DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)
Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic
It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 2: What is the maximum single recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) administered IV during adult cardiac arrest?

10 mg IV once only
1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (Correct answer)
0.1 mg IV every minute
5 mg IV bolus every 2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

Current ACLS guidelines recommend 1 mg of IV epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

Question 3: Which APGAR score component specifically assesses a newborn's muscle tone?

Activity (Correct answer)
Pulse
Grimace
Respiration

Correct answer: Activity

In the APGAR scoring system, 'Activity' (A) refers to muscle tone, scored from 0 (limp) to 2 (active flexion of limbs).

Question 4: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
APACHE II
National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
SOFA score

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 5: What is the DHA protocol for delirium assessment and management in ICU?

Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles (Correct answer)
Delirium resolves without intervention
Delirium is not assessed in ICU
Only physical restraints are used

Correct answer: Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles

DHA requires regular delirium screening using validated tools like CAM-ICU, implementation of the ABCDEF bundle (assessment, breathing trials, coordination, delirium monitoring, early mobility, family engagement), and non-pharmacological prevention.

Question 6: A nurse notes that a prescribed medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean clinically?

The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring (Correct answer)
The drug is safe at any dose
Only one dose per day is required
The drug has no side effects

Correct answer: The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic plasma concentrations are close together, requiring frequent monitoring of drug levels and patient response.

Question 7: What is the DHA standard for patient identification before medication administration?

Checking the room number only
Verifying with the patient's family member
Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band (Correct answer)
Asking the patient their name only

Correct answer: Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band

DHA patient safety standards require verification of at least two identifiers (typically full name and medical record number/date of birth) against the medication order and patient ID band before any medication administration.

Question 8: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection
Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription
Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 9: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)
Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 10: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Hypertension alone
Bradycardia alone
Vomiting without nausea
Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 11: How should a DHA nurse perform a pain assessment for a non-verbal patient?

Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (Correct answer)
Only assess pain when family members are present
Ask the physician to assess pain
Assume no pain if the patient is not crying

Correct answer: Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs

For non-verbal patients, DHA nurses use validated behavioral pain assessment tools (FLACC, CPOT, BPS) that evaluate facial expressions, body movements, muscle tension, and physiological indicators.

Question 12: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

A black stoma is expected in the first week
A pale white stoma is normal
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health
The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 13: What is the DHA standard for restraint use in nursing practice?

Chemical restraint is always preferred
Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal (Correct answer)
Restraints do not require documentation
Nurses can apply restraints at their discretion

Correct answer: Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal

DHA restraint use requires a physician order, must be a last resort after alternative interventions, requires continuous patient monitoring with neurovascular checks, and must be reassessed regularly for earliest possible removal.

Question 14: Which ethical principle requires a nurse to act in the best interest of the patient?

Beneficence (Correct answer)
Non-maleficence
Autonomy
Justice

Correct answer: Beneficence

Beneficence is the ethical principle requiring healthcare professionals to take positive action to promote the well-being and best interests of their patients.

Question 15: Which assessment finding in a post-thyroidectomy patient requires immediate nursing action?

Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign (Correct answer)
Slight hoarseness on day one
Low-grade fever of 37.5°C
Mild throat soreness

Correct answer: Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign

Tetany and positive Trousseau's sign indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 16: What quality indicators does DHA track for nursing practice?

Only staffing ratios
No quality indicators are tracked for nursing
Only patient satisfaction scores
Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction

DHA tracks nursing-sensitive quality indicators including falls with injury rate, hospital-acquired pressure injury incidence, central line-associated bloodstream infection rates, medication error rates, and patient satisfaction.

Question 17: What is the primary online portal used to apply for a DHA nursing license?

Sheryan (Correct answer)
DubaiNow
TAMM
MOHAP Portal

Correct answer: Sheryan

Sheryan is the DHA's official online licensing portal where healthcare professionals submit their licensing applications.

Question 18: A postpartum patient on day 5 reports a painful, warm, erythematous area on one breast accompanied by fever of 38.9°C and flu-like symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Breast abscess
Galactocele
Mastitis (Correct answer)
Breast engorgement

Correct answer: Mastitis

Mastitis is a breast infection typically occurring 2–5 weeks postpartum, presenting with localized pain, warmth, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms.

Question 19: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Oral thermometry
Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)
Axillary thermometry
Tympanic thermometry

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 20: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

Controlled substances are only given by physicians
Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification
No special regulations exist
Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 21: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Keeping sterile items at waist level
Opening a sterile package away from the body
Wearing sterile gloves correctly
Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 22: What does 'informed consent' require before a nursing procedure?

A relative's signature is sufficient
Written consent is only needed for surgery
Consent given under sedation is valid
The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion

Valid informed consent requires disclosure of relevant information in understandable language, patient comprehension, and voluntary decision-making free from pressure.

Question 23: What continuing professional development (CPD) requirements does DHA mandate for licensed nurses?

No CPD is required after initial licensure
A minimum number of CPD hours must be completed during each license renewal cycle (Correct answer)
CPD is optional but recommended
Only one course per year

Correct answer: A minimum number of CPD hours must be completed during each license renewal cycle

DHA requires licensed nurses to accumulate a specified minimum number of CPD hours during each licensure cycle, covering clinical competencies, patient safety, and professional development topics.

Question 24: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Pain assessment is only done once daily
Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)
Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Only administer morphine on request

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 25: Which document format must nursing transcripts be submitted in for DHA primary source verification?

Notarised translation only
Self-certified photocopies
Officially attested and authenticated originals or certified copies sent directly from the issuing institution (Correct answer)
Scanned PDF sent by the applicant

Correct answer: Officially attested and authenticated originals or certified copies sent directly from the issuing institution

DataFlow primary source verification requires official transcripts to be sent directly from the issuing educational institution to prevent document fraud.

Question 26: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry in post-operative patients?

To measure peak expiratory flow
To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis (Correct answer)
To monitor carbon dioxide levels
To administer inhaled medications

Correct answer: To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis

Incentive spirometry promotes sustained maximal inspiration, expanding alveoli and preventing atelectasis—a common post-operative pulmonary complication.

Question 27: What is the DHA requirement for patient education and discharge planning?

Education is the physician's responsibility only
Only provide written instructions at discharge
Discharge instructions are optional
Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method

DHA requires discharge planning to begin on admission, with patient education provided in the patient's preferred language using both written and verbal methods, with understanding verified through the teach-back method.

Question 28: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Serosanguineous (Correct answer)
Purulent
Sanguineous
Serous

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 29: What is the DHA rapid response team activation criteria?

Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level (Correct answer)
Only senior nurses can activate the team
There are no specific criteria
Only when cardiac arrest occurs

Correct answer: Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level

DHA rapid response team activation is triggered by specific physiological criteria including acute changes in vital signs or consciousness level, allowing any concerned staff member to activate the team.

Question 30: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response
Signs, Background, Advice, Report
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)
Status, Background, Action, Review

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 31: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

40–50 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
25–35 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 32: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)
Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Simple face mask (35–55% O2)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 33: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Administer oxygen immediately
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Insert an IV line
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 34: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)
Only after patient contact
Only before procedures
Before and after meals only

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 35: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Personal opinions about the patient should be included
Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care
Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 36: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Handover is optional
Written report only with no verbal communication
Informal chat between nurses
Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 37: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To educate the patient about diet
To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)
To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To generate a billing statement

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 38: In a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse verify correct tube placement before feeding?

Rely on patient comfort as indicator
Test with litmus paper placed in the mouth
Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray (Correct answer)
Listen for air insufflation sounds only

Correct answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray

Aspirating gastric contents and checking pH ≤5.5 or confirming with X-ray are evidence-based methods to verify NG tube placement and prevent aspiration.

Question 39: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Hypertension
Hypotension (Correct answer)
Prehypertension
Normal

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 40: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Only physicians participate in stewardship
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship
Only administer antibiotics as ordered
Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 41: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

Only reporting outbreaks
Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
No surveillance is required
Only completing annual surveys

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 42: What telehealth regulations apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Only physicians can provide telehealth
Telehealth has no specific regulations
Telehealth is not permitted for nurses
Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements

DHA allows nurses to provide telehealth services within their defined scope of practice, following specific DHA telehealth guidelines covering consent, documentation, privacy, and technical requirements.

Question 43: What is the DHA incident reporting system and when should nurses use it?

Only for serious harm events
Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours (Correct answer)
Only when requested by management
Incident reporting is voluntary

Correct answer: Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours

DHA requires reporting of all incidents including near-misses, adverse events, and sentinel events through the electronic reporting system within 24 hours, fostering a just culture of learning and improvement.

Question 44: A patient refuses a recommended blood transfusion for religious reasons while fully conscious and informed. What is the nurse's ethical obligation?

Override the decision because life-saving treatment takes priority
Proceed with the transfusion to save the patient's life
Discharge the patient immediately without further care
Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences

Autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle; a competent, informed patient has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse must document the refusal and continue providing alternative supportive care.

Question 45: What is the primary nursing concern when a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) has a rising blood pressure and falling heart rate?

Hypovolaemic shock
Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention (Correct answer)
Medication side effect from beta-blockers
Normal physiological stress response

Correct answer: Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention

Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) is a late, ominous sign of severely elevated ICP threatening brainstem herniation.

Question 46: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a norepinephrine infusion for septic shock. What is the primary goal of this vasopressor therapy?

Reduce fluid requirements to zero
Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion (Correct answer)
Raise diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
Decrease heart rate to 60 bpm

Correct answer: Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, titrated to maintain a MAP ≥65 mmHg to sustain adequate perfusion pressure to vital organs.

Question 47: Which drug interaction is a contraindication when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Standard saline IV fluids
Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs (Correct answer)
Vitamin C supplements

Correct answer: Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and catecholamines; consuming tyramine-rich foods or sympathomimetics can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

Question 48: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

No specific sequence is required
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)
Put everything on simultaneously

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 49: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

Prone
Supine
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)
Trendelenburg

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 50: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Florence Nightingale
Dorothea Orem
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Virginia Henderson

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 51: Which level of prevention focuses on early detection of disease through screening programmes?

Primary prevention
Quaternary prevention
Secondary prevention (Correct answer)
Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: Secondary prevention

Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease at an early stage through screening, reducing disease progression and complications.

Question 52: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Only administer antibiotics
Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility
Only monitor temperature

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 53: What is the DHA protocol for monitoring patients receiving blood transfusions?

Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions (Correct answer)
Only monitor the drip rate
No monitoring is required for blood transfusions
Check vital signs only before starting

Correct answer: Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions

DHA blood transfusion monitoring requires vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes after starting, then at 30-minute to hourly intervals during the transfusion, and after completion, with continuous observation for reactions.

Question 54: What is the DHA protocol for high-alert medication administration?

Only require verbal confirmation
Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling (Correct answer)
High-alert medications do not require special handling
Treat the same as regular medications

Correct answer: Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling

DHA classifies certain medications as high-alert (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes) requiring independent double-checks, standardized concentrations, and distinctive labeling to prevent errors.

Question 55: In adult basic life support (BLS), what is the correct chest compression rate?

130–150 compressions per minute
40–60 compressions per minute
100–120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
60–80 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

The American Heart Association and current BLS guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100–120 per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output during CPR.

Question 56: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)
Patient admission checklist
Discharge planning steps
Surgical time-out protocol

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 57: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

Prolonged PR interval
ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
Widened QRS complex only
T-wave inversion in one lead

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 58: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

1 mL
4 mL
0.4 mL (Correct answer)
0.04 mL

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 59: What is the DHA process for handling professional misconduct complaints against nurses?

Only verbal warnings are given
Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation (Correct answer)
Complaints are ignored
Nurses cannot face disciplinary action

Correct answer: Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation

DHA handles professional misconduct through formal investigation, providing the nurse opportunity to respond, conducting disciplinary hearings when warranted, with potential sanctions from warnings to license suspension or revocation.

Question 60: In community nursing, what is the purpose of an epidemiological approach?

To manage hospital bed capacity
To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions (Correct answer)
To treat individual patients at home
To prescribe medications for chronic illness

Correct answer: To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions

Epidemiology examines how diseases are distributed across populations and identifies risk factors, enabling targeted public health strategies to reduce disease burden.

Question 61: What are the 'Rights' of medication administration that DHA nurses must follow?

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response (Correct answer)
Right dose and right time only
Right patient only
Right patient, right drug, right dose only

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response

DHA extends the traditional '5 Rights' to include right documentation (recording administration), right reason (understanding the indication), and right response (monitoring for expected and adverse effects).

Question 62: A 3-year-old child experiences a febrile seizure. What is the nurse's priority intervention during the seizure?

Restrain the child's limbs to prevent injury
Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency (Correct answer)
Insert an oral airway device immediately
Administer rectal diazepam at seizure onset

Correct answer: Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency

Positioning the child on the side (recovery position) during a seizure prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency; restraint and oral insertion are contraindicated.

Question 63: Which nursing intervention is the priority for a patient in hypovolaemic shock?

Administering antihypertensives
Elevating the head of the bed to 90°
Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume (Correct answer)
Restricting all oral fluids

Correct answer: Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume

Hypovolaemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume; rapid IV fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone treatment to restore perfusion pressure.

Question 64: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Serum potassium
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)
Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 65: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Standard precautions alone
Droplet precautions only
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)
Contact precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 66: Which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is consistent with respiratory acidosis?

pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg (Correct answer)
pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Correct answer: pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Respiratory acidosis is characterised by a low pH below 7.35 combined with CO2 retention (PaCO2 > 45 mmHg), reflecting inadequate ventilation.

Question 67: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Transferring patients between departments
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Documenting patient allergies
Discharging stable patients

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 68: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Clean the same as regular rooms
Cleaning is done by the patient's family
Only clean after patient discharge
Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 69: A 3-day-old term newborn develops mild yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. The nurse suspects which type of jaundice?

Pathological jaundice
ABO incompatibility hemolytic jaundice
Physiological jaundice (Correct answer)
Breast milk jaundice

Correct answer: Physiological jaundice

Physiological jaundice typically appears on days 2–3 in term newborns due to hepatic immaturity and breakdown of fetal hemoglobin, and is self-limiting.

Question 70: Which complication is most commonly associated with prolonged bed rest in post-surgical patients?

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)
Hyperkalaemia
Hypertension
Hyperglycaemia

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Venous stasis from immobility during prolonged bed rest is the primary risk factor for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical patients.

Question 71: What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure (Correct answer)
Restrain the patient's limbs firmly
Give oral medication immediately

Correct answer: Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure

During a seizure, nurses must protect the patient from injury, turn them to the side to prevent aspiration, and time the event to guide medical management.

Question 72: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Iron deficiency anaemia
Excess sodium intake
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)
Vitamin C deficiency only

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 73: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Sitting upright with arms raised above the head
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Supine with arms extended overhead

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 74: During a mass casualty incident in the UAE, which triage colour designates patients who are deceased or have unsurvivable injuries?

Black (Correct answer)
Green
Red
Yellow

Correct answer: Black

In the START triage system, black tags are assigned to patients who are deceased or have injuries incompatible with survival, indicating they will not receive active treatment.

Question 75: What continuing education does DHA require for nurses regarding medication safety?

Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training (Correct answer)
Only orientation training
Education only after a medication error occurs
No continuing education is required

Correct answer: Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training

DHA requires ongoing medication safety education including annual competency assessments, updates on formulary changes and new medications, high-alert medication training, and participation in safety improvement initiatives.

Question 76: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Delayed primary closure
Primary intention (Correct answer)
Secondary intention
Tertiary intention

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 77: Which measurement guides dosing of aminoglycoside antibiotics to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

Body weight alone
Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance (Correct answer)
Urine colour
White blood cell count

Correct answer: Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance

Peak and trough levels ensure aminoglycoside efficacy and prevent accumulation; creatinine clearance guides dose adjustment in renal impairment to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Question 78: A postpartum nurse assesses lochia on day 2 and notes large clots with a foul-smelling odor. What is the priority action?

Encourage the mother to ambulate more frequently
Notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Apply a warm compress to the abdomen
Document findings as normal lochia rubra

Correct answer: Notify the physician immediately

Large clots with a foul odor in lochia are abnormal and may indicate postpartum hemorrhage or uterine infection, requiring immediate medical evaluation.

Question 79: Which class of medications requires the nurse to monitor for signs of angioedema as a rare but serious side effect?

Beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril) (Correct answer)
Thiazide diuretics
Statins

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril)

ACE inhibitors can cause bradykinin accumulation, which in rare cases leads to angioedema—potentially life-threatening swelling of the face, lips, and airway.

Question 80: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Vaccination is optional for all staff
Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required
Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
No vaccinations are required

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 81: What is the DHA protocol for blood glucose monitoring in hospitalized patients?

Only test fasting glucose on admission
Test only when symptoms appear
Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients (Correct answer)
Once weekly for all patients

Correct answer: Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients

DHA protocols require blood glucose monitoring before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with more frequent monitoring (every 1-2 hours) for patients on insulin infusions or experiencing glycemic instability.

Question 82: Which document is mandatory when applying for a DHA nursing license as a foreign graduate?

Letter from a UAE hospital
Local Emirates ID only
UAE residence visa only
Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority

A Certificate of Good Standing (or Letter of Good Standing) from the nurse's home country licensing authority confirms their professional standing and is required by DHA.

Question 83: According to DHA regulations, a nurse found to be practicing with an expired license is subject to which consequence?

Verbal warning only
Transfer to Ministry of Health jurisdiction
Administrative fine and possible suspension (Correct answer)
Automatic license renewal

Correct answer: Administrative fine and possible suspension

DHA enforces strict compliance; practicing with an expired license can result in administrative fines and potential suspension of the practitioner from Dubai healthcare facilities.

Question 84: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Only call the charge nurse
Wait for the physician to notice
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)
Document the deterioration and continue monitoring

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

Question 85: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
Apply antiseptic and continue working
Report at end of shift
No action is needed if wearing gloves

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 86: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Subcutaneous (SC)
Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)
Intramuscular (IM)
Oral (PO)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 87: Which medication is routinely administered to newborns immediately after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

Hepatitis B vaccine
Erythromycin eye ointment
Vitamin D injection
Vitamin K injection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin K injection

Vitamin K is administered intramuscularly at birth because newborns have low stores and lack gut bacteria to synthesize it, preventing potentially fatal bleeding.

Question 88: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

Isolation is not required for MDRO
Only antibiotics are needed
No special precautions beyond standard
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 89: A patient with a chest tube to water-seal drainage shows continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

Air leak in the system or lung (Correct answer)
Normal functioning
Suction level too high
Fluid drainage complete

Correct answer: Air leak in the system or lung

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber (not during respiration only) suggests an ongoing air leak, either from the patient's lung or a break in the drainage system.

Question 90: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Once daily
Only on admission
Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)
Once per nursing shift

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 91: In the UAE, which government authority is responsible for national public health policy and health sector regulation?

Emirates Health Services (EHS)
Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH)
Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP)

MOHAP is the federal government authority responsible for overall national health policy, regulation, and public health initiatives across the UAE.

Question 92: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Bronchiolitis
Epiglottitis
Acute asthma
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 93: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Document the finding and wait for rounds
Administer IV morphine
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)
Order a chest X-ray first

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 94: Which stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the baby?

Fourth stage
Second stage (Correct answer)
First stage
Third stage

Correct answer: Second stage

The second stage of labor spans from full (10 cm) cervical dilation to the birth of the baby, during which the mother actively pushes.

Question 95: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Not a nursing competency
Only physicians interpret blood gases
Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Only monitor oxygen levels

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 96: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Air conditioning use
High sugar consumption only
Excessive screen time
Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 97: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

5 seconds
10 seconds
1 minute
20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 98: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Urine output only
Last bowel movement
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Pain scale rating

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 99: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Drawing a straight line
Forming 3-word sentences
Walking independently (Correct answer)
Running and climbing stairs

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 100: What are the DHA International Patient Safety Goals that nurses must know?

Only hand hygiene
Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention (Correct answer)
There are no specific safety goals
Only medication safety and fall prevention

Correct answer: Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention

DHA aligns with international patient safety goals covering: correct patient identification, effective communication, high-alert medication safety, correct site/procedure/patient surgery, HAI reduction, and fall prevention.

Question 101: What does the principle of 'justice' mean in nursing ethics?

Always prioritising high-paying patients
Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably (Correct answer)
Referring all care decisions to the legal system
Punishing unethical colleagues

Correct answer: Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably

Justice in nursing ethics requires fair, equitable distribution of care and resources, ensuring all patients receive treatment based on need rather than social status or ability to pay.

Question 102: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

No specific technique is required
Clean technique is sufficient
Only hand washing is required
Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 103: What does a DHA nurse need to verify before administering an intravenous medication?

Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency (Correct answer)
Only the medication name
Only the expiry date
Only that the patient has IV access

Correct answer: Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency

Before IV medication administration, DHA nurses must verify drug compatibility with concurrent infusions, correct dilution and concentration, appropriate infusion rate, IV line patency, and site assessment.

Question 104: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

5–15 degrees (Correct answer)
45 degrees
90 degrees
30–45 degrees

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 105: A primigravida at 38 weeks presents with BP 162/112 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and severe headache. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?

IV magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)
IV hydralazine
Oral nifedipine
Oral labetalol

Correct answer: IV magnesium sulfate

IV magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, reducing the risk of eclamptic convulsions.

Question 106: Which credential evaluation is required to verify foreign nursing qualifications for DHA?

NACES evaluation
World Education Services (WES)
NARIC evaluation
DataFlow Group Primary Source Verification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DataFlow Group Primary Source Verification

DHA mandates Primary Source Verification through DataFlow Group to authenticate educational and professional credentials of internationally trained applicants.

Question 107: According to the UAE Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), which vaccines are administered to all newborns within 24 hours of birth?

BCG and Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
MMR and Varicella
Polio (OPV) and DTP
Hepatitis A and Rotavirus

Correct answer: BCG and Hepatitis B

In the UAE and WHO-recommended schedules, BCG (tuberculosis) and Hepatitis B vaccines are both administered within 24 hours of birth.

Question 108: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Protamine sulphate
Flumazenil
Atropine
Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 109: What is the DHA protocol for medication reconciliation?

Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies (Correct answer)
Not required in Dubai healthcare facilities
Only required for elderly patients
Only performed at discharge

Correct answer: Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies

DHA requires medication reconciliation at every transition of care (admission, transfer, discharge), comparing home medications against new orders to identify duplications, omissions, and interactions.

Question 110: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

10–15 seconds
5–10 seconds
2 minutes
40–60 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 111: What is the DHA licensing process for nurses wishing to practice in Dubai?

No license is required
Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license (Correct answer)
Only submit a resume
Only pass an English language test

Correct answer: Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license

DHA nursing licensure requires primary source verification through DataFlow, successful completion of the DHA professional licensing examination, obtaining an eligibility letter, and formal license application.

Question 112: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Hypotension and tachycardia
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)
Concentrated urine and thirst

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 113: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To communicate with insurance companies
To record medication costs
To document billing information

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 114: Before administering a blood transfusion, which nursing action is the most critical safety step?

Checking the patient's haemoglobin level
Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility (Correct answer)
Hanging normal saline after the blood
Taking the patient's blood pressure only

Correct answer: Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility

Two-nurse identity and blood product verification is the critical safety check that prevents transfusion reactions caused by administering incompatible blood.

Question 115: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)
Droplet precautions only
Contact precautions only
Standard precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 116: What is the primary role of a community health nurse in a school health programme?

Conducting surgical procedures on campus
Managing pharmacy stock for the school
Treating acute illnesses requiring hospitalisation
Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs

School health nurses focus on preventive care: screening for developmental and health issues, promoting healthy lifestyles, and referring students requiring further assessment.

Question 117: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Check the medication label alone
Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only
Ask only the patient's room number

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 118: How should a DHA-licensed nurse document a wound assessment?

Write 'wound present' in the chart
Only photograph the wound
Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor (Correct answer)
Note only the wound size

Correct answer: Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor

DHA documentation standards require comprehensive wound assessment including exact location, measurements (length x width x depth), wound bed color, exudate characteristics, periwound skin condition, and any odor.

Question 119: Which position should a patient be placed in after a lumbar puncture to help prevent a post-procedure headache?

Left lateral Trendelenburg
High Fowler's immediately
Supine (flat) for 1–4 hours as instructed (Correct answer)
Ambulate immediately

Correct answer: Supine (flat) for 1–4 hours as instructed

Lying supine after a lumbar puncture reduces CSF pressure at the puncture site and helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache caused by CSF leakage.

Question 120: What is the DHA protocol for managing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Only provide high-flow oxygen
Only increase oxygen to 100%
Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance (Correct answer)
ARDS is not managed in Dubai

Correct answer: Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance

DHA ARDS management includes lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6ml/kg), prone positioning for 16+ hours, conservative fluid management, continuous SpO2/ABG monitoring, and sedation management.

Question 121: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

Stop the medication immediately
This indicates severe kidney damage
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day
This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 122: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Only oxygen saturation
Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)
Only blood pressure and heart rate
Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 123: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

Dextrose 10% in Water
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
0.45% Hypotonic Saline
3% Hypertonic Saline

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 124: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)
Short-acting regular insulin
Rapid-acting insulin
Intermediate-acting insulin

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 125: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Uterine rupture
Premature rupture of membranes
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)
Placenta previa

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 126: A community health nurse is conducting a home visit for a diabetic patient. Which assessment is the priority?

Blood glucose monitoring and medication adherence (Correct answer)
Checking TV viewing habits
Housing cleanliness inspection
Family income assessment

Correct answer: Blood glucose monitoring and medication adherence

Monitoring blood glucose and ensuring medication adherence are the most critical assessments in a diabetic home visit as they directly impact glycaemic control and complication prevention.

Question 127: In a patient with suspected anaphylaxis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment?

Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg (Correct answer)
IV antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone)
Nebulised salbutamol

Correct answer: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and preventing fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Question 128: What is the DHA protocol for safe patient transport within the hospital?

Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area (Correct answer)
Only ICU patients need transport preparation
Only send the patient with a porter
No special preparations are needed

Correct answer: Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area

DHA requires pre-transport stability assessment, portable monitoring equipment, emergency medications and airway equipment, trained clinical escort appropriate to acuity, and prior communication with the receiving department.

Question 129: What is the DHA nursing role in managing patients receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

CRRT does not require nursing monitoring
CRRT is managed only by physicians
Only check the machine once per shift
Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity

DHA ICU nurses managing CRRT must monitor circuit pressures and patency, anticoagulation therapy, strict hourly fluid balance calculations, electrolyte monitoring, and vascular access site assessment.

Question 130: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Mix with regular laundry
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Store in the patient room until end of shift
Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 131: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Increase the heparin infusion rate
Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours
Administer vitamin K

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 132: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)
2–3 wet diapers per day
Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches
Infant feeds only when visibly distressed

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 133: Which nursing action is most important BEFORE administering any new medication to a patient?

Double the dose if the patient is obese
Skip the check if the medication is over-the-counter
Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights (Correct answer)
Ask the patient if they feel like taking the medication

Correct answer: Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights

Verifying allergies and applying the five/six rights of medication administration are the fundamental safety steps that prevent adverse drug reactions and medication errors.

Question 134: Which measure is most effective in preventing the spread of communicable diseases in the community?

Vaccination programmes and public health education (Correct answer)
Antibiotic administration to entire communities
Restricting access to healthcare facilities
Isolation of all community members

Correct answer: Vaccination programmes and public health education

Vaccination creates population immunity (herd immunity) and public health education promotes hygiene and behaviour change, making these the most effective tools for preventing communicable disease spread.

Question 135: How should a DHA nurse calculate pediatric medication doses?

Estimate based on the child's age
Use a standard dose for all children
Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges (Correct answer)
Use adult doses divided by half

Correct answer: Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges

DHA pediatric medication dosing requires weight-based calculations using mg/kg formulas, verified against recommended dose ranges for the specific medication and age group, with mandatory independent double-checking.

Question 136: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Only report if there is a visible fracture
Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Notify only the family
Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 137: Which parenteral route is used to administer the hepatitis B vaccine?

Subcutaneous (SC) injection
Intradermal injection
Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid (Correct answer)
Intravenous (IV) infusion

Correct answer: Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid

The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle to ensure adequate immune response while avoiding subcutaneous fat, which impairs immunogenicity.

Question 138: Which early sign of septic shock distinguishes it from other shock types?

Hypertension with bradycardia
Absence of fever
Cold, clammy, mottled skin initially
Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase)

In early septic shock (warm phase), vasodilation causes warm, flushed skin and hypotension, distinguishing it from the cool vasoconstriction seen in cardiogenic or hypovolaemic shock.

Question 139: What is the DHA standard for pressure injury prevention?

Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection (Correct answer)
Only use special mattresses
Only apply barrier cream
Prevention is only for ICU patients

Correct answer: Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection

DHA pressure injury prevention includes Braden Scale risk assessment, 2-hourly repositioning schedules, nutritional optimization, regular skin integrity checks, moisture management, and appropriate support surface selection.

Question 140: Continuing Medical/Nursing Education (CME/CNE) hours are required for DHA license renewal. What is the general minimum annual requirement?

100 hours per year
5 hours per year
No requirement
30 CME/CNE hours per year (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 CME/CNE hours per year

DHA requires healthcare professionals, including nurses, to accumulate a minimum of 30 CME/CNE hours annually to maintain competency and qualify for license renewal.

Question 141: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hypocalcaemia

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 142: According to DHA nursing standards, what is the correct order for physical assessment?

Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
Percussion, palpation, auscultation, inspection
Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation (Correct answer)
Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation

Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

DHA nursing standards follow the systematic approach of inspection (visual observation), palpation (touch), percussion (tapping), and auscultation (listening), except for abdominal assessment where auscultation precedes palpation.

Question 143: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to occur when a patient also has which electrolyte imbalance?

Hypercalcaemia (high calcium)
Hypernatraemia (high sodium)
Hypokalaemia (low potassium) (Correct answer)
Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia (low potassium)

Hypokalaemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase receptor on cardiac cells; low potassium increases digoxin binding.

Question 144: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

No English test required
TOEFL 80
IELTS 7.5 overall
IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 145: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain
Chest tightness with diaphoresis
Sudden severe headache
Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 146: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal
Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely
Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 147: Which laboratory value is the primary indicator of kidney function monitored in medical-surgical patients?

Serum albumin
Serum creatinine (Correct answer)
Haemoglobin
White blood cell count

Correct answer: Serum creatinine

Serum creatinine is the most reliable routine indicator of glomerular filtration rate and overall kidney function in clinical settings.

Question 148: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)
Only cool the patient to room temperature
Temperature management is not performed in Dubai
Only use ice packs

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 149: What is the DHA regulation on nurse-initiated medications (standing orders)?

Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification (Correct answer)
Only senior nurses can use standing orders
Standing orders are not permitted in DHA facilities
Nurses can administer any medication without orders

Correct answer: Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification

DHA allows nurses to administer certain medications under pre-approved standing orders or clinical protocols for specific clinical situations, with proper documentation and timely physician notification.

Question 150: During the third stage of labor, the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood and lengthening of the umbilical cord. What does this indicate?

Cord prolapse has occurred
Postpartum hemorrhage has occurred
Placental separation is complete (Correct answer)
Uterine inversion is imminent

Correct answer: Placental separation is complete

A sudden gush of blood and cord lengthening are the two classic signs that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready to be delivered.

Question 151: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Pulse, pressure, pupils
Orientation, memory, reflexes
Pupil size, pain response, breathing
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 152: A patient with type 2 diabetes is NPO for surgery. Which nursing action is most important regarding their antidiabetic medications?

Administer all medications as prescribed regardless
Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust (Correct answer)
Discontinue all medications permanently
Double the morning insulin dose

Correct answer: Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust

NPO status and surgical stress alter glucose metabolism; the nurse must clarify medication orders with the physician to prevent hypoglycaemia or dangerous hyperglycaemia.

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

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Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
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Timer auto-submits when time runs out
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

dha.gov.ae — Renewal, retake policy, score release, score validity, eligibility · verified Oct 2026
services.dha.gov.ae — Test delivery, fees, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026