Registration Examination for Dietitians (RD/RDN Exam) β Questions and Answers
Question 1: What term describes the daily minimum amount of a nutrient needed to prevent deficiency in healthy individuals?
- Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
- Adequate Intake (AI)
- Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
- Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
The RDA is the daily intake level sufficient to meet the needs of nearly all healthy individuals in a specific group.
Question 2: What are essential amino acids?
- Amino acids found only in plant foods
- Amino acids the body can produce on its own
- Amino acids that must be obtained through diet (Correct answer)
- Amino acids used solely for energy production
Correct answer: Amino acids that must be obtained through diet
Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be consumed through food.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes how intermittent fasting affects muscle mass?
- It has no effect on muscle mass
- It always causes significant muscle loss
- It increases muscle mass in all users
- It can preserve muscle mass if protein intake and resistance training are adequate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It can preserve muscle mass if protein intake and resistance training are adequate
With adequate protein intake and resistance exercise, intermittent fasting can preserve and even support muscle mass while reducing body fat.
Question 4: Which dietary strategy helps reduce hunger while maintaining a calorie deficit for weight loss?
- High-volume, low-calorie foods (e.g., vegetables, lean protein) (Correct answer)
- Eating only liquid meals
- Eating one large meal per day
- Avoiding all carbohydrates
Correct answer: High-volume, low-calorie foods (e.g., vegetables, lean protein)
Eating high-volume, low-calorie foods like vegetables and lean protein helps fill the stomach and signal satiety while keeping total calorie intake low.
Question 5: How many different phases does the South Beach Diet have?
- 2
- 4
- 3 (Correct answer)
- 1
Correct answer: 3
The South Beach Diet is structured into three distinct phases: Phase One (the most restrictive, for rapid weight loss), Phase Two (gradual weight loss and reintroduction of some foods), and Phase Three (maintenance for long-term healthy eating).
Question 6: Foods rich in carbs and starch are crucial because
- They stop you from getting overweight
- They are easy to cook
- They give you energy and fill you up (Correct answer)
- They help you grow
Correct answer: They give you energy and fill you up
Carbohydrates, including starches, are the body's primary source of energy. They are broken down into glucose, which fuels all bodily functions and physical activities. Consuming foods rich in carbs and starch also contributes to satiety, helping you feel full and satisfied after meals.
Question 7: Why are fruits and vegetables important?
- They are colorful
- They give you energy
- They are easily available
- They provide you with a wide variety of vitamins, minerals, and nutrients (Correct answer)
Correct answer: They provide you with a wide variety of vitamins, minerals, and nutrients
Fruits and vegetables are crucial because they are packed with a wide array of essential vitamins, minerals, and dietary fiber. These micronutrients support various bodily functions, including immune system health, vision, digestion, and protection against chronic diseases. Their diverse nutrient profiles are fundamental for maintaining overall well-being.
Question 8: Which macronutrient has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF), meaning the body burns the most calories digesting it?
- Alcohol
- Fat
- Carbohydrates
- Protein (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Protein
Protein has a TEF of approximately 20β35%, compared to 5β15% for carbohydrates and 0β3% for fat, making it the most metabolically costly macronutrient to digest.
Question 9: What is the primary fuel source for moderate-intensity aerobic exercise lasting longer than 20 minutes?
- Fat (Correct answer)
- Carbohydrates
- Alcohol
- Protein
Correct answer: Fat
After the first 20 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise, fat becomes the dominant fuel source as glycogen stores deplete.
Question 10: Which electrolyte is most commonly lost and must be supplemented on a ketogenic diet?
- Zinc
- Iron
- Calcium
- Sodium (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sodium
Sodium is rapidly lost through increased urination as insulin levels drop on a ketogenic diet, making supplementation essential.
Question 11: Which South Beach Diet stage is the least constricting?
- Second
- First
- Fourth
- Third (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Third
Phase Three of the South Beach Diet is the maintenance phase, where individuals have achieved their goal weight and learned sustainable eating habits. It is the least restrictive phase, allowing for a wider variety of foods while still emphasizing healthy choices for long-term weight management.
Question 12: What macronutrient ratio is typical for a standard ketogenic diet?
- 60% fat, 20% protein, 20% carbs
- 50% fat, 30% protein, 20% carbs
- 40% fat, 40% protein, 20% carbs
- 70% fat, 25% protein, 5% carbs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 70% fat, 25% protein, 5% carbs
A standard ketogenic diet typically consists of 70% fat, 25% protein, and only 5% carbohydrates to induce ketosis.
Question 13: True or false: When more people join a healthy lifestyle plan, weight loss becomes more difficult.
- False (Correct answer)
- True
Correct answer: False
Joining a healthy lifestyle plan with more people often provides a supportive community, increased motivation, and shared accountability, which can make weight loss easier and more sustainable. Social support is a recognized factor in successful health behavior change.
Question 14: Which cooking technique helps reduce phytates in legumes and improve mineral absorption?
- Microwaving
- Frying at high heat
- Freezing
- Soaking and sprouting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Soaking and sprouting
Soaking, sprouting, and fermenting legumes and grains reduces their phytate content, improving the bioavailability of minerals like iron and zinc.
Question 15: A well-planned plant-based diet can be nutritionally complete for which life stages?
- All life stages including infancy, childhood, pregnancy, and older adulthood (Correct answer)
- Only for people under 50 without health conditions
- Adults and elderly only
- Adults only
Correct answer: All life stages including infancy, childhood, pregnancy, and older adulthood
Major dietetic associations, including the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, state that well-planned plant-based diets are nutritionally adequate for all stages of life.
Question 16: Which of the following is a high-fat, keto-friendly food?
- Oatmeal
- Brown rice
- Olive oil (Correct answer)
- Sweet potato
Correct answer: Olive oil
Olive oil is nearly 100% fat with zero carbohydrates, making it an ideal staple for a ketogenic diet.
Question 17: Which symptom is commonly associated with the initial transition to a ketogenic diet?
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Hyperthyroidism
- Keto flu (Correct answer)
- Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: Keto flu
The 'keto flu' is a common set of symptoms (fatigue, headache, irritability) experienced during the first days of starting a ketogenic diet.
Question 18: What does the term 'energy availability' mean in sports nutrition?
- Calorie surplus needed for weight gain
- Dietary energy remaining after subtracting exercise energy expenditure, relative to lean body mass (Correct answer)
- The glycogen stored in muscles before exercise
- The total calories consumed in a day
Correct answer: Dietary energy remaining after subtracting exercise energy expenditure, relative to lean body mass
Energy availability = (dietary intake β exercise energy cost) Γ· fat-free mass; low energy availability can impair hormonal and metabolic function.
Question 19: Which medical condition was the ketogenic diet originally developed to treat?
- Epilepsy (Correct answer)
- Type 2 diabetes
- Obesity
- Heart disease
Correct answer: Epilepsy
The ketogenic diet was developed in the 1920s as a treatment for epilepsy, particularly in children who didn't respond to medications.
Question 20: Which of the following sweeteners is generally considered keto-friendly?
- High-fructose corn syrup
- Table sugar
- Stevia (Correct answer)
- Honey
Correct answer: Stevia
Stevia is a zero-calorie, zero-carb natural sweetener that does not raise blood sugar and is considered keto-friendly.
Question 21: Which beverage is typically allowed during all phases of the South Beach Diet?
- Regular soda
- Fruit juice
- Water and unsweetened coffee or tea (Correct answer)
- Sweetened sports drinks
Correct answer: Water and unsweetened coffee or tea
Water and unsweetened beverages like coffee and tea are permitted throughout all phases, while sugary drinks are avoided.
Question 22: Which supplement has the strongest evidence for improving high-intensity exercise performance and is approved by major sports organizations?
- Creatine monohydrate (Correct answer)
- Glutamine
- Collagen peptides
- BCAAs alone
Correct answer: Creatine monohydrate
Creatine monohydrate is one of the most extensively studied and effective supplements for increasing power output and muscle mass during resistance and high-intensity training.
Question 23: Which type of carbohydrate is digested most slowly and helps regulate blood sugar?
- High-fructose corn syrup
- Simple sugars
- Complex carbohydrates (Correct answer)
- Refined grains
Correct answer: Complex carbohydrates
Complex carbohydrates contain long chains of glucose that digest slowly, providing sustained energy and stabilizing blood sugar.
Question 24: Post-exercise muscle protein synthesis is maximally stimulated by consuming approximately how many grams of high-quality protein?
- 20β40 g (Correct answer)
- Over 100 g
- 5β10 g
- 60β80 g
Correct answer: 20β40 g
Studies show 20β40 g of leucine-rich protein effectively maximizes muscle protein synthesis; amounts above this offer diminishing returns per meal.
Question 25: Which of the following is a Phase 1 South Beach Diet-approved vegetable?
- Carrots
- Beets
- Corn
- Spinach (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Spinach
Spinach is a non-starchy, low-glycemic vegetable permitted freely in Phase 1, while corn, carrots, and beets are higher in sugar and restricted.
Question 26: How does intermittent fasting affect growth hormone (HGH) levels?
- HGH increases significantly during fasting (Correct answer)
- HGH levels are unaffected by fasting
- HGH decreases during fasting
- HGH is converted to insulin during fasting
Correct answer: HGH increases significantly during fasting
Fasting has been shown to significantly increase growth hormone levels, which supports fat burning and muscle preservation.
Question 27: A person on the South Beach Diet is dining at a restaurant. Which entrΓ©e choice best aligns with Phase 2 guidelines?
- Fried shrimp with white rice
- Cheeseburger on a brioche bun
- Grilled chicken over mixed greens with olive oil dressing and a side of brown rice (Correct answer)
- Pasta primavera with white pasta
Correct answer: Grilled chicken over mixed greens with olive oil dressing and a side of brown rice
Grilled chicken, mixed greens, olive oil dressing, and brown rice represent lean protein, healthy fats, non-starchy vegetables, and a low-glycemic whole grain β all Phase 2 compatible.
Question 28: Which mineral is most critical for oxygen transport in the blood and directly impacts exercise endurance?
- Zinc
- Magnesium
- Iron (Correct answer)
- Calcium
Correct answer: Iron
Iron is a core component of hemoglobin, which carries oxygen from the lungs to working muscles during aerobic exercise.
Question 29: What does the '5:2' intermittent fasting protocol involve?
- 5 meals on 2 days per week
- Fasting 5 days and eating 2 days per week
- Eating normally 5 days and restricting to ~500 calories on 2 non-consecutive days (Correct answer)
- 5 hours eating, 2 hours fasting daily
Correct answer: Eating normally 5 days and restricting to ~500 calories on 2 non-consecutive days
The 5:2 protocol involves eating normally for 5 days per week and significantly reducing calorie intake to around 500β600 calories on 2 non-consecutive days.
Question 30: What is the most common intermittent fasting protocol?
- 24-hour fast
- 5:2 method
- Alternate day fasting
- 16:8 method (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 16:8 method
The 16:8 method β fasting for 16 hours and eating within an 8-hour window β is the most popular and widely practiced intermittent fasting protocol.
Question 31: The Physicians Committee for Responsible Medicine (PCRM) recommends a plant-based diet for what primary health benefit?
- Improving eyesight
- Increased athletic performance only
- Building maximum muscle mass
- Reducing the risk of heart disease, cancer, and type 2 diabetes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reducing the risk of heart disease, cancer, and type 2 diabetes
PCRM advocates plant-based diets primarily for their well-documented ability to reduce risks of heart disease, certain cancers, and type 2 diabetes.
Question 32: Which macronutrient has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)?
- Protein (Correct answer)
- Carbohydrates
- Fat
- Alcohol
Correct answer: Protein
Protein has the highest thermic effect, requiring 20β30% of its caloric value just for digestion and metabolism.
Question 33: Which of the following snacks best fits South Beach Diet Phase 1 guidelines?
- Celery with almond butter (Correct answer)
- Crackers and cheese spread
- A banana with honey
- A handful of pretzels
Correct answer: Celery with almond butter
Celery (non-starchy vegetable) with almond butter (healthy fats and protein) is ideal for Phase 1, avoiding refined carbs and sugar.
Registration Examination for Dietitians (RD/RDN Exam)
The CDR Registration Examination for Dietitians assesses entry-level competency in nutrition care, dietetics principles, food and nutrition science, and management of food systems to credential Registered Dietitian Nutritionists.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong β answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds