilling, or unable to perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations. This approach simplifies instructions and encourages immediate intervention, which is critical for survival.

Question 22: A caller reports her baby appears to be in a breech position during active labor. How should the EMD respond?

Reassure the caller that it will resolve on its own
Instruct the caller to encourage the mother to push harder
Tell her to drive herself to the nearest hospital
Dispatch at high priority immediately and provide pre-arrival instructions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dispatch at high priority immediately and provide pre-arrival instructions

Breech presentation is a serious obstetric emergency requiring immediate high-priority dispatch and pre-arrival instruction support.

Question 23: When performing telephone CPR, an EMD dispatcher should count compressions aloud primarily to:

Document compression count for the medical record
Help the caller maintain proper rate and rhythm (Correct answer)
Confirm the patient is receiving adequate ventilation
Keep the caller calm and prevent panic

Correct answer: Help the caller maintain proper rate and rhythm

Counting aloud helps untrained bystanders maintain the correct compression rate and stay focused during a stressful situation.

Question 24: Which of the following best distinguishes Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) from Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs)?

PAIs focus on gathering patient information, while PDIs focus on providing medical treatment.
PDIs are given before dispatching units, while PAIs are given after.
PDIs are always optional for the caller to follow, whereas PAIs are mandatory.
PAIs are for life-threatening emergencies like choking or cardiac arrest, while PDIs are general safety instructions for most chief complaints. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: PAIs are for life-threatening emergencies like choking or cardiac arrest, while PDIs are general safety instructions for most chief complaints.

Pre-Arrival Instructions (PAIs) are specific, scripted instructions for managing immediate, life-threatening situations such as cardiac arrest, choking, and childbirth before responders arrive. Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs) are more general, cautionary instructions given after dispatch for a wide range of chief complaints to ensure scene safety and provide basic care until help arrives.

Question 25: All students in the 911 Public Safety Telecommunicator Program are expected to attend and successfully complete a CPR certification class.

True (Correct answer)
False

Correct answer: True

It is standard and often mandatory practice for public safety telecommunicators, including 911 dispatchers, to be CPR certified. While they may not directly administer CPR, understanding the procedures is crucial for providing effective pre-arrival instructions to callers, which can be life-saving. This certification ensures they can guide callers through critical moments before first responders arrive.

Question 26: The legal 'standard of care' for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher is typically defined by which of the following benchmarks?

The actions that a reasonably prudent EMD with similar training would take under similar circumstances. (Correct answer)
The actions a calm and reasonable layperson would take in the same emergency.
The level of care an EMT or Paramedic would provide if physically on scene.
The personal expectations of the agency's medical director.

Correct answer: The actions that a reasonably prudent EMD with similar training would take under similar circumstances.

The legal standard of care for a trained professional, like an EMD, is not based on a layperson's actions or an on-scene provider's skills, but on the performance of a peer—another certified EMD with equivalent training and experience facing a similar situation.

Question 27: When questioning a caller about chest pain, the EMD asks about 'associated symptoms.' Which combination is most consistent with a cardiac event?

Fever, productive cough, and pleuritic pain
Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath (Correct answer)
Headache, visual changes, and neck stiffness
Abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and back pain

Correct answer: Nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath

Nausea, diaphoresis (sweating), and dyspnea are classic autonomic and sympathetic responses associated with acute coronary syndrome.

Question 28: The 'Emergency Rule' in emergency medical dispatch allows for the suspension of certain DLS instructions under specific circumstances. However, this rule NEVER applies to which set of critical events?

Falls, fractures, and minor bleeding.
Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest, Choking, and Childbirth. (Correct answer)
Traffic collisions, assaults, and sick persons.
Seizures, diabetic problems, and allergic reactions.

Correct answer: Cardiac/Respiratory Arrest, Choking, and Childbirth.

The Emergency Rule may be enacted during situations of extreme over-capacity, such as a mass casualty incident, allowing an EMD to suspend certain PAIs or PDIs. However, protocols explicitly state that this rule does not apply to situations where life-saving instructions are necessary, which are defined as cardiac/respiratory arrest, choking, and childbirth. For these calls, the EMD must stay on the line and provide instructions.

Question 29: Which question best helps a dispatcher determine whether a fall patient may have a spinal injury?

Did anyone witness the fall?
From what height did the patient fall and is there neck or back pain? (Correct answer)
Did the patient consume alcohol before the fall?
Is the patient insured for ambulance transport?

Correct answer: From what height did the patient fall and is there neck or back pain?

Fall height and presence of neck or back pain are key indicators used in MPDS to flag potential spinal injury and guide pre-arrival instructions.

Question 30: An EMD deviates from an approved protocol during a cardiac arrest call. The best immediate action by a QI supervisor is to:

Conduct a call review and document the deviation for corrective action (Correct answer)
File a criminal complaint against the EMD
Delete the recording to avoid liability
Ignore it if the patient survived

Correct answer: Conduct a call review and document the deviation for corrective action

Protocol deviations must be reviewed and documented through the quality improvement process to provide corrective education and prevent future liability.

Question 31: Which question during caller interrogation best helps distinguish a stroke from a hypoglycemic emergency?

Does the patient have a history of heart disease?
Has the patient had a recent head injury?
Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin? (Correct answer)
Is the patient taking blood pressure medication?

Correct answer: Has the patient eaten recently or taken insulin?

Asking about recent food intake and insulin use helps identify hypoglycemia, which can mimic stroke symptoms and is rapidly reversible with glucose administration.

Question 32: Which of the following is a healthy coping mechanism for EMD dispatchers experiencing job-related stress?

Ignoring feelings and focusing only on the next call
Working excessive overtime to stay distracted
Peer support programs and critical incident debriefings (Correct answer)
Avoiding all discussion of difficult calls with colleagues

Correct answer: Peer support programs and critical incident debriefings

Peer support programs and structured debriefings after critical incidents are evidence-based strategies for managing dispatcher occupational stress.

Question 33: How is mindfulness applied as a stress management tool for EMD dispatchers?

A supervisory oversight technique for monitoring dispatcher performance
A practice of maintaining non-judgmental present-moment awareness to reduce stress (Correct answer)
A radio communication protocol used during high-stress calls
A memorization technique for learning more dispatch protocols

Correct answer: A practice of maintaining non-judgmental present-moment awareness to reduce stress

Mindfulness trains dispatchers to remain present and non-reactive, reducing the stress response during and between calls.

Question 34: A caller reports a drowning victim who has been pulled from a pool. The patient is unconscious and not breathing. What is the FIRST instruction the EMD should give?

Lay the patient face down to drain water
Begin rescue breathing or CPR immediately (Correct answer)
Apply a cold compress to the patient's forehead
Wait for EMS to arrive before touching the patient

Correct answer: Begin rescue breathing or CPR immediately

Drowning victims in cardiac or respiratory arrest require immediate CPR; time to first breath or compression is the strongest predictor of survival.

Question 35: What does 'shift work disorder' refer to in the context of dispatcher occupational health?

Sleep disruption and fatigue caused by rotating or overnight shifts (Correct answer)
Interpersonal conflict between dispatchers on different shifts
Disliking the tasks assigned during a particular shift
A scheduling error made in the dispatch center calendar

Correct answer: Sleep disruption and fatigue caused by rotating or overnight shifts

Shift work disorder is a recognized circadian rhythm disorder characterized by insomnia and excessive sleepiness resulting from non-traditional work hours common in dispatch centers.

Question 36: When dealing with a hysterical or uncooperative caller, which technique is most effective for gaining control and obtaining necessary information?

Transferring the call to a supervisor to handle.
Using repetitive persistence with a calm, firm tone. (Correct answer)
Matching the caller's emotional intensity to show empathy.
Immediately demanding that the caller calm down.

Correct answer: Using repetitive persistence with a calm, firm tone.

Repetitive persistence involves repeating a request using the exact same words and a calm, firm tone. This technique is effective because it cuts through the caller's emotional state, demonstrates that the EMD is in control, and provides a clear, consistent message for the caller to focus on, which can help lower their anxiety.

Question 37: When a caller speaks limited English during an EMD interrogation, what is the dispatcher's first action?

Dispatch units and close the call
Put the caller on hold to find a bilingual dispatcher
Immediately connect to a telephone interpreter service (Correct answer)
Ask the caller to text the information instead

Correct answer: Immediately connect to a telephone interpreter service

Connecting to a telephone interpreter service (such as Language Line) as quickly as possible ensures accurate information gathering without delaying response.

Question 38: In MPDS Protocol 11 (Choking), an adult patient who can speak in full sentences should be classified as:

Anaphylaxis — ask about allergen exposure
Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response (Correct answer)
Full cardiac arrest — begin CPR instructions
Complete airway obstruction requiring immediate Heimlich maneuver instructions

Correct answer: Partial airway obstruction — monitor and send appropriate response

The ability to speak indicates partial obstruction with air movement; complete obstruction presents with inability to speak, cough, or breathe.

Question 39: When a caller reports a patient is actively seizing, what is the EMD dispatcher's immediate priority?

Ask the caller to restrain the patient
Ensure the patient is safe and will not be injured (Correct answer)
Ask the caller to put something in the patient's mouth
Determine the patient's seizure history

Correct answer: Ensure the patient is safe and will not be injured

The immediate EMD priority during an active seizure is patient safety — clearing hazards from the area and never restraining the patient or placing objects in the mouth.

Question 40: Which of the following MPDS response levels is designated for the most critical, time-sensitive incidents like an unconscious patient who is not breathing, often allowing for the dispatch of the absolute closest unit, even if it's a non-standard resource?

DELTA
ECHO (Correct answer)
ALPHA
CHARLIE

Correct answer: ECHO

ECHO-level calls represent the most severe medical emergencies, such as a confirmed cardiac arrest, where immediate intervention is paramount. The system is designed to allow for the fastest possible response, which may include dispatching the absolute closest unit of any kind (e.g., a police officer with an AED) simultaneously with traditional EMS resources. DELTA calls are also life-threatening but do not have the same level of extreme time-criticality as ECHO calls.

Question 41: A patient is described as breathing but with gurgling sounds and decreased responsiveness. In EMD respiratory protocols, gurgling most commonly indicates:

Epiglottitis requiring immediate surgical intervention
Bronchospasm requiring bronchodilator intervention
Airway obstruction from fluid or secretions (Correct answer)
Normal breathing pattern in elderly patients

Correct answer: Airway obstruction from fluid or secretions

Gurgling respirations indicate fluid or secretions in the upper airway, requiring airway positioning and possible suction by responders.

Question 42: A caller reports a 45-year-old male who is unresponsive and not breathing. Which MPDS determinant suffix would most likely apply?

C – Charlie
A – Alpha
D – Delta (Correct answer)
B – Bravo

Correct answer: D – Delta

Cardiac and respiratory arrest cases default to a Delta-level determinant because they represent immediately life-threatening emergencies.

Question 43: A caller reports an elderly woman who slipped on ice and cannot get up. She is alert but says her hip 'popped.' What dispatch priority is MOST appropriate?

Police only — public assist
Emergency response — suspected hip fracture in elderly patient (Correct answer)
Cancel the call; patient is alert
Non-emergency transport only

Correct answer: Emergency response — suspected hip fracture in elderly patient

A suspected hip fracture in an elderly patient requires emergency response due to risk of blood loss, immobility, and rapid deterioration.

Question 44: Which situation would correctly trigger the use of the Eye Problems protocol?

Patient is unconscious with eyes rolled back
Patient has a stroke with vision changes
Patient has a headache with light sensitivity
Caller reports chemical splash to both eyes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Caller reports chemical splash to both eyes

Chemical exposure to the eyes is a direct ocular emergency managed by the Eye Problems protocol, which includes flush instructions.

Question 45: All available units are committed when a new life-threatening call is received. What is the most appropriate dispatcher action?

Activate mutual aid, provide pre-arrival instructions to the caller, and identify the unit with the shortest remaining commitment (Correct answer)
Advise the caller to seek their own transport to the hospital
Downgrade the call priority to reduce urgency in the queue
Hold the call silently until a unit becomes available

Correct answer: Activate mutual aid, provide pre-arrival instructions to the caller, and identify the unit with the shortest remaining commitment

When no units are free, simultaneous activation of mutual aid and caller instructions maintains patient safety during the coverage gap.

Question 46: When providing telephone CPR instructions, the dispatcher should direct the caller to compress the adult chest at what rate?

60-80 compressions per minute
80-100 compressions per minute
120-140 compressions per minute
100-120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

Current guidelines specify 100-120 chest compressions per minute for effective CPR in adults.

Question 47: Which MPDS protocol is typically used for pregnancy and childbirth emergency calls?

Protocol 7 (Burns)
Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB) (Correct answer)
Protocol 12 (Convulsions/Fitting)
Protocol 9 (Chest Pain)

Correct answer: Protocol 24 (Pregnancy/Childbirth/OB)

MPDS Protocol 24 specifically covers pregnancy and childbirth emergencies, including imminent delivery situations.

Question 48: Which patient presentation would prompt MPDS Telephone CPR (T-CPR) instructions from a dispatcher?

A patient with chest pain who is awake and speaking normally
A patient who is unresponsive and not breathing normally (Correct answer)
A patient with a sprained ankle after a minor fall
A patient with a severe headache and blurred vision

Correct answer: A patient who is unresponsive and not breathing normally

T-CPR instructions are initiated when the patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally, indicating probable cardiac arrest.

Question 49: In the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), which determinant level indicates the highest priority requiring an immediate life-threatening response?

Charlie
Delta (Correct answer)
Bravo
Alpha

Correct answer: Delta

Delta is the highest MPDS priority level, indicating a life-threatening situation requiring the fastest possible response.

Question 50: What infant airway difference is important to communicate when giving CPR instructions to a caller?

Children require faster chest compressions than adults
The infant's head should be tilted only slightly to avoid airway collapse (Correct answer)
Children have larger airways than adults
Infants do not require rescue breaths during CPR

Correct answer: The infant's head should be tilted only slightly to avoid airway collapse

An infant's airway is pliable, so a neutral or slight tilt is recommended; over-extension can actually collapse the airway.

Question 51: A caller reports their child swallowed a small object and is now silent with a blue tinge around the lips. The dispatcher should first instruct the caller to:

Begin abdominal thrusts immediately
Lay the child flat and start CPR
Have the child drink water to dislodge the object
Perform 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Perform 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts

For a severe infant or child choking victim who loses effective breathing, the dispatcher directs 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts (not abdominal thrusts for infants).

Question 52: For a responsive patient with a suspected complete airway obstruction due to choking, MPDS directs dispatchers to instruct bystanders to perform:

Rescue breathing
Back blows only
Chest compressions immediately
Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

Abdominal thrusts are the correct intervention for a conscious, responsive patient with a complete airway obstruction.

Question 53: A caller describes a patient with a large laceration that is 'spurting bright red blood' from the upper thigh. Which pre-arrival instruction is MOST appropriate?

Apply firm direct pressure immediately
Instruct caller to apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
Have the caller keep the patient talking and walking
Apply a cold compress and elevate the leg

Correct answer: Instruct caller to apply a tourniquet 2 inches above the wound

Spurting bright red blood from the thigh indicates arterial hemorrhage; a tourniquet is the recommended intervention for extremity arterial bleeding.

EMD Certification Exam (IAED/NAED)

The Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) certification exam, administered by the International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED), tests knowledge of medical priority dispatch protocols, caller interrogation techniques, and dispatch life support instructions.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

80%

To Pass

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