EDAIC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EDAIC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which regional anesthesia consideration is most important when planning a brachial plexus block for AV fistula creation in a CKD patient? → Limit local anesthetic dose because of altered protein binding increasing free drug
2. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is preferred in a patient with end-stage renal disease to avoid accumulation of active metabolites? → Atracurium
3. A second-generation supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA Supreme, i-gel) differs from a first-generation device primarily by: → Incorporating a gastric drainage channel and improved oropharyngeal seal
4. Another word that might describe complex carbohydrates is... → Polysaccharide
5. The fail-safe valve on an anesthesia machine is designed to prevent delivery of a hypoxic mixture by: → Cutting off nitrous oxide flow if oxygen pressure falls below threshold
6. The hepatic artery supplies approximately what percentage of total hepatic blood flow? → 25%
7. Which of these functional groups are you not going to find in a carbohydrate? → Sulfhydryl -SH
8. Which size supraglottic airway device (LMA Classic) is recommended for an adult patient weighing 70 kg? → Size 4
9. Which of these elements is NOT a constituent of Carbohydrates? → Nitrogen
10. High-flow nasal oxygen (HFNO) extends safe apnea time primarily by: → Flushing anatomical dead space with oxygen and generating a small CPAP effect
11. Which type of fire triangle element is represented by nitrous oxide in the context of operating room fires? → Oxidizer
12. Which of the following is considered the most serious, albeit infrequent, major complication associated with mediastinoscopy? → Major hemorrhage
13. Pulse oximetry can give falsely HIGH oxygen saturation readings in the presence of which condition? → Carboxyhemoglobin poisoning
14. Which volatile anesthetic agent is considered MOST hepatotoxic and carries the highest risk of immune-mediated fulminant hepatic necrosis? → Halothane
15. The Mallampati classification assesses which anatomical structures to predict difficult intubation? → Visibility of oropharyngeal structures including soft palate, uvula, and tonsillar pillars
16. The 'sniffing position' optimizes laryngoscopy by aligning which three axes? → Oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes
17. During the pre-use check of an anesthesia machine, the low-pressure system leak test is performed to assess integrity of: → Flowmeters, vaporizers, and breathing circuit up to the common gas outlet
18. During a video laryngoscopy with a hyperangulated blade, the most common reason for inability to pass the tube despite a good view is: → Failure to align the blade angle with the tube trajectory
19. Hyperkalemia in a renal failure patient undergoing anesthesia is a contraindication to which drug? → Succinylcholine
20. _____________ is the medical term for assistance given to a person in need of urgent medical intervention. → First aid
21. What degree of burn is sunburn (without blisters)? → First degree burn
22. In 1993, _________ received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for inventing PCR? → Kary Mullis
23. The primary indication for awake fiberoptic intubation (AFOI) is: → An anticipated difficult airway where loss of consciousness risks loss of the airway
24. Emergency cricothyrotomy is performed through which anatomical structure? → The cricothyroid membrane between thyroid and cricoid cartilages
25. Video laryngoscopy compared to direct laryngoscopy for anticipated difficult airways: → Improves glottic visualization but tube delivery can still be challenging
26. Which anesthetic drug should be AVOIDED in patients with adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) because it inhibits cortisol synthesis? → Etomidate
27. A cuffed endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained below which value to prevent tracheal mucosal ischemia? → 30 cmH2O
28. The sugars lactose, maltose, and sucrose all belong to which category of carbohydrates? → Disaccharides
29. A Cormack-Lehane Grade 3 view during direct laryngoscopy indicates: → Only the epiglottis is visible, no part of the glottis
30. The recommended pre-oxygenation target before RSI to maximize safe apnea duration is: → End-tidal oxygen (EtO₂) > 90% or SpO₂ > 98% maintained for at least 3 minutes