DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A 5-month-old Great Dane presents with a fever, lethargy, and painful, swollen metaphyses of the long bones. Radiographs of the distal radius and ulna reveal irregular radiolucent lines in the metaphyses, parallel to the physes, sometimes referred to as a 'double physis sign'. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Retained ulnar cartilage core
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
Panosteitis
Hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD)

The signalment (young, giant-breed dog), clinical signs (fever, bone pain, swollen metaphyses), and classic radiographic finding of a radiolucent line in the metaphysis parallel to the physis ('double physis sign') are all characteristic of hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD). Panosteitis appears as shifting leg lameness with increased intramedullary opacities. Retained ulnar cartilage cores show a persistent radiolucent cone in the distal ulnar metaphysis. OCD involves a cartilage flap or defect, typically on an articular surface.

Question 2: In horses, which condition is characterized by accumulation of gas in the cecum unresponsive to medical treatment?

Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
Proximal enteritis
Cecal tympany (Correct answer)
Cecal impaction

Correct answer: Cecal tympany

Cecal tympany involves gas distension of the cecum; when medical decompression fails, surgical cecostomy or typhlotomy may be required to relieve the pressure.

Question 3: Which of the following is the most common and clinically significant adverse effect associated with phenylbutazone administration in horses?

Hepatotoxicity
Laminitis
Right dorsal colitis (Correct answer)
Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: Right dorsal colitis

Phenylbutazone is a non-selective NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes. The inhibition of COX-1 reduces the production of protective prostaglandins in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to mucosal damage. The right dorsal colon is particularly susceptible to this ischemic injury, resulting in ulceration, protein loss, and colic. While renal toxicity can occur, especially with dehydration, and other side effects are possible, right dorsal colitis is the most classic and feared complication.

Question 4: A client brings a fecal sample from their new 8-week-old puppy. On fecal flotation, you identify eggs of Toxocara canis. The client has young children and is concerned about health risks. Which of the following represents the most significant zoonotic risk associated with this parasite in children?

Cutaneous larva migrans, causing intensely pruritic, serpiginous tracks in the skin.
Hydatid disease, characterized by the formation of large, fluid-filled cysts in the liver and lungs.
Neurocysticercosis, leading to seizures and neurological deficits from larval cysts in the brain.
Ocular larva migrans, potentially causing unilateral vision loss or strabismus. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ocular larva migrans, potentially causing unilateral vision loss or strabismus.

Toxocara canis larvae, if ingested by humans (a paratenic host), can migrate through tissues. Migration to the eye causes Ocular Larva Migrans (OLM), a significant cause of unilateral vision loss in children. Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by hookworms (*Ancylostoma spp.*). Neurocysticercosis is caused by the tapeworm *Taenia solium*. Hydatid disease is caused by the tapeworm *Echinococcus granulosus*.

Question 5: Which of the following is the correct venipuncture site most commonly used in birds for blood collection?

Cephalic vein
Femoral vein
Jugular vein (Correct answer)
Saphenous vein

Correct answer: Jugular vein

The right jugular vein is the preferred site for blood collection in birds due to its large size and accessibility.

Question 6: A dog presents with acute onset of hematuria, stranguria, and pollakiuria. Urinalysis reveals struvite crystals and a urine pH of 7.8. Which diet change is most appropriate?

Decrease water intake
Feed a high-fiber diet
Increase dietary protein
Prescribe a urinary acidifying diet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prescribe a urinary acidifying diet

Struvite crystals form in alkaline urine, so an acidifying prescription diet helps dissolve existing crystals and prevents recurrence.

Question 7: Which of the following is considered the most common and clinically significant long-term complication following a laryngoplasty ('tie-back') procedure in a horse for treatment of recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?

Persistent roaring during exercise.
Chronic coughing and/or dysphagia. (Correct answer)
Incisional site infection or seroma.
Suture failure leading to loss of abduction.

Correct answer: Chronic coughing and/or dysphagia.

By permanently abducting one of the arytenoid cartilages, a laryngoplasty compromises the larynx's ability to fully close and protect the airway during swallowing. This can lead to chronic, low-grade aspiration of food and saliva, resulting in persistent coughing or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). While suture failure and infection can occur, chronic coughing is a more frequent long-term management challenge.

Question 8: Which analgesic drug is considered safe and effective for pain management in rabbits and is commonly used post-operatively?

Meloxicam (Correct answer)
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Ibuprofen

Correct answer: Meloxicam

Meloxicam, an NSAID, is widely used and considered safe for perioperative analgesia in rabbits at appropriate doses.

Question 9: Which opioid is MOST appropriate for providing intraoperative analgesia in a dog undergoing a painful orthopedic procedure?

Tramadol
Buprenorphine
Morphine (Correct answer)
Butorphanol

Correct answer: Morphine

Morphine is a full mu-opioid agonist providing superior analgesia for painful procedures compared to the partial agonist buprenorphine or the mixed agonist-antagonist butorphanol.

Question 10: A 10-year-old Thoroughbred gelding presents with acute, severe abdominal pain that is unresponsive to analgesics. On rectal palpation, you identify multiple loops of tightly distended, edematous small intestine in the caudal abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step?

Administer a different class of analgesic and re-evaluate in one hour.
Pass a nasogastric tube and administer mineral oil.
Perform abdominocentesis to evaluate the peritoneal fluid.
Immediately refer the horse for an exploratory celiotomy. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately refer the horse for an exploratory celiotomy.

The finding of multiple loops of tightly distended and edematous small intestine on rectal palpation is highly suggestive of a strangulating obstruction, which is a surgical emergency. Delaying surgery significantly worsens the prognosis. While abdominocentesis and nasogastric intubation are important colic diagnostics, the rectal findings alone are sufficient to warrant immediate surgical referral.

Question 11: You are called to a dairy farm to examine a cow that calved 6 hours ago. The owner reports a large, reddish mass protruding from the vulva. Upon examination, you identify a complete uterine prolapse with the caruncles visible. The cow is standing but straining. Which of the following is the most critical first step in managing this case?

Start intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Administer a caudal epidural anesthetic. (Correct answer)
Administer a high dose of oxytocin to cause uterine involution.
Immediately attempt to manually replace the uterus using firm pressure.

Correct answer: Administer a caudal epidural anesthetic.

The most critical first step in managing a uterine prolapse is to administer a caudal epidural anesthetic. This will stop the cow's straining (tenesmus), which is essential for successful replacement of the uterus and prevents further trauma to the tissue. Attempting replacement without an epidural is often futile and can lead to uterine rupture or other complications. While fluid therapy and antibiotics are important supportive measures and cleaning/reducing edema of the uterus is necessary, controlling the straining via anesthesia must be done first.

Question 12: PPR disease causes high mortality and is more severe than

Goats (Correct answer)
Buffalo
Sheep
Cattle

Correct answer: Goats

Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR), also known as sheep and goat plague, is a highly contagious viral disease primarily affecting small ruminants. While both sheep and goats can be infected, the disease is generally more severe and causes higher mortality rates in goats compared to sheep. This difference in susceptibility is a key epidemiological characteristic of PPR.

Question 13: A beef cattle herd is experiencing reproductive losses. Serology confirms Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV). What is the most important control strategy?

Antibiotic treatment of all animals
Identify and remove persistently infected (PI) animals (Correct answer)
Isolation of pregnant cows only
Immediate herd depopulation

Correct answer: Identify and remove persistently infected (PI) animals

Persistently infected (PI) animals are the primary reservoir of BVDV and shed large amounts of virus continuously, so their identification and removal is essential for control.

Question 14: A 2-year-old male Boer goat presents for stranguria and vocalization. You perform a urethral process amputation, which successfully relieves the obstruction. However, the goat re-obstructs 24 hours later. The owner wants to pursue further treatment for this valued pet. What is the most appropriate surgical option to provide long-term patency?

Perineal urethrostomy.
Bladder marsupialization.
Tube cystostomy. (Correct answer)
Repeated urethral process amputation.

Correct answer: Tube cystostomy.

A tube cystostomy is considered the gold standard for treating recurrent obstructive urolithiasis in small ruminants intended to be kept long-term. It diverts urine flow, allowing the urethra to heal and small calculi to pass without causing obstruction. A perineal urethrostomy is a salvage procedure often complicated by stricture, and bladder marsupialization has a high rate of ascending infection and urine scald.

Question 15: A farmer presents a 4-week-old calf with a soft, non-painful, easily reducible swelling at the umbilicus approximately 3 cm in diameter. There are no signs of infection or systemic illness. What is the most appropriate initial management recommendation?

Recommend immediate application of a hernia clamp.
Prescribe a course of systemic antibiotics to prevent infection.
Suggest monitoring; many small, uncomplicated hernias resolve spontaneously. (Correct answer)
Advise surgical repair within the next week.

Correct answer: Suggest monitoring; many small, uncomplicated hernias resolve spontaneously.

Small (less than 5 cm or '2-3 fingers' wide), uncomplicated, reducible umbilical hernias in young calves often resolve without intervention as the calf grows and the abdominal wall strengthens. Surgical correction is typically delayed until the calf is older (e.g., weaning) if the hernia persists or enlarges. Hernia clamps are generally not recommended due to risk of complications, and antibiotics are not indicated without evidence of infection.

Question 16: You are performing a contrast study on a dog with a history of being hit by a car and suspect a gastrointestinal perforation. Which type of contrast agent is the safest and most appropriate choice for this study?

Ionic iodinated contrast medium
Barium sulfate suspension
Non-ionic iodinated contrast medium (Correct answer)
Room air (negative contrast)

Correct answer: Non-ionic iodinated contrast medium

If a gastrointestinal perforation is suspected, barium sulfate is contraindicated because its leakage into the peritoneum can cause severe granulomatous inflammation and adhesions. A non-ionic iodinated contrast medium is the agent of choice because it is water-soluble, readily absorbed from the peritoneal cavity, and has lower osmolality than ionic agents, reducing the risk of fluid shifts and pulmonary edema if aspirated. While room air can be used, it provides less detail and may not definitively identify the site of leakage compared to a positive contrast agent.

Question 17: A 4-year-old female Boer goat presents with acute neurological signs including stargazing, circling, and apparent blindness. The owner reports a recent change in feed, incorporating a higher concentration of grain. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate immediate treatment?

Listeriosis; high-dose penicillin
Tetanus; tetanus antitoxin and wound debridement
Polioencephalomalacia (PEM); injectable thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Correct answer)
Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE); supportive care

Correct answer: Polioencephalomalacia (PEM); injectable thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Polioencephalomalacia (PEM) is a neurological disease in ruminants often associated with a thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency. This deficiency can be induced by high-grain diets, which alter rumen microflora and can lead to the production of thiaminase enzymes that destroy thiamine. The clinical signs of apparent blindness, stargazing, and circling are classic for PEM. Prompt administration of high doses of injectable thiamine is the treatment of choice and can be diagnostic, often resulting in rapid improvement if administered early.

Question 18: Which drug is the treatment of choice for Chlamydia psittaci (psittacosis) infections in pet birds?

Doxycycline (Correct answer)
Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
Enrofloxacin

Correct answer: Doxycycline

Doxycycline is the drug of choice for treating psittacosis in birds and is typically given for 45 days to ensure elimination.

Question 19: Proventricular Dilatation Disease (PDD) in psittacine birds is caused by which pathogen?

Avian bornavirus (Correct answer)
Pacheco's disease virus
Avian paramyxovirus
Chlamydia psittaci

Correct answer: Avian bornavirus

Avian bornavirus (ABV) is the causative agent of PDD, leading to neurologic signs and impaired proventricular motility in parrots.

Question 20: A 2-year-old cat is evaluated for acute vomiting and anorexia. On abdominal radiographs, the small intestinal loops appear clustered in the mid-abdomen. Several gas bubbles within the intestines have eccentric, crescent, or triangular shapes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Intussusception of the jejunum.
Diffuse inflammatory bowel disease.
Plication of the small intestines due to a linear foreign body. (Correct answer)
Mechanical obstruction from a simple foreign body (e.g., a ball).

Correct answer: Plication of the small intestines due to a linear foreign body.

The radiographic signs described, particularly the bunching or plication of the intestines and the presence of abnormally shaped, eccentric gas bubbles (sometimes called 'tapered enteric gas bubbles' or part of a 'string of pearls' sign), are pathognomonic for a gastrointestinal linear foreign body. The intestines bunch up as they try to move the anchored linear object via peristalsis.

Question 21: Which mechanism does ivermectin use to kill parasites?

Disrupting microtubule polymerization
Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Blocking glutamate-gated chloride channels causing hyperpolarization (Correct answer)
Inhibiting fumarate reductase

Correct answer: Blocking glutamate-gated chloride channels causing hyperpolarization

Ivermectin potentiates glutamate-gated chloride channels in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells, causing irreversible hyperpolarization and paralysis.

Question 22: In ferrets, which endocrine tumor is extremely common and often causes episodic weakness, ptyalism, and hypoglycemia?

Adrenal pheochromocytoma
Insulinoma (Correct answer)
Pituitary adenoma
Thyroid adenoma

Correct answer: Insulinoma

Insulinomas (pancreatic beta-cell tumors) are very common in ferrets and cause hypoglycemia, leading to weakness and seizures.

Question 23: In a swine operation, what does the 'all-in/all-out' (AIAO) management system primarily prevent?

Introduction of new genetic material
Horizontal transmission of pathogens between age groups (Correct answer)
Nutritional deficiencies in growing pigs
Vertical transmission of pathogens from sows to piglets

Correct answer: Horizontal transmission of pathogens between age groups

AIAO management prevents older, immune animals from continuously re-exposing naive younger animals to pathogens, breaking the cycle of horizontal transmission.

Question 24: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is most commonly transmitted to humans through direct contact with an infected animal's skin lesions or via fomites contaminated with fungal elements?

Dermatophytosis (Ringworm) (Correct answer)
Brucellosis
Leptospirosis
West Nile Virus

Correct answer: Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)

Dermatophytosis, or ringworm, is a superficial fungal infection of the keratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails). It is classically transmitted by direct contact with the fungal lesions on an infected animal or person, or indirectly through contact with contaminated fomites like bedding or grooming tools. Leptospirosis is typically transmitted via contaminated urine/water, West Nile Virus is vector-borne (mosquitoes), and Brucellosis is transmitted via contact with reproductive tissues or unpasteurized dairy.

Question 25: A cat develops bronchospasm immediately after induction with ketamine and is placed on oxygen. What is the MOST likely contributing factor?

Hypersensitivity to ketamine's preservative
Ketamine-induced laryngospasm in cats (Correct answer)
Inadequate premedication with a benzodiazepine
Excessive salivation causing airway obstruction

Correct answer: Ketamine-induced laryngospasm in cats

Cats are particularly prone to laryngospasm, and ketamine increases salivary and bronchial secretions, predisposing them to airway obstruction.

Question 26: How long does it take to become a veterinarian?

7-9 years (Correct answer)
2 years
1 year
4-5 years

Correct answer: 7-9 years

Becoming a veterinarian requires extensive education, typically involving a 4-year undergraduate degree followed by a 4-year Doctor of Veterinary Medicine (DVM) program. This totals approximately 8 years of post-secondary education, with some individuals taking longer for prerequisites or specialized training.

Question 27: The investigation of illness origins is:

Biology
Etiology (Correct answer)
Toxicology
Pathology

Correct answer: Etiology

Etiology is the branch of medical science that deals with the causes and origins of diseases or conditions. It involves identifying the factors, such as pathogens, genetic predispositions, or environmental influences, that contribute to the development of an illness. Understanding etiology is crucial for effective diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies.

Question 28: What is the primary advantage of the ventral midline approach over the flank approach for exploratory laparotomy in horses?

Reduced operative time
Decreased risk of wound dehiscence
Ability to perform surgery in the standing horse
Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Superior visualization and access to the entire abdominal cavity

Ventral midline celiotomy provides access to all abdominal compartments, enabling the surgeon to examine, decompress, and correct any region of the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 29: A 5-year-old indoor cat is presented for emergency evaluation. The owner reports administering a single dose of an over-the-counter human pain reliever 12 hours ago. The cat is lethargic, with facial edema and muddy, cyanotic mucous membranes. These clinical signs are most consistent with toxicity from which drug, and what is the primary therapeutic antidote?

Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine (Correct answer)
Ibuprofen; Misoprostol
Naproxen; Omeprazole
Aspirin; Vitamin K1

Correct answer: Acetaminophen; N-acetylcysteine

Cats have a deficiency in the glucuronidation pathway for drug metabolism, making them extremely susceptible to acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicity. A toxic metabolite accumulates, causing oxidative damage to red blood cells, leading to the characteristic methemoglobinemia (muddy/brown mucous membranes), as well as facial and paw edema and hepatotoxicity. The specific antidote is N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes glutathione stores needed to neutralize the toxic metabolite.

Question 30: Which drug class is used as a constant rate infusion (CRI) to provide balanced anesthesia and reduce inhalant requirements via the concept of multimodal analgesia?

NMDA receptor antagonists (Correct answer)
Anticholinergics
Phenothiazines
Loop diuretics

Correct answer: NMDA receptor antagonists

NMDA receptor antagonists such as ketamine CRI reduce the MAC of inhalants and prevent central sensitization as part of multimodal analgesia.

Question 31: Do veterinarians bandage injuries?

Yes (Correct answer)
No

Correct answer: Yes

Yes, veterinarians regularly bandage injuries as a common and essential part of animal medical care. Bandaging is used to protect wounds, support injured limbs, control bleeding, and aid in the healing process for a wide variety of animal patients.

Question 32: Which of the following methods is considered the gold standard for achieving sterility of common stainless steel surgical instruments, such as hemostats and scalpels, in a veterinary practice?

Wiping all surfaces with 70% isopropyl alcohol.
Using a glass bead sterilizer for 45 seconds.
Soaking in glutaraldehyde-based solution for 30 minutes.
Autoclaving with pressurized steam at 121°C (250°F) for 15 minutes. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Autoclaving with pressurized steam at 121°C (250°F) for 15 minutes.

Steam sterilization (autoclaving) is the gold standard for sterilizing heat-tolerant surgical instruments. The combination of pressurized steam at a high temperature (a common standard is 121°C for at least 15 minutes) effectively kills all microorganisms, including resilient bacterial spores. Cold sterilization with glutaraldehyde is high-level disinfection but may not kill all spores, alcohol is a disinfectant, and glass bead sterilizers only sterilize the tips of instruments.

Question 33: A 4-year-old male neutered Standard Poodle presents in a state of collapse. Bloodwork reveals a Na:K ratio of 21:1, azotemia, and hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Severe gastrointestinal disease
Acute renal failure
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

The classic electrolyte abnormalities for hypoadrenocorticism are hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, which result in a low sodium-to-potassium (Na:K) ratio, typically below 27:1. The combination of these electrolyte changes with collapse, azotemia, and hypoglycemia in a predisposed breed makes Addison's disease the top differential.

Question 34: What is the most common complication following repair of a cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy ('Wobbler syndrome') by ventral stabilization in horses?

Jugular vein thrombosis
Implant failure (Correct answer)
Esophageal fistula formation
Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

Correct answer: Implant failure

Implant failure due to the biomechanical demands of the equine cervical spine is a recognized complication of ventral stabilization procedures such as interbody fusion using a Bagby basket.

Question 35: In birds, which organ serves the equivalent function of a mammalian lymph node for B-cell maturation?

Bursa of Fabricius (Correct answer)
Spleen
Bone marrow
Thymus

Correct answer: Bursa of Fabricius

The bursa of Fabricius is a lymphoid organ unique to birds where B-lymphocytes mature; the 'B' in B-cell is named after it.

Question 36: According to the International Renal Interest Society (IRIS) guidelines for staging Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) in a cat, what is the primary initial parameter used for staging?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) concentration
Symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) concentration
Fasting blood creatinine concentration (Correct answer)
Urine specific gravity

Correct answer: Fasting blood creatinine concentration

The IRIS staging system for CKD is primarily based on fasting blood creatinine concentration in a stable, well-hydrated patient. While Symmetric dimethylarginine (SDMA) is a valuable biomarker incorporated into the guidelines, especially for early detection and in cases of low muscle mass, creatinine remains the foundational parameter for the initial staging into one of the four stages. Urine specific gravity and blood pressure are used for sub-staging the disease, not for the primary staging.

Question 37: Rascal, a 2-year-old puppy, smells bad. What might be the reason?

He has tartar on his teeth or very red gums. His teeth need attention
All of these (Correct answer)
Any brownish material in his ears. He may have an ear infection.
His skin is dry and has bumps

Correct answer: All of these

A bad smell in a dog can indicate various underlying health issues, and all the listed options are common causes. Ear infections (brownish material), skin conditions (dry skin, bumps), and dental problems (tartar, red gums) can all produce noticeable and unpleasant odors. A thorough veterinary examination is necessary to identify the specific cause and provide appropriate treatment.

Question 38: What is the term for the inability of a mare to conceive despite normal estrus cycles?

Anovulation
Subfertility
Repeat breeding (Correct answer)
Anestrus

Correct answer: Repeat breeding

A 'repeat breeder' mare shows normal cycles but fails to conceive after three or more properly timed breeding attempts.

Question 39: A 7-year-old Miniature Schnauzer is brought to the clinic with a 2-day history of anorexia, vomiting, and apparent abdominal pain (prayer position). Bloodwork reveals lipemia, neutrophilia, and elevated amylase and lipase. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most specific for diagnosing pancreatitis in this dog?

Serum amylase activity
Canine pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (cPLI) (Correct answer)
Serum lipase activity
Abdominal radiography

Correct answer: Canine pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (cPLI)

Canine pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (cPLI), often run as a Spec cPL test, is the most specific blood test for diagnosing canine pancreatitis. Unlike general serum lipase and amylase, which can be elevated due to other conditions (e.g., renal disease, other gastrointestinal issues), cPLI specifically measures lipase originating from the pancreas. Abdominal radiographs may show secondary signs like a loss of serosal detail or a mass effect in the cranial abdomen, but these findings are not specific to pancreatitis.

Question 40: A veterinary student develops a painful pustular lesion on the hand after working with sheep at a teaching farm. The causative agent is most likely:

Parapoxvirus (orf virus) (Correct answer)
Dermatophilus congolensis
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus anthracis

Correct answer: Parapoxvirus (orf virus)

Orf (contagious ecthyma) caused by parapoxvirus is a classic occupational zoonosis of sheep and goat handlers, producing self-limiting pustular skin lesions.

Question 41: A dog presents with a PCV of 18% and marked spherocytosis on blood smear. Which Coombs test result would confirm immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?

Positive direct Coombs (Correct answer)
Negative direct Coombs
Negative indirect Coombs
Positive indirect Coombs only

Correct answer: Positive direct Coombs

A positive direct Coombs test detects antibodies or complement bound to the surface of red blood cells, confirming IMHA.

Question 42: A surgeon requires a suture material for closing the linea alba of a 40kg dog undergoing an exploratory laparotomy. The ideal material should be absorbable but retain significant tensile strength for at least 4-6 weeks to accommodate the slow healing of this fascial tissue. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

Surgical Gut (Chromic)
Polydioxanone (PDS) (Correct answer)
Silk
Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

Correct answer: Polydioxanone (PDS)

Polydioxanone (PDS) is a synthetic, monofilament, absorbable suture known for its extended tensile strength retention. It retains approximately 50-70% of its strength at 4 weeks, making it ideal for slow-healing tissues like the linea alba. Polyglactin 910 and Surgical Gut lose their strength too quickly for this application. Silk is non-absorbable and its multifilament nature can increase the risk of infection.

Question 43: Which ligament must be transected during a standing bovine caesarean section via the left paralumbar flank?

Broad ligament of the uterus (Correct answer)
Intercornual ligament
Round ligament of the uterus
Lateral suspensory ligament of the udder

Correct answer: Broad ligament of the uterus

The broad ligament may need to be partially incised to exteriorize the gravid uterine horn through the flank incision during caesarean section in cattle.

Question 44: What is the most significant complication of perineal urethrostomy in goats and sheep?

Ascending urinary tract infection
Urethral stricture formation (Correct answer)
Hydronephrosis
Rupture of the urethra distal to the stoma

Correct answer: Urethral stricture formation

Urethral stricture at the stoma site due to scar formation is the most common long-term complication of perineal urethrostomy in small ruminants, often leading to recurrent obstruction.

Question 45: What is the recommended management of a sequestrum following a long-bone fracture in cattle?

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Intramedullary pinning to stabilize the fragment
Systemic antibiotics alone until resolution
Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical removal of the necrotic bone fragment

A bone sequestrum is avascular necrotic bone that cannot be reached by antibiotics; surgical debridement and removal of the sequestrum is required for resolution of the infection.

Question 46: Which local anesthetic has the LONGEST duration of action when used for a peripheral nerve block?

Procaine
Mepivacaine
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bupivacaine

Bupivacaine has the longest duration of action among commonly used local anesthetics, typically lasting 4–8 hours for nerve blocks.

Question 47: What education is required to become a veterinarian?

Associates degree
High school diploma
Doctor of Medicine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Doctor of Medicine

To become a veterinarian, one must earn a Doctor of Veterinary Medicine (DVM) degree from an accredited veterinary college. This is a professional doctorate, comparable in academic rigor to a Doctor of Medicine (MD) for human physicians, focusing on animal health and medical care.

Question 48: A 12-year-old cat is presented with polyuria and polydipsia. A chemistry panel reveals a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 85 mg/dL (reference 16-36 mg/dL) and creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL (reference 0.8-2.4 mg/dL). Which of the following urinalysis findings would most strongly support a diagnosis of primary renal failure?

Urine specific gravity of 1.050.
Urine pH of 6.0.
Urine specific gravity of 1.010. (Correct answer)
2+ bilirubin on the dipstick.

Correct answer: Urine specific gravity of 1.010.

In the presence of significant azotemia (elevated BUN and creatinine), a healthy kidney should be maximally concentrating urine, resulting in a high specific gravity (typically >1.035 in a cat). A specific gravity in the isosthenuric range (1.008-1.012) indicates that the kidney tubules have lost their ability to concentrate or dilute urine, which is a hallmark of primary renal failure.

Question 49: Which of the following is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI) in dogs?

Fecal Elastase Test
Serum Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity (TLI) Test (Correct answer)
Abdominal Ultrasound
Serum Amylase and Lipase levels

Correct answer: Serum Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity (TLI) Test

The serum Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity (TLI) test is the diagnostic test of choice for Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency. TLI is highly specific for pancreatic acinar function, and a significantly low level is diagnostic for EPI. While other tests may show abnormalities, they are not as sensitive or specific for diagnosing EPI.

Question 50: A swine herd shows signs of sneezing, nasal discharge, and facial deformity in young pigs. Which pathogen is the primary cause of atrophic rhinitis?

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
Pasteurella multocida toxigenic strains (Correct answer)
Bordetella bronchiseptica alone

Correct answer: Pasteurella multocida toxigenic strains

Toxigenic strains of Pasteurella multocida produce a dermonecrotic toxin causing turbinate atrophy and facial deformity in progressive atrophic rhinitis.

Question 51: A 12-year-old Quarter Horse is diagnosed with navicular syndrome based on clinical signs and a positive palmar digital nerve block. Which of the following is NOT a classic radiographic finding associated with this condition?

Sclerosis of the medullary cavity of the navicular bone.
Enlarged, lollipop-shaped synovial invaginations on the distal border of the navicular bone.
Enthesophyte formation on the proximal border of the navicular bone.
Widening of the distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint space. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Widening of the distal interphalangeal (coffin) joint space.

Classic radiographic signs of navicular syndrome involve changes to the navicular bone itself, such as enlarged vascular channels (synovial invaginations), medullary sclerosis, flexor cortex erosions, and enthesophyte formation at ligament attachments. Widening of the coffin joint space is not a feature of navicular syndrome; it would be more indicative of joint effusion, synovitis, or instability unrelated to this specific diagnosis.

Question 52: Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action and is most cardiotoxic in overdose?

Procaine
Bupivacaine (Correct answer)
Lidocaine
Mepivacaine

Correct answer: Bupivacaine

Bupivacaine provides the longest duration of local anesthesia but binds cardiac sodium channels with high affinity, making cardiac resuscitation after toxicity extremely difficult.

Question 53: A 7-year-old cat with a known history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) requires anesthesia for a full-mouth dental extraction. Which of the following induction agents should be used with the most caution due to its sympathomimetic effects, which increase heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand?

Etomidate
Alfaxalone
Ketamine (Correct answer)
Propofol

Correct answer: Ketamine

Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that causes catecholamine release, leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output. In a cat with HCM, where the ventricular muscle is thickened and diastolic function is impaired, this increased myocardial oxygen demand can be detrimental and may lead to arrhythmias or cardiac decompensation. Alfaxalone, propofol, and etomidate generally have less impact on heart rate or may cause a decrease, making them safer choices in this scenario.

Question 54: In cattle, which technique is used to surgically correct a displaced abomasum from the left flank while the animal is standing?

Right flank pyloropexy
Blind stitch (toggle-pin suture) only
Ventral midline approach under general anesthesia
Left flank laparotomy with omentopexy or abomasopexy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Left flank laparotomy with omentopexy or abomasopexy

Left flank laparotomy allows the surgeon to decompress the abomasum, return it to the correct position, and fix it by omental or abomasal suture to the right abdominal wall to prevent recurrence.

Question 55: A 12-year-old, male neutered Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a 3-month history of weight loss despite a ravenous appetite, polyuria, polydipsia, and recent episodes of vocalizing at night. On physical examination, you note a heart rate of 240 bpm, a palpable thyroid nodule (goiter), and a BCS of 3/9. Which of the following is the most definitive and often curative treatment for this condition?

A prescription low-iodine diet
Surgical thyroidectomy
Lifelong oral methimazole therapy
Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy

Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy is considered the gold standard and most definitive curative treatment for feline hyperthyroidism. It works by concentrating radioactive iodine in the hyperactive thyroid tissue, which destroys the abnormal cells. Methimazole requires lifelong administration and can have side effects. Surgical thyroidectomy is also a curative option but carries anesthetic and surgical risks, including potential damage to the parathyroid glands. An iodine-restricted diet can manage the condition but is not curative and requires strict dietary adherence.

Question 56: A 3-year-old intact female dog presents 6 weeks post-estrus with lethargy, PU/PD, and a purulent vaginal discharge. Radiographs show a fluid-distended uterus. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Progesterone antagonist
Prostaglandin F2α therapy
Antibiotics alone
Ovariohysterectomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ovariohysterectomy

Open pyometra requires immediate ovariohysterectomy as definitive treatment; medical management is reserved for breeding animals without systemic illness.

Question 57: A horse has serum chemistry showing total bilirubin of 8 mg/dL with direct bilirubin of 0.4 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause?

Hepatocellular disease
Biliary obstruction
Fasting hyperbilirubinemia (Correct answer)
Hemolytic anemia

Correct answer: Fasting hyperbilirubinemia

Horses commonly develop fasting-induced hyperbilirubinemia due to decreased hepatic uptake of unconjugated bilirubin, with predominantly indirect fraction elevated.

Question 58: Which statement best describes the 'One Health' concept as a core principle of modern preventive medicine?

The practice of veterinarians and human physicians collaborating on complex surgical cases.
A collaborative, multisectoral approach recognizing that the health of people, animals, and their shared environment are inextricably linked. (Correct answer)
A focus on developing universal vaccines that are effective for both humans and animals.
An approach that primarily manages zoonotic disease outbreaks by focusing on wildlife reservoir eradication.

Correct answer: A collaborative, multisectoral approach recognizing that the health of people, animals, and their shared environment are inextricably linked.

The One Health concept is a unifying approach that acknowledges the deep interconnection between human health, animal health (both domestic and wild), and environmental health. It promotes collaboration across multiple disciplines—including veterinary medicine, human medicine, and environmental science—to achieve optimal health outcomes for all. The other options describe much narrower or incorrect applications of this broad, integrated principle.

Question 59: Which dermatophyte species is the most common cause of ringworm in cats in the United States?

Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Epidermophyton floccosum
Microsporum gypseum
Microsporum canis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Microsporum canis

Microsporum canis is responsible for approximately 98% of feline dermatophytosis cases in the US and fluoresces apple-green under Wood's lamp.

Question 60: A bull presents with a penile hematoma ('broken penis'). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Urethrostomy to divert urine flow
Cold hydrotherapy, NSAIDs, and rest for 2–3 weeks (Correct answer)
Amputation of the distal penis
Immediate surgical repair of the torn tunica albuginea

Correct answer: Cold hydrotherapy, NSAIDs, and rest for 2–3 weeks

Conservative management with cold therapy, anti-inflammatory drugs, and sexual rest for several weeks allows resolution of the hematoma in many bulls; surgery is reserved for cases that fail to respond.

Question 61: A 5-year-old dog presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and bilateral cataracts. Fasting blood glucose is 420 mg/dL. Which insulin type is most commonly used for initial management of canine diabetes mellitus?

NPH insulin (Correct answer)
Detemir insulin
Regular insulin
Glargine insulin

Correct answer: NPH insulin

NPH (isophane) insulin is the most commonly recommended starting insulin for dogs with diabetes mellitus, typically given twice daily.

Question 62: A 9-year-old Golden Retriever presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, significant weight loss, and peripheral edema. Bloodwork reveals panhypoproteinemia (both albumin and globulin are low). After ruling out other causes of protein loss (e.g., kidney, liver disease), a diagnosis of protein-losing enteropathy (PLE) is suspected. Which of the following is NOT a common underlying cause of PLE in dogs?

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) (Correct answer)
Intestinal lymphangiectasia
Intestinal neoplasia (e.g., lymphoma)
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

Correct answer: Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)

While Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI) causes malabsorption, weight loss, and diarrhea, it does not typically cause the significant intestinal protein loss that defines PLE. The primary pathophysiology in EPI is a lack of digestive enzymes. Common causes of PLE involve diseases that damage the intestinal wall, leading to protein leakage, such as severe inflammatory bowel disease, intestinal lymphangiectasia (dilated lymphatic vessels), and intestinal cancer.

Question 63: A 7-year-old Cavalier King Charles Spaniel with a known history of myxomatous mitral valve disease presents with acute tachypnea. Thoracic radiographs are taken. Which radiographic finding is most characteristic of cardiogenic pulmonary edema in this dog?

A diffuse bronchial pattern with prominent 'doughnuts' and 'tram lines'.
A perihilar to caudodorsal unstructured interstitial to alveolar pattern. (Correct answer)
Multiple, well-defined soft tissue nodules distributed throughout all lung fields.
A patchy, unstructured interstitial pattern in the cranioventral lung lobes.

Correct answer: A perihilar to caudodorsal unstructured interstitial to alveolar pattern.

In dogs, left-sided congestive heart failure secondary to mitral valve disease typically leads to cardiogenic pulmonary edema that originates in the perihilar region and extends into the caudodorsal lung fields. This appears as an unstructured interstitial pattern that can progress to an alveolar pattern. A cranioventral pattern is classic for aspiration pneumonia, nodules suggest metastatic disease, and a bronchial pattern indicates chronic airway disease.

Question 64: Which technique is used to correct a right-sided displacement of the abomasum (RDA) with volvulus in cattle?

Right flank laparotomy with abomasopexy or omentopey (Correct answer)
Right paramedian abomasopexy
Rolling followed by left flank laparotomy
Standing right flank omentopexy

Correct answer: Right flank laparotomy with abomasopexy or omentopey

RDA with volvulus requires a right flank laparotomy to decompress the abomasum, correct the volvulus, and perform abomasopexy or omentopexy to prevent recurrence.

Question 65: A hunter presents to a veterinarian with an acute febrile illness after skinning wild rabbits in the US. Which organism is the most likely cause?

Borrelia burgdorferi
Francisella tularensis (Correct answer)
Yersinia pestis
Coxiella burnetii

Correct answer: Francisella tularensis

Francisella tularensis (tularemia) is classically associated with contact with wild rabbits during hunting and skinning activities.

Question 66: A cat is presented with open-mouth breathing, muffled heart sounds, and dullness on percussion of the left hemithorax. Which diagnostic procedure should be performed first?

Echocardiography
Complete blood count
Thoracocentesis (Correct answer)
Thoracic radiographs

Correct answer: Thoracocentesis

Thoracocentesis is both diagnostic and therapeutic and should be performed immediately in a dyspneic cat with suspected pleural effusion before stress-inducing imaging.

Question 67: During an abdominal ultrasound of a healthy dog, you identify a structure that appears to be liver parenchyma and a portion of the gallbladder located cranial to the highly echogenic, curvilinear diaphragm. This finding disappears when the transducer is angled differently. What does this represent?

Mirror image artifact. (Correct answer)
A diaphragmatic hernia.
Consolidation of the right middle lung lobe.
Hepatic metastasis to the lung.

Correct answer: Mirror image artifact.

This is a classic description of a mirror image artifact. It occurs when the ultrasound beam reflects off a strong, curved specular reflector like the diaphragm-lung interface. The ultrasound machine incorrectly assumes the returning echoes traveled in a straight line and displays a duplicate image of the liver and gallbladder on the far side of the diaphragm. It is a common artifact that should not be mistaken for pathology like a diaphragmatic hernia.

Question 68: Which of the following is a World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH, formerly OIE) listed disease with major public health and international trade implications, requiring immediate notification by member countries?

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (Correct answer)
Canine Distemper Virus
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)
Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)

Correct answer: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE), also known as "Mad Cow Disease," is a WOAH-listed disease due to its proven zoonotic potential (causing variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans) and its devastating impact on international trade of cattle and bovine products. Its detection triggers significant regulatory and public health responses. While BVD and IBR are economically important cattle diseases, and Canine Distemper is a serious viral disease in dogs, they do not have the same level of international public health and trade implications as BSE and are managed differently under WOAH guidelines.

Question 69: Which one is a veterinary assistant responsible for?

Check vitals
Provide care for before and after surgery and other procedures (Correct answer)
Collect samples
Give animals medicine

Correct answer: Provide care for before and after surgery and other procedures

Veterinary assistants provide crucial support to veterinarians and veterinary technicians, often handling basic care and administrative duties. Their responsibilities include preparing animals for procedures, monitoring them during recovery, and ensuring their comfort and cleanliness before and after surgery or other medical interventions.

Question 70: A 4-month-old, 20 kg Labrador Retriever puppy is diagnosed with a bacterial urinary tract infection. The owner has financial constraints and declines a urine culture and sensitivity. Which of the following antimicrobials should be AVOIDED as an empirical choice due to the risk of inducing arthropathy in a growing dog?

Cephalexin
Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Enrofloxacin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Enrofloxacin

Enrofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. This class of drugs has been shown to cause damage to the articular cartilage (arthropathy) in growing, large-breed dogs. The other options, including cephalosporins (Cephalexin), potentiated penicillins (Amoxicillin-clavulanate), and potentiated sulfonamides (Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine), do not carry this specific risk and are generally considered safer choices for skeletally immature patients.

Question 71: Which arthropod vector is responsible for transmitting both Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) and Anaplasma phagocytophilum in the northeastern United States?

Amblyomma americanum
Ixodes scapularis (Correct answer)
Dermacentor variabilis
Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Correct answer: Ixodes scapularis

Ixodes scapularis (black-legged tick) is the primary vector for both Borrelia burgdorferi and Anaplasma phagocytophilum in the northeastern and upper midwestern US.

Question 72: In reptiles, the preferred site for intramuscular (IM) injection to avoid the renal portal system is:

Tail base
Forelimb musculature (Correct answer)
Caudal epaxial muscles
Hindlimb musculature

Correct answer: Forelimb musculature

The forelimb musculature is preferred in reptiles to avoid first-pass renal metabolism via the renal portal system that drains the caudal body.

Question 73: A pot-bellied pig receives 1200 mg of streptomycin from a zookeeper over the course of a day. If he administers the drug every 6 hours (q6h), how much mg does he give the pig per dose?

100 mg
300 mg (Correct answer)
400 mg
200 mg

Correct answer: 300 mg

A day consists of 24 hours. If the drug is administered every 6 hours (q6h), the pig receives the drug 24 / 6 = 4 times a day. To find the amount per dose, divide the total daily dosage by the number of doses: 1200 mg / 4 doses = 300 mg per dose.

Question 74: Which toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum is most commonly associated with forage poisoning (shaker foal syndrome) in horses?

Type D
Type C
Type B (Correct answer)
Type A

Correct answer: Type B

Clostridium botulinum type B is the most common cause of equine botulism (shaker foal syndrome) in the eastern United States.

Question 75: Which inhalant anesthetic has the highest blood:gas partition coefficient, resulting in the slowest induction and recovery?

Halothane (Correct answer)
Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
Desflurane

Correct answer: Halothane

Halothane has the highest blood:gas partition coefficient (~2.4) among common inhalants, meaning more drug must dissolve in blood before equilibrium is reached, slowing induction and recovery.

Question 76: Which of the following best describes the normal body temperature range for most companion parrots?

99–101°F (37.2–38.3°C)
107–110°F (41.7–43.3°C)
104–106°F (40–41.1°C) (Correct answer)
95–98°F (35–36.7°C)

Correct answer: 104–106°F (40–41.1°C)

Most psittacine birds have a normal body temperature of 104–106°F (40–41.1°C), which is significantly higher than mammals.

Question 77: In sugar gliders, hind limb paralysis is most commonly associated with which nutritional deficiency?

Iron deficiency anemia
Calcium deficiency (hypocalcemia) (Correct answer)
Vitamin C deficiency
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency

Correct answer: Calcium deficiency (hypocalcemia)

Hypocalcemia from calcium-poor diets causes metabolic bone disease and posterior paresis/paralysis in sugar gliders.

Question 78: The Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalant anesthetic is used to compare agents based on which characteristic?

Solubility in the blood
The degree of cardiovascular depression
The speed of induction and recovery
Potency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Potency

Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) is defined as the concentration of an inhaled anesthetic in the alveoli needed to prevent movement in 50% of subjects in response to a noxious stimulus. Therefore, it is a direct measure of the agent's potency. A lower MAC indicates a more potent anesthetic. Solubility (blood:gas partition coefficient) determines the speed of induction/recovery, and cardiovascular depression is a side effect, not the primary measure of potency.

Question 79: You are presented with a 4-year-old raccoon that was found acting aggressively in a suburban neighborhood and has now progressed to showing signs of ataxia and hypersalivation. The animal bites one of your technicians during the initial examination. What is the most critical and immediate first step a veterinarian should take in this situation?

Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities. (Correct answer)
Draw blood from the raccoon for a rabies antibody titer to confirm the diagnosis.
Immediately begin a 10-day quarantine period for the raccoon to observe for progression of signs.
Administer post-exposure prophylaxis to the technician and the raccoon.

Correct answer: Euthanize the raccoon and submit the head for rabies testing, and contact public health authorities.

Due to the high-risk species (raccoon), classic clinical signs, and human exposure, rabies is the top differential. Public health and safety are paramount. The standard protocol for a suspect rabid wild animal that has exposed a human is to humanely euthanize it and submit the appropriate tissues (brain) for immediate testing to guide human post-exposure prophylaxis decisions. Contacting public health authorities is a legal requirement. A 10-day quarantine is reserved for domestic dogs, cats, and ferrets.

Question 80: Which diagnostic test best confirms the diagnosis of nephrosplenic entrapment of the large colon in a horse prior to surgery?

Abdominocentesis showing serosanguineous fluid
Rectal palpation of the ventral colon over the nephrosplenic ligament (Correct answer)
Complete blood count showing leukocytosis
Abdominal radiography revealing gas pattern

Correct answer: Rectal palpation of the ventral colon over the nephrosplenic ligament

Rectal palpation is the primary diagnostic tool; the characteristic finding is the left ventral colon positioned dorsal to and over the nephrosplenic (splenorenal) ligament, which can be palpated per rectum.

Question 81: Doxorubicin is a common chemotherapeutic agent used in veterinary oncology. Which of the following is a well-documented, cumulative, and often dose-limiting cardiotoxicity specifically associated with this drug in dogs?

Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) (Correct answer)
Pericardial effusion
Acute arrhythmogenic toxicity
Valvular endocardiosis

Correct answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)

Doxorubicin is known to cause a cumulative, dose-dependent cardiotoxicity in dogs that manifests as dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). The damage to the myocardium is caused by free radical formation and oxidative stress. This is why a patient's cumulative lifetime dose is carefully tracked, and cardiac evaluations are often performed. While acute arrhythmias can occur during infusion, the chronic, dose-limiting toxicity that leads to heart failure is DCM.

Question 82: What is the most common cause of dysecdysis (retained shed) in snakes?

Vitamin A deficiency
Inadequate environmental humidity (Correct answer)
Ectoparasite infestation
Bacterial skin infection

Correct answer: Inadequate environmental humidity

Low environmental humidity is the most frequent cause of dysecdysis in snakes, preventing normal shedding of the epidermis.

Question 83: A dog presents with a wound from an unknown animal. The owner asks about rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for themselves. Which statement is correct regarding the dog?

The dog's vaccination status is irrelevant to human PEP decisions
If currently vaccinated, the dog should be boostered and observed for 10 days (Correct answer)
The dog should be euthanized immediately for brain testing
The dog should receive PEP treatment identical to humans

Correct answer: If currently vaccinated, the dog should be boostered and observed for 10 days

A currently vaccinated dog that bites a human should receive a booster and be observed for 10 days; if it remains healthy, the human exposure is considered non-infectious.

Question 84: After approximately day 150 of equine gestation, the primary source of progesterone maintaining pregnancy shifts to:

The adrenal cortex of the mare
The fetoplacental unit (Correct answer)
Accessory corpora lutea formed from eCG stimulation
The primary corpus luteum of pregnancy

Correct answer: The fetoplacental unit

After day 150, the primary CL and accessory CLs regress in mares, and the fetoplacental unit assumes responsibility for progesterone production to maintain pregnancy through term.

Question 85: Which virus causes Newcastle Disease in poultry and is a reportable foreign animal disease in the United States?

Infectious bronchitis virus
Marek's disease virus
Avian paramyxovirus-1 (APMV-1) (Correct answer)
Influenza A virus

Correct answer: Avian paramyxovirus-1 (APMV-1)

Virulent Newcastle Disease is caused by APMV-1 and is a USDA-reportable disease with significant economic and public health implications.

Question 86: Chickens with the following illness experience immunological suppression:

Avian Influenza
IBD (Correct answer)
Avian encephalomyelitis
ILT

Correct answer: IBD

Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD), also known as Gumboro disease, is a highly contagious viral disease of young chickens that primarily targets the bursa of Fabricius. This organ is crucial for B-lymphocyte development, and its damage leads to severe immunosuppression, making the birds highly susceptible to other infections and reducing vaccine efficacy.

Question 87: Which anesthetic drug combination is most commonly used for total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA) in standing equine procedures?

Xylazine and thiopental
Propofol and fentanyl
Ketamine and medetomidine
Detomidine-butorphanol-ketamine (triple drip) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Detomidine-butorphanol-ketamine (triple drip)

The triple drip (guaifenesin, ketamine, xylazine or detomidine) or detomidine-butorphanol-ketamine combinations are standard TIVA protocols providing adequate sedation and analgesia for field anesthesia in horses.

Question 88: The minimum number of organisms necessary to cause infection reveals

Virulence
Pathogenicity
Infectivity (Correct answer)
Susceptibility

Correct answer: Infectivity

Infectivity refers to the ability of a pathogen to establish an infection in a host, and it is often quantified by the infectious dose (ID50). This is the minimum number of organisms required to cause infection in 50% of exposed individuals. This concept helps characterize how easily a pathogen can initiate disease, distinguishing it from virulence (severity) or pathogenicity (general ability to cause disease).

Question 89: A public health official contacts you about several people who have developed an acute flu-like illness with fever and pneumonia. Their only common link is the consumption of raw milk from a local goat dairy where you recently attended a difficult kidding. Which zoonotic pathogen is the most likely cause of this outbreak?

Coxiella burnetii (Correct answer)
Brucella melitensis
Mycobacterium bovis
Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: Coxiella burnetii

*Coxiella burnetii*, the causative agent of Q fever, is the most likely pathogen. It is shed in high concentrations in the milk, urine, feces, and especially the birth products (placenta, amniotic fluid) of infected ruminants like goats, sheep, and cattle. Human infection often occurs via inhalation of contaminated aerosols, which are heavily generated during parturition, or through consumption of unpasteurized dairy products. The clinical signs of acute Q fever in humans, including fever, pneumonia, and flu-like symptoms, match the scenario. While the other pathogens are zoonotic, *C. burnetii* is classically associated with this specific combination of exposure (kidding, raw milk) and clinical presentation.

Question 90: A 3-year-old Golden Retriever is recovering 12 hours after a tibial-plateau-leveling osteotomy (TPLO). The patient is receiving a constant rate infusion of fentanyl. To implement a multimodal analgesic plan and target a different part of the pain pathway, which of the following would be the most appropriate class of drug to add?

A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as carprofen (Correct answer)
A different pure mu-opioid, such as hydromorphone
An opioid antagonist, such as naloxone
An NMDA receptor antagonist, such as ketamine

Correct answer: A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as carprofen

Multimodal analgesia involves using different classes of drugs to block the pain pathway at multiple sites. Since the dog is already receiving a pure mu-opioid (fentanyl) that acts on central receptors, adding an NSAID (carprofen) is an excellent choice. NSAIDs work peripherally at the site of injury to reduce inflammation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. Adding another opioid is redundant, an antagonist would reverse the analgesia, and while an NMDA antagonist is a valid part of a multimodal plan, an NSAID is a cornerstone for managing the inflammatory pain associated with orthopedic surgery.

Question 91: A ewe in late gestation is found recumbent, blind, and paddling. Blood glucose is 1.2 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypocalcemia (milk fever)
Polioencephalomalacia
Pregnancy toxemia (Correct answer)
Listeriosis

Correct answer: Pregnancy toxemia

Pregnancy toxemia in ewes occurs in late gestation due to negative energy balance, resulting in hypoglycemia, ketosis, and neurologic signs.

Question 92: Which of the following zoonotic diseases is classified as a CDC Category A bioterrorism agent AND is naturally transmitted from animals to humans?

Psittacosis
Leptospirosis
Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) (Correct answer)
Salmonellosis

Correct answer: Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

Bacillus anthracis is a Category A bioterrorism agent that naturally infects livestock and can be transmitted to humans via contact, ingestion, or inhalation.

Question 93: The 'freemartin' condition in cattle occurs when:

A heifer born twin to a bull shares placental circulation, allowing masculinizing hormones to affect her reproductive tract (Correct answer)
A cow develops an abnormally prolonged estrous cycle
A heifer develops cystic ovarian disease after her first estrus
A bull is exposed to estrogen-contaminated feed during puberty

Correct answer: A heifer born twin to a bull shares placental circulation, allowing masculinizing hormones to affect her reproductive tract

Freemartinism results from vascular anastomoses between bovine twins of different sexes, allowing Müllerian inhibiting substance and Y-bearing cells to masculinize the female twin's reproductive tract.

Question 94: A 5-year-old mixed-breed dog presents with acute vomiting and abdominal pain. Radiographs of the abdomen show multiple small intestinal loops gathered in the central abdomen with abnormal, comma-shaped or crescent-shaped gas pockets. There is no obvious radiopaque foreign object. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Mesenteric volvulus
Gastroenteritis
Intussusception
Linear foreign body obstruction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Linear foreign body obstruction

The radiographic findings of plicated (bunched or gathered) small intestines and abnormally shaped, sharp-angled gas pockets are classic for a linear foreign body obstruction. The intestine bunches up as peristalsis tries to move the anchored linear object. Simple gastroenteritis does not typically cause this pattern. Intussusception usually appears as a soft tissue mass with concentric rings on ultrasound, and mesenteric volvulus presents with diffuse, severe gas distention of the entire small bowel.

Question 95: Which suture material is most appropriate for closing the uterine incision during a bovine caesarean section?

Stainless steel wire in a simple interrupted pattern
Braided polyester in a horizontal mattress pattern
Chromic catgut in a Lembert pattern (Correct answer)
Monofilament nylon in a simple continuous pattern

Correct answer: Chromic catgut in a Lembert pattern

Chromic catgut or synthetic absorbable suture in an inverting pattern (Lembert or Utrecht) is standard for uterine closure in cattle, providing adequate holding strength while being absorbed before subsequent pregnancies.

Question 96: A cat's urinalysis shows a USG of 1.008 with concurrent azotemia. How should this finding be interpreted?

Renal azotemia with inadequate concentrating ability (Correct answer)
Prerenal azotemia with adequate concentrating ability
Postrenal azotemia
Normal finding in cats

Correct answer: Renal azotemia with inadequate concentrating ability

A USG of 1.008 (isosthenuria) with azotemia indicates the kidneys cannot concentrate urine, pointing to primary renal disease.

Question 97: Bluetongue virus biological carriers:

Ticks
Culicoides (Correct answer)
Mosquito
Flea

Correct answer: Culicoides

Bluetongue virus (BTV) is transmitted primarily by biting midges of the genus *Culicoides*. These insects act as biological vectors, meaning the virus replicates within them before being transmitted to susceptible animals, particularly ruminants like sheep and cattle. Other insects like ticks, mosquitoes, and fleas are not the primary vectors for BTV.

Question 98: A 10-year-old male neutered Domestic Shorthair cat is presented with a 2-month history of weight loss despite a ravenous appetite. Physical examination reveals a thin body condition, a heart rate of 240 bpm, and a palpable nodule in the cervical region. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Lymphoma
Diabetes Mellitus
Chronic Kidney Disease
Hyperthyroidism (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hyperthyroidism

The combination of weight loss with polyphagia, tachycardia, and a palpable thyroid nodule (goiter) are classic clinical signs for feline hyperthyroidism. While the other conditions can cause weight loss, the presence of a ravenous appetite and tachycardia strongly points towards hyperthyroidism.

Question 99: In iguanas, metabolic bone disease (MBD) is most commonly caused by a deficiency of which nutrient?

Vitamin E and selenium
Calcium and Vitamin D3 (Correct answer)
Phosphorus
Vitamin B12

Correct answer: Calcium and Vitamin D3

MBD in iguanas results from inadequate calcium and/or Vitamin D3, often due to poor UVB lighting or imbalanced diet.

Question 100: Hepatic lipidosis in obese cats kept as indoor pets can also commonly occur in which exotic species?

Green iguanas
Bearded dragons (Correct answer)
Box turtles
Ball pythons

Correct answer: Bearded dragons

Bearded dragons are highly prone to hepatic lipidosis when fed high-fat diets or when anorexic, similar to the syndrome in cats.

DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam

The DVM (Doctor of Veterinary Medicine) Exam exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

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120 min

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