DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A 6-month-old intact female large-breed dog is spayed. Which early spay complication is this patient at increased risk for compared to spaying after first estrus?

Pyometra
Ovarian remnant syndrome
Urinary incontinence (Correct answer)
Mammary tumor

Correct answer: Urinary incontinence

Early spay before first estrus in large-breed dogs increases risk of hormone-responsive urinary incontinence due to incomplete urethral sphincter development.

Question 2: A Thoroughbred racehorse presents with exercise intolerance and dark red-brown urine after intense exercise. CK is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Pyelonephritis
Exertional rhabdomyolysis (tying-up) (Correct answer)
Equine infectious anemia
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

Correct answer: Exertional rhabdomyolysis (tying-up)

Exertional rhabdomyolysis causes muscle breakdown leading to markedly elevated CK, myoglobinuria (dark urine), and exercise intolerance in horses.

Question 3: A dairy herd has multiple cows with chronic weight loss, intermittent diarrhea, and hypoproteinemia. Fecal PCR is positive for Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis. What is the condition?

Ostertagiasis type II
Salmonellosis
Johne's disease (paratuberculosis) (Correct answer)
Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

Correct answer: Johne's disease (paratuberculosis)

Johne's disease is caused by MAP and produces granulomatous enteritis leading to protein-losing enteropathy with chronic diarrhea and progressive weight loss in adult cattle.

Question 4: A dog undergoing splenectomy for a ruptured splenic mass suddenly develops peaked T-waves and wide QRS complexes on the ECG monitor. What is the MOST likely electrolyte abnormality?

Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia (Correct answer)
Hypocalcemia
Hypokalemia

Correct answer: Hyperkalemia

Hyperkalemia causes peaked T-waves, QRS widening, and can progress to sine-wave pattern and ventricular fibrillation; it can occur with massive tissue release from tumor necrosis.

Question 5: Which pharmacokinetic parameter describes the fraction of an administered drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged?

Half-life
Clearance
Volume of distribution
Bioavailability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bioavailability

Bioavailability (F) is the fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in unchanged form, important for non-IV routes of administration.

Question 6: A dog presents with acute onset seizures, salivation, miosis, and muscle fasciculations after being in a garage. Which toxin is most likely?

Bromethalin
Ethylene glycol
Xylitol
Organophosphate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Organophosphate

Organophosphate toxicity causes cholinergic crisis: SLUDGE signs (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI distress, emesis) plus nicotinic effects like muscle fasciculations.

Question 7: During a wellness exam, you detect a grade III/VI left basilar systolic heart murmur in a 6-year-old Doberman Pinscher. Which condition is this breed most predisposed to?

Mitral valve disease
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy (Correct answer)
Pulmonary stenosis

Correct answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

Doberman Pinschers have a genetic predisposition to dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM), which can present with arrhythmias and congestive heart failure.

Question 8: Which protozoan parasite is an obligate intracellular pathogen transmitted by ingestion of oocysts and causes neosporosis (abortion storms) in cattle?

Cryptosporidium parvum
Toxoplasma gondii
Neospora caninum (Correct answer)
Sarcocystis neurona

Correct answer: Neospora caninum

Neospora caninum, with dogs as the definitive host and cattle as intermediate hosts, is the most common infectious cause of bovine abortion in the US.

Question 9: A veterinarian identifies a reportable foreign animal disease suspicion on a farm. What is the FIRST action they should take?

Contact the state veterinarian or USDA APHIS immediately and quarantine the premises (Correct answer)
Send samples to any commercial laboratory for rapid diagnosis
Notify the local media to alert surrounding farms
Begin immediate treatment of all affected animals

Correct answer: Contact the state veterinarian or USDA APHIS immediately and quarantine the premises

Foreign animal disease suspicions require immediate notification of the state veterinarian or USDA APHIS and implementation of a farm quarantine to prevent potential spread.

Question 10: Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is strictly contraindicated for use in growing large-breed dogs due to its potential to cause irreversible damage to articular cartilage?

Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Enrofloxacin (Correct answer)
Doxycycline
Metronidazole

Correct answer: Enrofloxacin

Enrofloxacin, a member of the fluoroquinolone class, has been shown to cause arthropathy, characterized by erosions in the articular cartilage of weight-bearing joints in growing animals. This effect makes its use contraindicated in small and medium breed dogs between 2 and 8 months of age and in large and giant breeds for up to 18 months. The other listed antibiotics do not carry this specific contraindication.

Question 11: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of ionophore toxicity (e.g., monensin) in cattle?

Direct hepatotoxicity via lipid peroxidation
Competitive inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase
Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase causing cholinergic crisis
Disruption of mitochondrial cation transport leading to cardiac and skeletal muscle necrosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Disruption of mitochondrial cation transport leading to cardiac and skeletal muscle necrosis

Ionophores disrupt mitochondrial sodium/potassium transport, causing energy depletion and cell death in cardiac and skeletal muscle, leading to myopathy and heart failure.

Question 12: Which hemostatic technique uses electrical current to coagulate vessels by converting electrical energy to heat?

Bipolar electrosurgery (Correct answer)
Ultrasonic dissection
Laser photocoagulation
Ligasure vessel sealing

Correct answer: Bipolar electrosurgery

Bipolar electrosurgery passes current between two forceps tips through tissue, generating heat that denatures protein and seals vessels with minimal lateral thermal spread.

Question 13: Antimicrobial stewardship in veterinary medicine requires that extra-label drug use (ELDU) in food animals must NEVER include which class of antimicrobials?

Penicillins in swine
Fluoroquinolones in food-producing animals (except as labeled) (Correct answer)
Tetracyclines in poultry feed
Macrolides used in cattle

Correct answer: Fluoroquinolones in food-producing animals (except as labeled)

Extra-label use of fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides in food-producing animals is explicitly prohibited by FDA due to concerns about resistance development in critically important human antibiotics.

Question 14: A 9-year-old Golden Retriever presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, significant weight loss, and peripheral edema. Bloodwork reveals panhypoproteinemia (both albumin and globulin are low). After ruling out other causes of protein loss (e.g., kidney, liver disease), a diagnosis of protein-losing enteropathy (PLE) is suspected. Which of the following is NOT a common underlying cause of PLE in dogs?

Intestinal lymphangiectasia
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
Intestinal neoplasia (e.g., lymphoma)
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)

While Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI) causes malabsorption, weight loss, and diarrhea, it does not typically cause the significant intestinal protein loss that defines PLE. The primary pathophysiology in EPI is a lack of digestive enzymes. Common causes of PLE involve diseases that damage the intestinal wall, leading to protein leakage, such as severe inflammatory bowel disease, intestinal lymphangiectasia (dilated lymphatic vessels), and intestinal cancer.

Question 15: A 12-year-old dog with mitral valve disease (MMVD) requires anesthesia for tooth extraction. Which induction protocol is MOST appropriate?

Ketamine/diazepam IV combination
Propofol IV titrated to effect after premedication (Correct answer)
Thiopental IV bolus
Mask induction with isoflurane for rapid control

Correct answer: Propofol IV titrated to effect after premedication

Propofol titrated IV allows careful dose adjustment to minimize cardiovascular depression in a compromised patient; mask induction causes stress and uncontrolled changes in depth.

Question 16: The standard cryoprotectant used in equine semen cryopreservation is:

Propylene glycol
Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
Ethylene glycol
Glycerol (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Glycerol

Glycerol (typically 2–5%) is the standard cryoprotectant for stallion semen freezing; it penetrates sperm membranes and protects against intracellular ice crystal formation during cryopreservation.

Question 17: A horse is presented with acute laminitis following grain overload. Which underlying pathophysiologic mechanism is most directly responsible for lamellar disruption?

Activation of matrix metalloproteinases degrading lamellar basement membrane (Correct answer)
Direct compression of the digital cushion by hoof wall
Thrombosis of the digital arteries causing ischemic necrosis
Immune complex deposition in the laminar vasculature

Correct answer: Activation of matrix metalloproteinases degrading lamellar basement membrane

In laminitis, MMP activation (particularly MMP-2 and MMP-9) degrades the lamellar basement membrane, disrupting the bond between the sensitive and insensitive lamellae.

Question 18: Which spinal cord lesion localization is consistent with a dog showing normal thoracic limb function but spastic paraplegia and absent conscious proprioception in pelvic limbs?

T3-L3 (Correct answer)
C6-T2
C1-C5
L4-S3

Correct answer: T3-L3

A T3-L3 lesion produces an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion of the pelvic limbs, causing spastic paresis/paralysis with intact thoracic limb function.

Question 19: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is most commonly transmitted to humans through direct contact with an infected animal's skin lesions or via fomites contaminated with fungal elements?

West Nile Virus
Dermatophytosis (Ringworm) (Correct answer)
Brucellosis
Leptospirosis

Correct answer: Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)

Dermatophytosis, or ringworm, is a superficial fungal infection of the keratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails). It is classically transmitted by direct contact with the fungal lesions on an infected animal or person, or indirectly through contact with contaminated fomites like bedding or grooming tools. Leptospirosis is typically transmitted via contaminated urine/water, West Nile Virus is vector-borne (mosquitoes), and Brucellosis is transmitted via contact with reproductive tissues or unpasteurized dairy.

Question 20: During a necropsy, you observe 'paint-brush' hemorrhages on the heart's epicardium of a pig. Which systemic disease should be highest on your differential list?

Erysipelas (Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome
African swine fever (Correct answer)
Glässer's disease

Correct answer: African swine fever

African swine fever characteristically produces petechial to ecchymotic hemorrhages on the epicardium and other serosal surfaces, along with massive splenomegaly.

Question 21: Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of 'hardware disease' (traumatic reticuloperitonitis) in cattle?

Volvulus of the reticulum on its mesentery
Ingested metallic foreign body penetrates the reticulum wall causing peritonitis (Correct answer)
Viral inflammation of the forestomachs
Bacterial infection of the rumen wall

Correct answer: Ingested metallic foreign body penetrates the reticulum wall causing peritonitis

Hardware disease occurs when ingested metal (wire, nails) penetrates the reticulum, causing localized or diffuse peritonitis; a magnet placed in the reticulum is the standard prevention.

Question 22: What is the primary advantage of the ventral midline approach over the flank approach for exploratory laparotomy in horses?

Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity (Correct answer)
Decreased risk of wound dehiscence
Reduced operative time
Ability to perform surgery in the standing horse

Correct answer: Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity

Ventral midline celiotomy provides access to all abdominal compartments, enabling the surgeon to examine, decompress, and correct any region of the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 23: What is the recommended management of a sequestrum following a long-bone fracture in cattle?

Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment (Correct answer)
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Systemic antibiotics alone until resolution
Intramedullary pinning to stabilize the fragment

Correct answer: Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment

A bone sequestrum is avascular necrotic bone that cannot be reached by antibiotics; surgical debridement and removal of the sequestrum is required for resolution of the infection.

Question 24: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is correctly matched with its primary animal reservoir in the United States?

Trichinellosis — cattle
Plague (Yersinia pestis) — white-tailed deer
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome — deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) (Correct answer)
West Nile virus — domestic dogs

Correct answer: Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome — deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus)

Deer mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) are the primary reservoir for Sin Nombre virus, the agent of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome in the US.

Question 25: A dog from Connecticut presents with shifting leg lameness, fever, and lethargy. A point-of-care ELISA test is positive for antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. This zoonotic disease, Lyme disease, is transmitted by a specific vector. Which of the following is the primary vector for Lyme disease in the northeastern United States?

Ctenocephalides felis (Cat flea)
Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick)
Ixodes scapularis (Black-legged or deer tick) (Correct answer)
Dermacentor variabilis (American dog tick)

Correct answer: Ixodes scapularis (Black-legged or deer tick)

*Borrelia burgdorferi*, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is primarily transmitted by the black-legged tick, *Ixodes scapularis*, in the northeastern and midwestern United States. *Dermacentor variabilis* transmits Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and *Amblyomma americanum* is associated with ehrlichiosis and alpha-gal syndrome. Fleas are vectors for other diseases like plague and bartonellosis but not Lyme disease.

Question 26: Which of the following scenarios is the primary indication for using an ACTH stimulation test over a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) when diagnosing hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) in a dog?

The dog has a history of recent, high-dose corticosteroid administration. (Correct answer)
The dog has concurrent diabetes mellitus.
To differentiate between pituitary-dependent and adrenal-dependent Cushing's.
The owner has significant financial constraints.

Correct answer: The dog has a history of recent, high-dose corticosteroid administration.

The ACTH stimulation test is the test of choice for diagnosing iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism, which is caused by the administration of exogenous corticosteroids. In this situation, the adrenal glands will be atrophied and will show a blunted or minimal response to ACTH stimulation. The LDDST is unreliable in these cases. While both tests can be affected by concurrent illness like diabetes, the LDDST is generally preferred for screening naturally occurring Cushing's due to its higher sensitivity. The LDDST, not the ACTH stim test, can sometimes help differentiate between pituitary and adrenal causes.

Question 27: A veterinarian is asked to advise on controlling Salmonella in a commercial poultry flock. Which intervention is MOST effective at the population level?

Increased stocking density to promote natural immunity
Vitamin supplementation only
Competitive exclusion products combined with vaccination (Correct answer)
Routine prophylactic antibiotic use in feed

Correct answer: Competitive exclusion products combined with vaccination

Competitive exclusion products introduce beneficial microflora that outcompete Salmonella, and when combined with vaccination, provide the most effective population-level control.

Question 28: A commercial poultry producer is designing a new broiler chicken facility and asks for your input on measures to reduce the introduction and spread of Salmonella enterica, a major food safety concern. Which of the following biosecurity measures is most critical for preventing the introduction of Salmonella into the flock?

Implementing a robust vaccination program against Marek's disease.
Using in-feed antibiotics for growth promotion throughout the grow-out period.
Sourcing chicks from a certified Salmonella-free hatchery and enforcing strict traffic control for personnel and equipment. (Correct answer)
Optimizing the lighting program to reduce stress in the flock.

Correct answer: Sourcing chicks from a certified Salmonella-free hatchery and enforcing strict traffic control for personnel and equipment.

The primary entry points for Salmonella into a flock are vertical transmission from the hatchery or horizontal transmission from a contaminated environment. Therefore, starting with Salmonella-free chicks and implementing strict biosecurity protocols, including controlling the movement of people, vehicles, and equipment (traffic control), are the most fundamental and effective preventive measures. While other factors like vaccination for other diseases and stress reduction are important for general flock health, they do not directly prevent the introduction of Salmonella as effectively.

Question 29: Which of the following is the recommended approach for managing a confirmed Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus (PEDV) outbreak on a naïve sow farm?

Immediate slaughter of all sows with diarrhea
Controlled feedback of virus-containing material to non-pregnant gilts and sows to accelerate herd immunity (Correct answer)
Strict individual isolation of every affected pig
Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics to all animals

Correct answer: Controlled feedback of virus-containing material to non-pregnant gilts and sows to accelerate herd immunity

Controlled exposure (feedback) of non-pregnant animals to virus-containing material accelerates development of lactogenic immunity in sows before farrowing, protecting piglets through colostrum.

Question 30: Bovine tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis) is primarily controlled in US cattle herds through which regulatory program?

Voluntary herd monitoring with no mandatory action
Mandatory annual vaccination with BCG
Prophylactic antibiotic treatment in all reactor animals
Federal-state cooperative test-and-slaughter program (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Federal-state cooperative test-and-slaughter program

The US bovine TB eradication program relies on the caudal fold tuberculin test (CFT) with slaughter of reactor animals and traceback investigations under federal-state cooperative authority.

Question 31: Which suture material is most appropriate for closing the uterine incision during a bovine caesarean section?

Chromic catgut in a Lembert pattern (Correct answer)
Stainless steel wire in a simple interrupted pattern
Monofilament nylon in a simple continuous pattern
Braided polyester in a horizontal mattress pattern

Correct answer: Chromic catgut in a Lembert pattern

Chromic catgut or synthetic absorbable suture in an inverting pattern (Lembert or Utrecht) is standard for uterine closure in cattle, providing adequate holding strength while being absorbed before subsequent pregnancies.

Question 32: Which of the following findings on abdominal ultrasound is most consistent with Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism) in a dog?

Adrenal mass unilaterally
Normal adrenal size with hepatomegaly
Large adrenal glands with mineralisation
Small, thin adrenal glands bilaterally (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Small, thin adrenal glands bilaterally

Primary hypoadrenocorticism causes adrenocortical atrophy, resulting in adrenal glands that appear smaller than normal (<3 mm) on ultrasound.

Question 33: A 4-year-old female Boer goat presents with acute neurological signs including stargazing, circling, and apparent blindness. The owner reports a recent change in feed, incorporating a higher concentration of grain. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate immediate treatment?

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE); supportive care
Tetanus; tetanus antitoxin and wound debridement
Listeriosis; high-dose penicillin
Polioencephalomalacia (PEM); injectable thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Polioencephalomalacia (PEM); injectable thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Polioencephalomalacia (PEM) is a neurological disease in ruminants often associated with a thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency. This deficiency can be induced by high-grain diets, which alter rumen microflora and can lead to the production of thiaminase enzymes that destroy thiamine. The clinical signs of apparent blindness, stargazing, and circling are classic for PEM. Prompt administration of high doses of injectable thiamine is the treatment of choice and can be diagnostic, often resulting in rapid improvement if administered early.

Question 34: In swine, which surgical technique is used for reduction of rectal prolapse in mild, acute cases?

Purse-string suture placement around the anus after manual reduction (Correct answer)
Amputation of the prolapsed segment
Submucosal resection
Colopexy via laparotomy

Correct answer: Purse-string suture placement around the anus after manual reduction

For acute, reducible rectal prolapse in pigs, manual reduction followed by placement of a purse-string suture to retain the rectum is the initial treatment; amputation is reserved for irreducible or necrotic prolapses.

Question 35: What is the most common cause of infectious tracheobronchitis ('kennel cough') in dogs?

Parainfluenza virus alone
Streptococcus canis
Bordetella bronchiseptica (Correct answer)
Canine distemper virus

Correct answer: Bordetella bronchiseptica

While kennel cough is often polymicrobial, Bordetella bronchiseptica is the primary bacterial pathogen and the basis for most kennel cough vaccines.

Question 36: Which species is known to have a bicornuate uterus with an extremely long uterine horn relative to its body size?

Pig (Correct answer)
Dog
Cow
Rabbit

Correct answer: Pig

Swine have very long uterine horns (up to 1.2 meters each) to accommodate their large litter sizes.

Question 37: Proventricular Dilatation Disease (PDD) in psittacine birds is caused by which pathogen?

Avian bornavirus (Correct answer)
Chlamydia psittaci
Avian paramyxovirus
Pacheco's disease virus

Correct answer: Avian bornavirus

Avian bornavirus (ABV) is the causative agent of PDD, leading to neurologic signs and impaired proventricular motility in parrots.

Question 38: Which reversal agent is used to antagonize the sedative and cardiovascular effects of medetomidine in dogs?

Naloxone
Atipamezole (Correct answer)
Flumazenil
Neostigmine

Correct answer: Atipamezole

Atipamezole is a selective alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist used to reverse medetomidine and dexmedetomidine sedation and bradycardia.

Question 39: A 10-year-old Quarter Horse gelding presents with a cresty neck, generalized obesity (BCS 8/9), and a history of recurrent laminitis. You suspect Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS). Which diagnostic test is considered the most sensitive for confirming insulin dysregulation associated with this condition?

Oral sugar test (OST) (Correct answer)
Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test
Baseline cortisol measurement
Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: Oral sugar test (OST)

Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS) is characterized by insulin dysregulation (ID), which is a key factor in the development of laminitis. While baseline insulin and glucose can be used as screening tools, they can be affected by stress or recent meals. The Oral Sugar Test (OST) is a dynamic test that is more sensitive for diagnosing ID. It involves administering a sugar solution (like Karo syrup) orally and measuring the insulin response over time, providing a more accurate assessment of the horse's ability to handle a carbohydrate challenge.

Question 40: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is classified as a CDC Category A bioterrorism agent AND is naturally transmitted from animals to humans?

Salmonellosis
Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) (Correct answer)
Leptospirosis
Psittacosis

Correct answer: Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

Bacillus anthracis is a Category A bioterrorism agent that naturally infects livestock and can be transmitted to humans via contact, ingestion, or inhalation.

Question 41: A dog is in Trendelenburg position during abdominal surgery. Which physiologic consequence is most likely?

Hypercapnia from reduced minute ventilation
Decreased cardiac preload
Decreased venous return
Increased intracranial pressure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Increased intracranial pressure

Trendelenburg (head-down) position shifts abdominal contents cranially and increases intracranial pressure by impeding venous drainage from the head.

Question 42: A pot-bellied pig receives 1200 mg of streptomycin from a zookeeper over the course of a day. If he administers the drug every 6 hours (q6h), how much mg does he give the pig per dose?

100 mg
300 mg (Correct answer)
400 mg
200 mg

Correct answer: 300 mg

A day consists of 24 hours. If the drug is administered every 6 hours (q6h), the pig receives the drug 24 / 6 = 4 times a day. To find the amount per dose, divide the total daily dosage by the number of doses: 1200 mg / 4 doses = 300 mg per dose.

Question 43: A 10-year-old Thoroughbred gelding presents with acute, severe abdominal pain that is unresponsive to analgesics. On rectal palpation, you identify multiple loops of tightly distended, edematous small intestine in the caudal abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step?

Pass a nasogastric tube and administer mineral oil.
Perform abdominocentesis to evaluate the peritoneal fluid.
Administer a different class of analgesic and re-evaluate in one hour.
Immediately refer the horse for an exploratory celiotomy. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately refer the horse for an exploratory celiotomy.

The finding of multiple loops of tightly distended and edematous small intestine on rectal palpation is highly suggestive of a strangulating obstruction, which is a surgical emergency. Delaying surgery significantly worsens the prognosis. While abdominocentesis and nasogastric intubation are important colic diagnostics, the rectal findings alone are sufficient to warrant immediate surgical referral.

Question 44: In rabies serosurveillance, what titer of virus-neutralizing antibodies (VNA) is considered acceptable evidence of response to rabies vaccination in dogs under the USDA standard?

≥0.1 IU/mL by RFFIT or FAVN
≥1.0 IU/mL by RFFIT or FAVN
≥2.0 IU/mL by RFFIT or FAVN
≥0.5 IU/mL by RFFIT or FAVN (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ≥0.5 IU/mL by RFFIT or FAVN

The WHO and USDA recognize ≥0.5 IU/mL as the minimum acceptable titer by RFFIT or FAVN for demonstrating adequate rabies vaccine response in animals and for international travel requirements.

Question 45: The Pringle maneuver, used during hepatic surgery in large animals and dogs, involves:

Ligation of the hepatic veins before parenchymal transection
Packing the hepatic sinuses with oxidized cellulose
Clamping the caudal vena cava above the liver
Digital occlusion of the hepatoduodenal ligament to reduce portal and hepatic arterial flow (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Digital occlusion of the hepatoduodenal ligament to reduce portal and hepatic arterial flow

The Pringle maneuver occludes the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the portal vein and hepatic artery) to reduce hepatic inflow and minimize hemorrhage during liver surgery.

Question 46: Which of the following is the MOST important biosecurity measure to prevent introduction of bovine leukemia virus (BLV) into a naïve herd?

Mass anthelmintic treatment at arrival
Vaccination of all incoming cattle
Quarantine for 30 days with respiratory monitoring only
Testing and culling of BLV-positive animals before introduction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Testing and culling of BLV-positive animals before introduction

BLV is transmitted via infected lymphocytes, so testing incoming cattle by ELISA or AGID and excluding seropositive animals is the most effective biosecurity measure.

Question 47: A feline tracheal wash yields a smear with many eosinophils and Curschmann's spirals. What condition does this suggest?

Pulmonary carcinoma
Bacterial pneumonia
Feline asthma (allergic bronchitis) (Correct answer)
Lungworm infection

Correct answer: Feline asthma (allergic bronchitis)

Eosinophilic airway inflammation with Curschmann's spirals (mucus plugs from small airways) is characteristic of feline allergic bronchitis (asthma).

Question 48: A ferret is presented with symmetrical alopecia, pot-bellied appearance, and pruritus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypothyroidism
Insulinoma
Sarcoptic mange
Hyperadrenocorticism (adrenal gland disease) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hyperadrenocorticism (adrenal gland disease)

Adrenal gland disease (often adrenocortical carcinoma or adenoma) is extremely common in ferrets and causes sex hormone excess leading to bilateral alopecia and pruritus.

Question 49: Which parameter best reflects the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) needed to prevent movement in 50% of patients exposed to a painful stimulus?

Brain partial pressure at induction
Inspired concentration during induction
Alveolar partial pressure at steady state (Correct answer)
ED50 of the inhalant in blood

Correct answer: Alveolar partial pressure at steady state

MAC is defined as the alveolar (end-tidal) partial pressure of an inhalant at steady state that prevents purposeful movement in 50% of subjects.

Question 50: A 7-year-old female spayed Golden Retriever is presented for evaluation of polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and a pot-bellied appearance. An ACTH stimulation test is performed. Which of the following results would be most consistent with a diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease)?

Normal pre-ACTH cortisol, markedly elevated post-ACTH cortisol (Correct answer)
High pre-ACTH cortisol, normal post-ACTH cortisol
Low pre-ACTH cortisol, low post-ACTH cortisol
Normal pre-ACTH cortisol, low post-ACTH cortisol

Correct answer: Normal pre-ACTH cortisol, markedly elevated post-ACTH cortisol

In a dog with hyperadrenocorticism, the adrenal glands have an exaggerated response to ACTH administration. This results in a post-stimulation cortisol level that is significantly above the normal reference range. A low pre- and post-ACTH cortisol is indicative of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).

Question 51: A dog receiving morphine via CRI develops pinpoint pupils, bradycardia, and respiratory depression. The first drug to administer is:

Atipamezole
Flumazenil
Naloxone (Correct answer)
Physostigmine

Correct answer: Naloxone

Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, miosis, and bradycardia.

Question 52: A veterinarian performing a necropsy on a cow that died acutely without premonitory signs in an anthrax-endemic region should FIRST:

Administer antibiotics to all farm personnel before beginning the necropsy
Submit the entire carcass to a diagnostic laboratory for full necropsy
Examine a blood smear from a peripheral vessel BEFORE opening the carcass (Correct answer)
Open the carcass immediately to collect diagnostic samples

Correct answer: Examine a blood smear from a peripheral vessel BEFORE opening the carcass

In suspected anthrax, opening the carcass is contraindicated as it exposes spores to oxygen and promotes sporulation; a peripheral blood smear should be examined first to confirm Bacillus anthracis.

Question 53: Which protozoan parasite is transmitted transplacentally and causes abortion and neonatal neurological disease in cattle?

Sarcocystis cruzi
Neospora caninum (Correct answer)
Toxoplasma gondii
Cryptosporidium parvum

Correct answer: Neospora caninum

Neospora caninum is a leading cause of bovine abortion; it is transmitted vertically (cow to calf) in up to 95% of cases in endemically infected herds.

Question 54: You are presented with a 4-year-old raccoon that was found acting aggressively in a suburban neighborhood and has now progressed to showing signs of ataxia and hypersalivation. The animal bites one of your technicians during the initial examination. What is the most critical and immediate first step a veterinarian should take in this situation?

Draw blood from the raccoon for a rabies antibody titer to confirm the diagnosis.
Administer post-exposure prophylaxis to the technician and the raccoon.
Immediately begin a 10-day quarantine period for the raccoon to observe for progression of signs.
Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities.

Due to the high-risk species (raccoon), classic clinical signs, and human exposure, rabies is the top differential. Public health and safety are paramount. The standard protocol for a suspect rabid wild animal that has exposed a human is to humanely euthanize it and submit the appropriate tissues (brain) for immediate testing to guide human post-exposure prophylaxis decisions. Contacting public health authorities is a legal requirement. A 10-day quarantine is reserved for domestic dogs, cats, and ferrets.

Question 55: Which analgesic is contraindicated in cats due to their deficiency in glucuronyl transferase enzymes and risk of fatal toxicity?

Acetaminophen (Correct answer)
Tramadol
Buprenorphine
Meloxicam

Correct answer: Acetaminophen

Cats lack adequate glucuronyl transferase to metabolize acetaminophen, leading to methemoglobinemia, hepatotoxicity, and death at doses safe for other species.

Question 56: Which of the following best describes balanced anesthesia in veterinary patients?

Administering a benzodiazepine and opioid without any inhalant
Combining multiple agents at lower doses to achieve hypnosis, analgesia, and muscle relaxation while minimizing side effects (Correct answer)
Using a single high-dose inhalant to achieve all anesthetic goals
Alternating between injectable and inhalant agents every 30 minutes

Correct answer: Combining multiple agents at lower doses to achieve hypnosis, analgesia, and muscle relaxation while minimizing side effects

Balanced anesthesia uses multiple drug classes (e.g., opioids, sedatives, local anesthetics, inhalants) at individually lower doses to achieve all anesthetic components while reducing adverse effects of any single agent.

Question 57: Which vaccine component is most important for preventing type C enterotoxemia (overeating disease) in sheep?

Clostridium perfringens type D toxoid
Clostridium tetani toxoid
Clostridium perfringens types C and D toxoid combined (Correct answer)
Clostridium perfringens type C toxoid

Correct answer: Clostridium perfringens types C and D toxoid combined

CDT vaccine (Clostridium perfringens types C and D plus tetanus toxoid) is the core small ruminant vaccine, providing protection against overeating disease and tetanus.

Question 58: A 6-year-old, spayed female Labrador Retriever is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The owner has started insulin therapy. Which clinical sign is the most reliable indicator for the owner to monitor at home to assess for hypoglycemia?

Increased appetite
Polyuria and polydipsia
Lethargy, weakness, or ataxia (Correct answer)
Weight loss

Correct answer: Lethargy, weakness, or ataxia

Lethargy, weakness, ataxia, and in severe cases, seizures, are classic clinical signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) resulting from an insulin overdose. While polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss are signs of uncontrolled diabetes (hyperglycemia), they are not indicative of an acute hypoglycemic event. An increased appetite can be seen with both hyperglycemia and early hypoglycemia, but weakness and neurologic signs are more specific and urgent indicators of low blood glucose.

Question 59: What is the primary purpose of performing a right paralumbar fossa omentopexy for the correction of a left displaced abomasum (LDA) in a dairy cow?

To suture the abomasum directly to the right body wall.
To create a permanent adhesion between the greater omentum and the right body wall, preventing redisplacement. (Correct answer)
To decompress the gas-filled abomasum before repositioning.
To manually break down any adhesions that have formed between the abomasum and the left body wall.

Correct answer: To create a permanent adhesion between the greater omentum and the right body wall, preventing redisplacement.

A right paralumbar omentopexy involves suturing the greater omentum, which is attached to the greater curvature of the abomasum, to the peritoneum and muscle layers of the right flank. This creates a permanent adhesion that holds the abomasum in its correct anatomical position, preventing future displacement. While decompression is part of the procedure, the pexy is the key to prevention of recurrence.

Question 60: What is the primary metabolic reason that most non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) must be used with extreme caution and at specific, validated doses and intervals in cats?

They frequently develop severe gastric ulceration after a single dose.
They are highly susceptible to NSAID-induced hepatotoxicity.
They have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme glucuronyl transferase. (Correct answer)
They are unable to produce protective prostaglandins in the stomach.

Correct answer: They have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme glucuronyl transferase.

Cats have a relative deficiency in the hepatic enzyme UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT), which is essential for glucuronidation, a major pathway for metabolizing and eliminating many drugs, including most NSAIDs. This metabolic difference results in a significantly prolonged drug half-life, increasing the risk of accumulation and toxicity (especially renal and gastrointestinal) if dosing is not appropriate.

Question 61: A dog receiving a morphine CRI post-surgery develops respiratory depression (rate 4 breaths/min). What is the CORRECT reversal agent and dose strategy?

Atipamezole at full reversal dose IM
Naloxone titrated IV in small incremental doses (Correct answer)
Yohimbine IV at 0.1 mg/kg
Flumazenil IV bolus

Correct answer: Naloxone titrated IV in small incremental doses

Naloxone is the opioid antagonist of choice; small incremental IV doses reverse respiratory depression while minimizing the risk of acute pain and cardiovascular excitation.

Question 62: Which vessel is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during a left flank laparotomy for bovine abomasal displacement correction?

Splenic artery
Left ruminal artery (Correct answer)
Left gastric artery
Cranial mesenteric artery

Correct answer: Left ruminal artery

The left ruminal artery runs along the left surface of the rumen and can be inadvertently injured when the surgeon is working in the left flank region near the rumen.

Question 63: A brachycephalic breed dog is presented for soft palate resection. Which preoperative concern is MOST critical for anesthetic planning?

Hepatic dysfunction affecting drug metabolism
Airway obstruction during recovery (Correct answer)
Increased sensitivity to opioids
Risk of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: Airway obstruction during recovery

Brachycephalic dogs are at highest risk for postoperative airway obstruction due to edema and anatomic abnormalities, making recovery the most critical phase.

Question 64: What is the significance of the 'eclipse period' in the replication cycle of a virus?

Time between infection and host immune response
Time between host death and viral inactivation
Period when no intact virions are detectable inside the cell (Correct answer)
Duration of the carrier state

Correct answer: Period when no intact virions are detectable inside the cell

The eclipse period follows viral uncoating; the parental virus is dismantled and progeny virions have not yet assembled, so no intact virus particles are detectable.

Question 65: A 5-year-old indoor cat is presented for emergency evaluation. The owner reports administering a single dose of an over-the-counter human pain reliever 12 hours ago. The cat is lethargic, with facial edema and muddy, cyanotic mucous membranes. These clinical signs are most consistent with toxicity from which drug, and what is the primary therapeutic antidote?

Naproxen; Omeprazole
Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine (Correct answer)
Aspirin; Vitamin K1
Ibuprofen; Misoprostol

Correct answer: Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine

Cats have a deficiency in the glucuronidation pathway for drug metabolism, making them extremely susceptible to acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicity. A toxic metabolite accumulates, causing oxidative damage to red blood cells, leading to the characteristic methemoglobinemia (muddy/brown mucous membranes), as well as facial and paw edema and hepatotoxicity. The specific antidote is N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes glutathione stores needed to neutralize the toxic metabolite.

Question 66: What is the recommended surgical treatment for a horse with grade IV laryngeal hemiplegia (roarer) competing at high performance levels?

Permanent tracheostomy
Prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie-back procedure) (Correct answer)
Ventriculocordectomy alone
Medical management with corticosteroids

Correct answer: Prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie-back procedure)

Prosthetic laryngoplasty (arytenoid lateralization/tie-back) is the preferred surgery for high-performance horses with laryngeal hemiplegia, restoring the airway diameter to improve exercise tolerance.

Question 67: Which technique is preferred to prevent regurgitation and aspiration in brachycephalic dogs during anesthetic induction?

Mask induction with isoflurane for 5 minutes before intubation
Administration of metoclopramide 2 hours before induction only
Pre-oxygenation followed by rapid sequence induction and immediate intubation (Correct answer)
Prolonged sedation with acepromazine before induction

Correct answer: Pre-oxygenation followed by rapid sequence induction and immediate intubation

Rapid sequence induction with pre-oxygenation minimizes the time the airway is unprotected, reducing aspiration risk in brachycephalic dogs prone to regurgitation.

Question 68: Which condition in neonatal foals is characterized by failure to absorb colostral immunoglobulins and is diagnosed by measuring serum IgG?

Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Septic arthritis
Failure of passive transfer (Correct answer)
Rhodococcus equi pneumonia

Correct answer: Failure of passive transfer

Failure of passive transfer (FPT) occurs when foals do not absorb sufficient IgG from colostrum within 24 hours of birth, leaving them immunocompromised.

Question 69: During a bovine dystocia, the calf's head is present but both forelimbs are retained. What maneuver corrects this presentation?

Repulsion of the head and manual flexion of forelimbs into the birth canal (Correct answer)
Application of obstetrical chains to the head only and traction
Immediate cesarean section
Fetotomy to remove the head

Correct answer: Repulsion of the head and manual flexion of forelimbs into the birth canal

The head must be repelled using a head snare or hand to create space while the forelimbs are individually flexed and brought into the birth canal before applying traction.

Question 70: Which reticulocyte response indicates adequate regeneration following acute hemorrhage in a dog?

Absolute reticulocyte count >60,000/µL
Absolute reticulocyte count >80,000/µL (Correct answer)
Any polychromasia on smear
Reticulocyte percentage >0.5%

Correct answer: Absolute reticulocyte count >80,000/µL

An absolute reticulocyte count above 80,000/µL is generally considered indicative of an adequate regenerative response in dogs.

Question 71: What is the most important prognostic indicator for survival after strangulating large intestinal lesions in horses?

Type of surgical approach used
Intraoperative blood loss volume
Duration and degree of bowel ischemia and systemic endotoxemia (Correct answer)
Age and breed of the horse

Correct answer: Duration and degree of bowel ischemia and systemic endotoxemia

The extent of intestinal ischemia and severity of systemic endotoxemia at the time of surgery are the strongest predictors of survival, as irreversible mucosal injury leads to endotoxin translocation and septic shock.

Question 72: Which drug is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci (psittacosis) infections in pet birds?

Enrofloxacin
Doxycycline (Correct answer)
Metronidazole
Amoxicillin

Correct answer: Doxycycline

Doxycycline is the drug of choice for treating psittacosis in birds and is typically given for 45 days to ensure elimination.

Question 73: A sensitivity analysis on a diagnostic test reveals that at 85% sensitivity and 95% specificity, the positive predictive value (PPV) drops below 50% when disease prevalence falls below approximately:

30%
25%
15%
8% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 8%

With 85% sensitivity and 95% specificity, PPV falls below 50% when prevalence drops below approximately 8%, illustrating how low prevalence dramatically reduces PPV.

Question 74: A goat kid 3 days old presents with watery diarrhea and weakness. Fecal ELISA is positive for rotavirus. What is the most critical supportive treatment?

Anthelmintics
Corticosteroids
Systemic antibiotics
Oral electrolyte fluid therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oral electrolyte fluid therapy

Viral neonatal diarrhea causes severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances; oral electrolyte replacement is the cornerstone of treatment since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.

Question 75: A swine herd shows signs of sneezing, nasal discharge, and facial deformity in young pigs. Which pathogen is the primary cause of atrophic rhinitis?

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
Pasteurella multocida toxigenic strains (Correct answer)
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Bordetella bronchiseptica alone

Correct answer: Pasteurella multocida toxigenic strains

Toxigenic strains of Pasteurella multocida produce a dermonecrotic toxin causing turbinate atrophy and facial deformity in progressive atrophic rhinitis.

Question 76: To perform a complete mandibular nerve block that desensitizes all teeth in the right mandible (quadrant 400) of a dog, where is the most appropriate anatomical target for local anesthetic deposition?

The mental foramen, located rostrally below the second premolar
The major palatine foramen, located on the hard palate
The mandibular foramen, located on the medial surface of the caudal mandible (Correct answer)
The infraorbital foramen, located rostral to the orbit

Correct answer: The mandibular foramen, located on the medial surface of the caudal mandible

A complete mandibular nerve block requires depositing local anesthetic at the mandibular foramen, where the inferior alveolar nerve enters the mandibular canal. This location, found on the medial (lingual) surface of the caudal mandible (ramus), will desensitize the entire quadrant, including all molars, premolars, the canine, and incisors. Blocking the mental foramen only affects the rostral structures. The infraorbital and major palatine foramina are associated with maxillary (upper jaw) blocks.

Question 77: A dog is presented after ingesting grapes approximately 1 hour ago. The dog is alert and asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

Administer IV fluids only
Perform gastric lavage under general anesthesia only
Observe for 24 hours before treating
Induce emesis with apomorphine or hydrogen peroxide, then administer activated charcoal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Induce emesis with apomorphine or hydrogen peroxide, then administer activated charcoal

Grape and raisin toxicity can cause acute renal failure in dogs; early emesis and activated charcoal are indicated in asymptomatic patients presenting within 2 hours.

Question 78: What training is necessary to become a veterinarian technician?

High school diploma
Doctor of Medicine
Associates degree (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Associates degree

To become a certified or licensed veterinary technician, individuals typically need to complete an Associate of Science (AS) or Associate of Applied Science (AAS) degree. These accredited programs provide the necessary theoretical knowledge and practical skills required for the profession.

Question 79: A 4-year-old male neutered Standard Poodle presents in a state of collapse. Bloodwork reveals a Na:K ratio of 21:1, azotemia, and hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) (Correct answer)
Acute renal failure
Severe gastrointestinal disease
Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

The classic electrolyte abnormalities for hypoadrenocorticism are hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, which result in a low sodium-to-potassium (Na:K) ratio, typically below 27:1. The combination of these electrolyte changes with collapse, azotemia, and hypoglycemia in a predisposed breed makes Addison's disease the top differential.

Question 80: Which of the following best describes the normal body temperature range for most companion parrots?

95–98°F (35–36.7°C)
107–110°F (41.7–43.3°C)
99–101°F (37.2–38.3°C)
104–106°F (40–41.1°C) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 104–106°F (40–41.1°C)

Most psittacine birds have a normal body temperature of 104–106°F (40–41.1°C), which is significantly higher than mammals.

Question 81: A horse has peritoneal fluid with a total protein of 3.8 g/dL and nucleated cell count of 12,000/µL with 90% neutrophils. What is the diagnosis?

Septic peritonitis (Correct answer)
Transudative effusion
Normal peritoneal fluid
Chylous effusion

Correct answer: Septic peritonitis

Elevated protein and a predominantly neutrophilic pleocytosis above 10,000/µL in equine peritoneal fluid indicates septic peritonitis.

Question 82: The minimum number of organisms necessary to cause infection reveals

Virulence
Pathogenicity
Infectivity (Correct answer)
Susceptibility

Correct answer: Infectivity

Infectivity refers to the ability of a pathogen to establish an infection in a host, and it is often quantified by the infectious dose (ID50). This is the minimum number of organisms required to cause infection in 50% of exposed individuals. This concept helps characterize how easily a pathogen can initiate disease, distinguishing it from virulence (severity) or pathogenicity (general ability to cause disease).

Question 83: Which electrolyte imbalance is classically associated with 'downer cow syndrome' after parturition?

Hypocalcemia (Correct answer)
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: Hypocalcemia

Parturient paresis (milk fever) results from acute hypocalcemia as calcium demand for colostrum and milk production exceeds mobilization capacity.

Question 84: Wound closure by second intention (healing by granulation) is most appropriate for which of the following scenarios in a dog?

A clean laceration over the thorax less than 6 hours old
A fresh bite wound on the neck with moderate tissue loss
A heavily contaminated degloving injury of the distal limb (Correct answer)
An elective flank incision after splenectomy

Correct answer: A heavily contaminated degloving injury of the distal limb

Heavily contaminated wounds with significant tissue loss are best managed by open wound care and second-intention healing to avoid sealing infection under a primary closure.

Question 85: A cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a pendulous abdomen. Bloodwork shows hyperglycemia and elevated liver enzymes. Which condition is most likely?

Hyperthyroidism
Hyperadrenocorticism (Correct answer)
Diabetes mellitus
Chronic kidney disease

Correct answer: Hyperadrenocorticism

Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) in cats causes PU/PD, pot-bellied appearance, and elevated liver enzymes due to excess cortisol.

Question 86: A cat has a platelet count of 28,000/µL with large platelets on smear and no evidence of bleeding. What should be ruled out first?

DIC
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
Platelet clumping artifact (Correct answer)
Bone marrow failure

Correct answer: Platelet clumping artifact

Feline platelets commonly clump in EDTA samples, causing a falsely low count; smear evaluation for clumps is essential before diagnosing true thrombocytopenia.

Question 87: A dog has a serum calcium of 14.5 mg/dL and a PTH-rP level that is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Primary hyperparathyroidism
Hypoadrenocorticism
Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (Correct answer)
Vitamin D toxicosis

Correct answer: Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy

PTH-related protein (PTH-rP) is secreted by neoplasms (commonly anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinoma and lymphoma) and is the leading cause of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy.

Question 88: Rectal palpation of pregnancy in mares typically becomes reliably diagnostic at approximately:

Day 10–14
Day 60–70
Day 90–100
Day 25–30 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Day 25–30

Although ultrasound detects equine pregnancy from day 10–12, rectal palpation reliably identifies pregnancy at approximately day 25–30 when the uterine bulge and altered uterine tone are palpable.

Question 89: A group of recently weaned beef calves arrives at a feedlot after a long transport. Within 10 days, several calves develop a fever (105°F), depression, nasal discharge, and a moist cough. This complex, multifactorial respiratory disease is commonly referred to as Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD) or 'shipping fever'. Which of the following is NOT a primary viral pathogen typically associated with initiating BRD complex?

Parainfluenza-3 (PI3) virus
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) agent (Correct answer)
Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) virus
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) virus

Correct answer: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) agent

Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD) is a complex initiated by stress and primary viral infections, which then allows for secondary bacterial pneumonia. Common viral culprits include Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR, a herpesvirus), Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) virus, Parainfluenza-3 (PI3) virus, and Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV). Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) is a progressive, fatal neurological disease caused by a prion, not a virus, and is not involved in the pathogenesis of BRD.

Question 90: A dairy farm worker develops flu-like symptoms, hepatitis, and endocarditis weeks after exposure to parturient cattle. The most likely zoonotic diagnosis is:

Bovine brucellosis
Campylobacteriosis
Q fever (Coxiella burnetii) (Correct answer)
Listeriosis

Correct answer: Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)

Q fever caused by Coxiella burnetii is strongly associated with parturient ruminants and can progress to chronic endocarditis in some patients.

Question 91: A puppy presents with intussusception confirmed via ultrasound. Which predisposing condition should be ruled out after surgical correction?

Hepatic lipidosis
Parvoviral enteritis (Correct answer)
Pancreatitis
Urinary tract infection

Correct answer: Parvoviral enteritis

Canine parvovirus causes severe enteritis and hypermotility that predisposes puppies to intussusception, and its presence determines additional management.

Question 92: A 9-year-old Boxer presents with a 2-month history of progressive seizures. To best evaluate the brain parenchyma for a suspected intracranial mass, which imaging modality provides the highest level of soft tissue detail and is considered the gold standard?

Survey skull radiographs
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) (Correct answer)
Abdominal ultrasound
Computed Tomography (CT)

Correct answer: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is the superior imaging modality for evaluating soft tissues, including the brain parenchyma, due to its excellent contrast resolution. It is considered the gold standard for diagnosing intracranial masses like tumors, inflammation, or infarcts. Computed Tomography (CT) is better for bone and can detect some large masses but provides significantly less detail of the brain's soft tissue structures compared to MRI. Skull radiographs are not useful for viewing the brain itself.

Question 93: Which of the following best describes relaxin's role in canine reproduction?

It causes cervical softening for parturition but is only detectable at term
It stimulates oxytocin-mediated milk letdown in lactating bitches
It induces luteolysis at the end of diestrus in preparation for the next cycle
It is produced by the placenta and serves as a detectable serum marker of true pregnancy from approximately day 25–30 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It is produced by the placenta and serves as a detectable serum marker of true pregnancy from approximately day 25–30

Canine relaxin is produced exclusively by the chorioallantoic placenta and is detectable in blood by approximately days 25–30, distinguishing true pregnancy from pseudopregnancy in bitches.

Question 94: A beef cattle herd is experiencing reproductive losses. Serology confirms Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV). What is the most important control strategy?

Immediate herd depopulation
Antibiotic treatment of all animals
Identify and remove persistently infected (PI) animals (Correct answer)
Isolation of pregnant cows only

Correct answer: Identify and remove persistently infected (PI) animals

Persistently infected (PI) animals are the primary reservoir of BVDV and shed large amounts of virus continuously, so their identification and removal is essential for control.

Question 95: Which toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum is most commonly associated with forage poisoning (shaker foal syndrome) in horses?

Type D
Type A
Type B (Correct answer)
Type C

Correct answer: Type B

Clostridium botulinum type B is the most common cause of equine botulism (shaker foal syndrome) in the eastern United States.

Question 96: A veterinary student develops a painful pustular lesion on the hand after working with sheep at a teaching farm. The causative agent is most likely:

Parapoxvirus (orf virus) (Correct answer)
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus anthracis
Dermatophilus congolensis

Correct answer: Parapoxvirus (orf virus)

Orf (contagious ecthyma) caused by parapoxvirus is a classic occupational zoonosis of sheep and goat handlers, producing self-limiting pustular skin lesions.

Question 97: A 4-year-old cat with a history of intermittent coughing and wheezing presents for acute respiratory distress. Thoracic radiographs reveal severely thickened bronchial walls, seen as 'donuts' and 'railroad tracks', and a flattened diaphragm. Which pulmonary pattern is most prominent?

Interstitial pattern
Vascular pattern
Bronchial pattern (Correct answer)
Alveolar pattern

Correct answer: Bronchial pattern

The classic radiographic signs of 'donuts' (thickened bronchi seen end-on) and 'railroad tracks' (thickened bronchi seen longitudinally) are pathognomonic for a bronchial pattern. A flattened diaphragm indicates pulmonary hyperinflation, which is also commonly seen with feline lower airway disease (asthma). An alveolar pattern would show air bronchograms and lobar signs, an interstitial pattern involves the lung parenchyma between the airways and vessels, and a vascular pattern relates to the size of the pulmonary arteries and veins.

Question 98: Which antibiotic is commonly administered intraperitoneally during equine colic surgery to reduce the risk of peritonitis?

Ampicillin
Gentamicin (Correct answer)
Oxytetracycline
Penicillin G

Correct answer: Gentamicin

Gentamicin is frequently diluted in saline and lavaged into the peritoneal cavity during and after equine abdominal surgery to reduce gram-negative bacterial contamination and the risk of peritonitis.

Question 99: Which condition in horses is characterized by necrosis of the digital cushion and palmar/plantar structures, often requiring partial digit amputation?

White line disease
Solar abscess
Canker (Correct answer)
Septic pedal osteitis

Correct answer: Canker

Canker is a chronic, proliferative, anaerobic infection of the frog and digital cushion that, in advanced cases unresponsive to debridement, may require partial or complete digit amputation.

Question 100: A veterinarian suspects Yersinia pestis (plague) in a prairie dog colony in New Mexico. Appropriate immediate public health actions include:

Relocating prairie dogs to unaffected areas to prevent colony collapse
Treating prairie dogs with antibiotics in the field to reduce reservoir burden
Notifying public health authorities and applying insecticide to reduce flea populations (Correct answer)
Fencing the area to prevent human access without notifying health authorities

Correct answer: Notifying public health authorities and applying insecticide to reduce flea populations

Plague control requires immediate notification of public health authorities and flea reduction, as fleas are the primary transmission vector and insecticide application interrupts the cycle.

DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam

The DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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