DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A mechanically ventilated patient develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Tension pneumothorax (Correct answer)
Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Aspiration pneumonia

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

Sudden hypotension with unilateral absent breath sounds in a ventilated patient is the hallmark presentation of tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency.

Question 2: What is the purpose of the DHA 'Sheryan' system for nurses already licensed in Dubai?

To manage renewals, CME tracking, and license status updates online (Correct answer)
To process payroll for nurses
To book hospital appointments for patients
To issue Emirates IDs

Correct answer: To manage renewals, CME tracking, and license status updates online

Sheryan serves as the complete lifecycle management portal for DHA licensees, handling renewals, CME record tracking, and any changes to license status.

Question 3: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

A pale white stoma is normal
The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health
A black stoma is expected in the first week

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 4: A primigravida at 38 weeks presents with BP 162/112 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and severe headache. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?

Oral nifedipine
IV magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)
Oral labetalol
IV hydralazine

Correct answer: IV magnesium sulfate

IV magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, reducing the risk of eclamptic convulsions.

Question 5: What is the DHA protocol for managing IV infiltration or extravasation?

Only apply a warm compress
Ignore if the patient does not complain
Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report (Correct answer)
Continue the infusion at a slower rate

Correct answer: Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report

DHA protocols require immediate cessation of the infusion, aspiration of residual fluid through the catheter, application of hot or cold compresses depending on the medication, limb elevation, and detailed documentation.

Question 6: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

No special regulations exist
Controlled substances are only given by physicians
Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification
Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 7: Which measurement guides dosing of aminoglycoside antibiotics to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance (Correct answer)
Body weight alone
White blood cell count
Urine colour

Correct answer: Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance

Peak and trough levels ensure aminoglycoside efficacy and prevent accumulation; creatinine clearance guides dose adjustment in renal impairment to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Question 8: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)
Chest tightness with diaphoresis
Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain
Sudden severe headache

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 9: What is the DHA protocol for safe patient transport within the hospital?

No special preparations are needed
Only ICU patients need transport preparation
Only send the patient with a porter
Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area

DHA requires pre-transport stability assessment, portable monitoring equipment, emergency medications and airway equipment, trained clinical escort appropriate to acuity, and prior communication with the receiving department.

Question 10: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Notify only the family
Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Only report if there is a visible fracture
Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 11: What scope of practice restrictions apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Only restrictions apply to new graduates
There are no scope restrictions in Dubai
Nurses can perform any medical procedure
Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing

DHA defines nursing scope of practice based on qualification level (enrolled nurse, registered nurse, specialist), license category, and individual facility credentialing and privileging processes.

Question 12: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Walking independently (Correct answer)
Drawing a straight line
Forming 3-word sentences
Running and climbing stairs

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 13: A patient with type 2 diabetes is NPO for surgery. Which nursing action is most important regarding their antidiabetic medications?

Administer all medications as prescribed regardless
Discontinue all medications permanently
Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust (Correct answer)
Double the morning insulin dose

Correct answer: Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust

NPO status and surgical stress alter glucose metabolism; the nurse must clarify medication orders with the physician to prevent hypoglycaemia or dangerous hyperglycaemia.

Question 14: Which stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the baby?

Third stage
First stage
Fourth stage
Second stage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Second stage

The second stage of labor spans from full (10 cm) cervical dilation to the birth of the baby, during which the mother actively pushes.

Question 15: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Serous
Serosanguineous (Correct answer)
Sanguineous
Purulent

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 16: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Tympanic thermometry
Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)
Axillary thermometry
Oral thermometry

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 17: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)
Simple face mask (35–55% O2)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 18: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Dorothea Orem
Florence Nightingale
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Virginia Henderson

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 19: What is the correct sequence for defibrillation using an AED?

Start CPR, shock after 5 cycles, then attach AED
Assess pulse first, then attach pads, shock if pulseless
Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR (Correct answer)
Attach pads, shock immediately without analysis, then assess

Correct answer: Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR

AED use follows: power on, attach pads to dry skin, allow rhythm analysis, deliver the shock if advised, then immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes.

Question 20: What is the primary online portal used to apply for a DHA nursing license?

TAMM
MOHAP Portal
Sheryan (Correct answer)
DubaiNow

Correct answer: Sheryan

Sheryan is the DHA's official online licensing portal where healthcare professionals submit their licensing applications.

Question 21: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)
Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Only administer morphine on request
Pain assessment is only done once daily

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 22: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Handover is optional
Written report only with no verbal communication
Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)
Informal chat between nurses

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 23: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal
Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 24: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

Clean technique is sufficient
Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)
No specific technique is required
Only hand washing is required

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 25: How should a DHA nurse manage a medication error?

Wait to see if the patient shows symptoms
Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis (Correct answer)
Hide the error to avoid consequences
Only tell the charge nurse

Correct answer: Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis

DHA medication error management requires immediate patient assessment, physician notification, accurate documentation, incident reporting through the facility's reporting system, and participation in review processes for learning.

Question 26: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Sitting upright with arms raised above the head
Supine with arms extended overhead

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 27: Which drug interaction is a contraindication when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs (Correct answer)
Vitamin C supplements
Standard saline IV fluids
Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

Correct answer: Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and catecholamines; consuming tyramine-rich foods or sympathomimetics can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

Question 28: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
No specific sequence is required
Put everything on simultaneously

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 29: What ethical principles guide DHA nursing practice?

Only following hospital rules
Only maintaining confidentiality
Ethics are subjective and not regulated
Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions

DHA nursing ethics are built on fundamental principles: autonomy (patient self-determination), beneficence (doing good), non-maleficence (do no harm), justice (fair treatment), veracity (truthfulness), and fidelity (keeping promises).

Question 30: A patient with a chest tube to water-seal drainage shows continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

Normal functioning
Suction level too high
Fluid drainage complete
Air leak in the system or lung (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Air leak in the system or lung

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber (not during respiration only) suggests an ongoing air leak, either from the patient's lung or a break in the drainage system.

Question 31: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)
Serum potassium
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 32: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)
Only after patient contact
Only before procedures
Before and after meals only

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 33: How should a DHA nurse perform a pain assessment for a non-verbal patient?

Ask the physician to assess pain
Only assess pain when family members are present
Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (Correct answer)
Assume no pain if the patient is not crying

Correct answer: Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs

For non-verbal patients, DHA nurses use validated behavioral pain assessment tools (FLACC, CPOT, BPS) that evaluate facial expressions, body movements, muscle tension, and physiological indicators.

Question 34: What are the 'Rights' of medication administration that DHA nurses must follow?

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response (Correct answer)
Right dose and right time only
Right patient only
Right patient, right drug, right dose only

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response

DHA extends the traditional '5 Rights' to include right documentation (recording administration), right reason (understanding the indication), and right response (monitoring for expected and adverse effects).

Question 35: How should a DHA nurse assess and document fluid balance?

Only measure urine output
Documentation is only needed for ICU patients
Estimate fluid intake visually
Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses

DHA standards require accurate measurement and documentation of all fluid intake (oral, IV, enteral) and output (urine, drainage, vomiting, wound output) to maintain an accurate fluid balance record.

Question 36: According to the UAE Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), which vaccines are administered to all newborns within 24 hours of birth?

MMR and Varicella
Hepatitis A and Rotavirus
BCG and Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
Polio (OPV) and DTP

Correct answer: BCG and Hepatitis B

In the UAE and WHO-recommended schedules, BCG (tuberculosis) and Hepatitis B vaccines are both administered within 24 hours of birth.

Question 37: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

4 mL
1 mL
0.04 mL
0.4 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 38: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)
Only blood pressure and heart rate
Only oxygen saturation
Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 39: What is the DHA process for handling professional misconduct complaints against nurses?

Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation (Correct answer)
Only verbal warnings are given
Nurses cannot face disciplinary action
Complaints are ignored

Correct answer: Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation

DHA handles professional misconduct through formal investigation, providing the nurse opportunity to respond, conducting disciplinary hearings when warranted, with potential sanctions from warnings to license suspension or revocation.

Question 40: In a patient with suspected anaphylaxis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment?

Nebulised salbutamol
IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone)
Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg (Correct answer)
IV antihistamine (diphenhydramine)

Correct answer: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and preventing fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Question 41: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Prehypertension
Hypertension
Hypotension (Correct answer)
Normal

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 42: In the UAE, which government authority is responsible for national public health policy and health sector regulation?

Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH)
Emirates Health Services (EHS)
Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP)

MOHAP is the federal government authority responsible for overall national health policy, regulation, and public health initiatives across the UAE.

Question 43: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

25–35 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
40–50 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 44: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hyponatraemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Hypoglycaemia

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 45: During the third stage of labor, the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood and lengthening of the umbilical cord. What does this indicate?

Uterine inversion is imminent
Cord prolapse has occurred
Postpartum hemorrhage has occurred
Placental separation is complete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placental separation is complete

A sudden gush of blood and cord lengthening are the two classic signs that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready to be delivered.

Question 46: According to WHO classification, what birth weight defines a newborn as having low birth weight (LBW)?

Less than 3.0 kg
Less than 2.5 kg (Correct answer)
Less than 2.0 kg
Less than 3.5 kg

Correct answer: Less than 2.5 kg

The WHO defines low birth weight as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams (2.5 kg), regardless of gestational age.

Question 47: A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should be suspected first?

Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened miscarriage
Abruptio placentae
Placenta previa (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester due to the low-lying placenta separating from the uterine wall.

Question 48: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)
Intermediate-acting insulin
Rapid-acting insulin
Short-acting regular insulin

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 49: A 3-year-old child experiences a febrile seizure. What is the nurse's priority intervention during the seizure?

Administer rectal diazepam at seizure onset
Restrain the child's limbs to prevent injury
Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency (Correct answer)
Insert an oral airway device immediately

Correct answer: Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency

Positioning the child on the side (recovery position) during a seizure prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency; restraint and oral insertion are contraindicated.

Question 50: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

Isolation is not required for MDRO
No special precautions beyond standard
Only antibiotics are needed
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 51: What is the DHA nursing responsibility for organ donation management?

Nurses have no role in organ donation
Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family (Correct answer)
Only physicians manage organ donation
Organ donation does not occur in UAE

Correct answer: Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family

DHA nurses play key roles in organ donation: identifying potential donors through clinical triggers, notifying coordinators, maintaining donor physiological stability (hemodynamics, oxygenation, temperature), and providing family support.

Question 52: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Only physicians interpret blood gases
Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Not a nursing competency
Only monitor oxygen levels

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 53: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Administer oxygen immediately
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)
Insert an IV line
Obtain a 12-lead ECG

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 54: During the assessment of a laboring patient, the nurse observes the fetal head visible at the vaginal opening without retraction between contractions. This is known as:

Station +2
Engagement
Crowning (Correct answer)
Effacement

Correct answer: Crowning

Crowning occurs when the widest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not retract between contractions, indicating imminent delivery.

Question 55: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)
Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 56: Which complication is most commonly associated with prolonged bed rest in post-surgical patients?

Hyperglycaemia
Hypertension
Hyperkalaemia
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Venous stasis from immobility during prolonged bed rest is the primary risk factor for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical patients.

Question 57: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

1 minute
20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)
10 seconds
5 seconds

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 58: Which ethical principle requires a nurse to act in the best interest of the patient?

Autonomy
Beneficence (Correct answer)
Non-maleficence
Justice

Correct answer: Beneficence

Beneficence is the ethical principle requiring healthcare professionals to take positive action to promote the well-being and best interests of their patients.

Question 59: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale used in DHA healthcare facilities?

To calculate medication doses
To evaluate fall risk
To measure pain levels
To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries

The Braden Scale assesses six risk factors (sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear) to predict pressure injury risk, guiding preventive interventions in DHA facilities.

Question 60: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

Only reporting outbreaks
No surveillance is required
Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
Only completing annual surveys

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 61: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Only on admission
Once per nursing shift
Once daily
Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 62: What is the DHA nursing protocol for assessing a patient's fall risk?

Only assess patients over 65 years old
Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals (Correct answer)
Only assess surgical patients
Fall risk assessment is optional

Correct answer: Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals

DHA requires fall risk assessment using validated tools (such as the Morse Fall Scale) on admission, after any fall event, whenever the patient's condition changes, and at regular intervals throughout hospitalization.

Question 63: Which ventilator alarm should prompt the nurse to assess the patient first for a disconnection or leak?

High FiO2 alarm
High respiratory rate alarm
High pressure alarm
Low pressure / low minute volume alarm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low pressure / low minute volume alarm

A low pressure or low minute volume alarm in a ventilated patient indicates loss of circuit integrity such as a disconnection, leak, or dislodged endotracheal tube.

Question 64: What are the DHA requirements for nursing documentation?

Only document medications given
All nursing assessments, interventions, and outcomes must be documented accurately, timely, legibly, and in compliance with DHA standards (Correct answer)
Documentation is optional
Verbal reports replace written documentation

Correct answer: All nursing assessments, interventions, and outcomes must be documented accurately, timely, legibly, and in compliance with DHA standards

DHA requires comprehensive nursing documentation that is accurate, timely (real-time or within policy timeframes), legible, complete, and follows standardized formats including assessment findings, interventions, and patient responses.

Question 65: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)
Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Personal opinions about the patient should be included
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 66: What does 'informed consent' require before a nursing procedure?

The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion (Correct answer)
Written consent is only needed for surgery
Consent given under sedation is valid
A relative's signature is sufficient

Correct answer: The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion

Valid informed consent requires disclosure of relevant information in understandable language, patient comprehension, and voluntary decision-making free from pressure.

Question 67: What is the normal range for adult blood pressure according to DHA clinical guidelines?

100/60 to 110/70 mmHg
160/100 to 180/110 mmHg
140/90 to 160/100 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Less than 120/80 mmHg

DHA guidelines align with international standards defining normal blood pressure as less than 120/80 mmHg. Readings above this require monitoring and potential intervention.

Question 68: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Wearing sterile gloves correctly
Keeping sterile items at waist level
Opening a sterile package away from the body
Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 69: Which credential evaluation is required to verify foreign nursing qualifications for DHA?

NARIC evaluation
World Education Services (WES)
NACES evaluation
DataFlow Group Primary Source Verification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DataFlow Group Primary Source Verification

DHA mandates Primary Source Verification through DataFlow Group to authenticate educational and professional credentials of internationally trained applicants.

Question 70: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Excess sodium intake
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)
Vitamin C deficiency only
Iron deficiency anaemia

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 71: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Vaccination is optional for all staff
Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
No vaccinations are required
Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 72: What is the DHA licensing process for nurses wishing to practice in Dubai?

Only pass an English language test
No license is required
Only submit a resume
Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license

DHA nursing licensure requires primary source verification through DataFlow, successful completion of the DHA professional licensing examination, obtaining an eligibility letter, and formal license application.

Question 73: What is the DHA protocol for managing a sentinel event?

Sentinel events do not require special attention
Only complete an incident report
Document and continue routine care
Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions

DHA sentinel event management requires immediate patient care, administration notification, preservation of evidence, comprehensive root cause analysis, development of corrective action plans, and ongoing monitoring of improvements.

Question 74: A patient refuses a recommended blood transfusion for religious reasons while fully conscious and informed. What is the nurse's ethical obligation?

Override the decision because life-saving treatment takes priority
Proceed with the transfusion to save the patient's life
Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences (Correct answer)
Discharge the patient immediately without further care

Correct answer: Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences

Autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle; a competent, informed patient has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse must document the refusal and continue providing alternative supportive care.

Question 75: Which assessment finding in a post-thyroidectomy patient requires immediate nursing action?

Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign (Correct answer)
Mild throat soreness
Slight hoarseness on day one
Low-grade fever of 37.5°C

Correct answer: Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign

Tetany and positive Trousseau's sign indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 76: What is the DHA nursing role in managing patients receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

Only check the machine once per shift
CRRT is managed only by physicians
CRRT does not require nursing monitoring
Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity

DHA ICU nurses managing CRRT must monitor circuit pressures and patency, anticoagulation therapy, strict hourly fluid balance calculations, electrolyte monitoring, and vascular access site assessment.

Question 77: During a mass casualty incident in the UAE, which triage colour designates patients who are deceased or have unsurvivable injuries?

Red
Black (Correct answer)
Yellow
Green

Correct answer: Black

In the START triage system, black tags are assigned to patients who are deceased or have injuries incompatible with survival, indicating they will not receive active treatment.

Question 78: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

SOFA score
APACHE II
National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 79: What quality indicators does DHA track for nursing practice?

No quality indicators are tracked for nursing
Only patient satisfaction scores
Only staffing ratios
Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction

DHA tracks nursing-sensitive quality indicators including falls with injury rate, hospital-acquired pressure injury incidence, central line-associated bloodstream infection rates, medication error rates, and patient satisfaction.

Question 80: What is the DHA protocol for preventing patient falls?

Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting (Correct answer)
Only restrain high-risk patients
Only provide non-slip socks
Falls prevention is not a nursing responsibility

Correct answer: Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting

DHA fall prevention includes risk assessment using validated tools, individualized care plans (bed alarms, non-slip footwear, clear pathways, toileting schedules), environmental safety checks, and mandatory fall reporting.

Question 81: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
T-wave inversion in one lead
Widened QRS complex only
Prolonged PR interval

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 82: How long is a DHA nursing license typically valid before renewal is required?

1 year
5 years
3 years
2 years (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 years

DHA healthcare professional licenses are generally valid for two years, after which the practitioner must apply for renewal and fulfil CME requirements.

Question 83: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

Dextrose 10% in Water
0.45% Hypotonic Saline
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
3% Hypertonic Saline

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 84: What is the DHA requirement for surgical safety checklist compliance?

Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures (Correct answer)
Optional for minor procedures
Only the surgeon needs to participate
Only required for cardiac surgery

Correct answer: Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures

DHA mandates the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist for all surgical procedures, including sign-in (before anesthesia), time-out (before incision), and sign-out (before patient leaves OR), involving the entire surgical team.

Question 85: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Last bowel movement
Pain scale rating
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Urine output only

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 86: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Only administer antibiotics as ordered
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship
Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)
Only physicians participate in stewardship

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 87: In community nursing, what is the purpose of an epidemiological approach?

To treat individual patients at home
To manage hospital bed capacity
To prescribe medications for chronic illness
To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions

Epidemiology examines how diseases are distributed across populations and identifies risk factors, enabling targeted public health strategies to reduce disease burden.

Question 88: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Pupil size, pain response, breathing
Pulse, pressure, pupils
Orientation, memory, reflexes
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 89: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions only
Standard precautions only
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 90: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Only use ice packs
Only cool the patient to room temperature
Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)
Temperature management is not performed in Dubai

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 91: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry in post-operative patients?

To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis (Correct answer)
To administer inhaled medications
To monitor carbon dioxide levels
To measure peak expiratory flow

Correct answer: To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis

Incentive spirometry promotes sustained maximal inspiration, expanding alveoli and preventing atelectasis—a common post-operative pulmonary complication.

Question 92: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)
Subcutaneous (SC)
Intramuscular (IM)
Oral (PO)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 93: How should a DHA-licensed nurse document a wound assessment?

Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor (Correct answer)
Note only the wound size
Write 'wound present' in the chart
Only photograph the wound

Correct answer: Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor

DHA documentation standards require comprehensive wound assessment including exact location, measurements (length x width x depth), wound bed color, exudate characteristics, periwound skin condition, and any odor.

Question 94: What is the DHA requirement for patient allergy assessment before medication administration?

Allergy assessment is optional
Only check for drug allergies
Ask only during the first medication dose
Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration

DHA requires comprehensive allergy assessment on admission covering drug, food, and environmental allergies, documentation in the record, allergy wristband application, and verification before each medication.

Question 95: What is the DHA protocol for monitoring patients receiving blood transfusions?

Check vital signs only before starting
No monitoring is required for blood transfusions
Only monitor the drip rate
Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions

DHA blood transfusion monitoring requires vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes after starting, then at 30-minute to hourly intervals during the transfusion, and after completion, with continuous observation for reactions.

Question 96: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription
Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds
Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 97: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Mix with regular laundry
Store in the patient room until end of shift
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 98: Which category of DHA nursing license is issued to a nurse who has met all requirements and has no practice restrictions?

Temporary License
Provisional License
Full License (Correct answer)
Trainee License

Correct answer: Full License

A Full License is awarded to nurses who have satisfied all DHA educational, experiential, examination, and verification requirements without restrictions.

Question 99: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Air conditioning use
Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)
High sugar consumption only
Excessive screen time

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 100: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility
Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Only monitor temperature
Only administer antibiotics

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 101: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

No action is needed if wearing gloves
Apply antiseptic and continue working
Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
Report at end of shift

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 102: What does a DHA nurse need to verify before administering an intravenous medication?

Only the expiry date
Only the medication name
Only that the patient has IV access
Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency

Before IV medication administration, DHA nurses must verify drug compatibility with concurrent infusions, correct dilution and concentration, appropriate infusion rate, IV line patency, and site assessment.

Question 103: What is the DHA protocol for delirium assessment and management in ICU?

Delirium is not assessed in ICU
Only physical restraints are used
Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles (Correct answer)
Delirium resolves without intervention

Correct answer: Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles

DHA requires regular delirium screening using validated tools like CAM-ICU, implementation of the ABCDEF bundle (assessment, breathing trials, coordination, delirium monitoring, early mobility, family engagement), and non-pharmacological prevention.

Question 104: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Discharge planning steps
Patient admission checklist
Surgical time-out protocol
Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 105: A postpartum patient on day 5 reports a painful, warm, erythematous area on one breast accompanied by fever of 38.9°C and flu-like symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Breast engorgement
Breast abscess
Galactocele
Mastitis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mastitis

Mastitis is a breast infection typically occurring 2–5 weeks postpartum, presenting with localized pain, warmth, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms.

Question 106: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a norepinephrine infusion for septic shock. What is the primary goal of this vasopressor therapy?

Decrease heart rate to 60 bpm
Raise diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
Reduce fluid requirements to zero
Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, titrated to maintain a MAP ≥65 mmHg to sustain adequate perfusion pressure to vital organs.

Question 107: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Atropine
Flumazenil
Protamine sulphate

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 108: What is the DHA regulation on nurse-initiated medications (standing orders)?

Nurses can administer any medication without orders
Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification (Correct answer)
Only senior nurses can use standing orders
Standing orders are not permitted in DHA facilities

Correct answer: Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification

DHA allows nurses to administer certain medications under pre-approved standing orders or clinical protocols for specific clinical situations, with proper documentation and timely physician notification.

Question 109: What is the primary nursing concern when a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) has a rising blood pressure and falling heart rate?

Hypovolaemic shock
Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention (Correct answer)
Medication side effect from beta-blockers
Normal physiological stress response

Correct answer: Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention

Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) is a late, ominous sign of severely elevated ICP threatening brainstem herniation.

Question 110: Which class of medications requires the nurse to monitor for signs of angioedema as a rare but serious side effect?

ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril) (Correct answer)
Beta-blockers
Statins
Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril)

ACE inhibitors can cause bradykinin accumulation, which in rare cases leads to angioedema—potentially life-threatening swelling of the face, lips, and airway.

Question 111: What is the DHA standard for pressure injury prevention?

Only use special mattresses
Prevention is only for ICU patients
Only apply barrier cream
Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection

DHA pressure injury prevention includes Braden Scale risk assessment, 2-hourly repositioning schedules, nutritional optimization, regular skin integrity checks, moisture management, and appropriate support surface selection.

Question 112: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions only
Standard precautions alone
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)
Contact precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 113: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Transferring patients between departments
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Documenting patient allergies
Discharging stable patients

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 114: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Delayed primary closure
Secondary intention
Tertiary intention
Primary intention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 115: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Vomiting without nausea
Bradycardia alone
Hypertension alone
Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 116: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Ask only the patient's room number
Check the medication label alone
Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 117: What continuing education does DHA require for nurses regarding medication safety?

Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training (Correct answer)
No continuing education is required
Education only after a medication error occurs
Only orientation training

Correct answer: Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training

DHA requires ongoing medication safety education including annual competency assessments, updates on formulary changes and new medications, high-alert medication training, and participation in safety improvement initiatives.

Question 118: What is the DHA regulation on patient confidentiality and data protection?

Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel (Correct answer)
Confidentiality applies only to VIP patients
Patient information can be shared freely
Only electronic records are protected

Correct answer: Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel

DHA enforces strict patient confidentiality under UAE federal health laws, limiting access to patient information to authorized personnel on a need-to-know basis, with penalties for unauthorized disclosure.

Question 119: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Hypotension and tachycardia
Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Concentrated urine and thirst
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 120: What is the DHA protocol for managing a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Only monitor oxygen saturation
Set ventilator and check once daily
Mechanical ventilation does not require nursing assessment
Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance

DHA ICU nursing requires continuous ventilator monitoring (tidal volumes, pressures, FiO2), regular ABG analysis, oral care with chlorhexidine every 4 hours, head-of-bed elevation, and full VAP prevention bundle compliance.

Question 121: A 3-day-old term newborn develops mild yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. The nurse suspects which type of jaundice?

Pathological jaundice
ABO incompatibility hemolytic jaundice
Breast milk jaundice
Physiological jaundice (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Physiological jaundice

Physiological jaundice typically appears on days 2–3 in term newborns due to hepatic immaturity and breakdown of fetal hemoglobin, and is self-limiting.

Question 122: What is the DHA requirement for medication administration using barcode scanning?

Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration (Correct answer)
Barcode scanning replaces all other checks
Barcode scanning is optional
Only scan the medication package

Correct answer: Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration

DHA requires barcode medication administration (BCMA) scanning of both the patient wristband and medication at the point of care to electronically verify patient identity and medication accuracy.

Question 123: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)
To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To educate the patient about diet
To generate a billing statement

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 124: A nurse working in a UAE public health clinic is asked by an employer to falsify a patient's health record. What is the correct response?

Alter only minor details to satisfy the employer
Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels (Correct answer)
Seek advice from colleagues before acting
Comply if a manager instructs it

Correct answer: Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels

Falsifying health records is illegal and unethical; the nurse must refuse and report the request to the DHA or relevant professional body to protect patient safety and professional integrity.

Question 125: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)
IELTS 7.5 overall
No English test required
TOEFL 80

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 126: What is the DHA protocol for high-alert medication administration?

High-alert medications do not require special handling
Only require verbal confirmation
Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling (Correct answer)
Treat the same as regular medications

Correct answer: Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling

DHA classifies certain medications as high-alert (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes) requiring independent double-checks, standardized concentrations, and distinctive labeling to prevent errors.

Question 127: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Signs, Background, Advice, Report
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)
Status, Background, Action, Review
Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 128: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

Prone
Trendelenburg
Supine
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 129: What is the DHA guideline for look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medication management?

No special precautions are needed
Only store alphabetically
LASA medications do not exist in Dubai
Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion

DHA requires special handling of LASA medications including physical separation in storage, tall-man lettering (e.g., DOPamine vs DOBUTamine), alert stickers, and inclusion of both names on prescriptions.

Question 130: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable
It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)
Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 131: A nurse observes variable decelerations on continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. What is the priority nursing action?

Reposition the mother (Correct answer)
Increase IV fluid rate
Notify the physician immediately
Administer oxygen via face mask

Correct answer: Reposition the mother

Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression; repositioning the mother (e.g., left lateral or knee-chest position) is the first action to relieve compression.

Question 132: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

90 degrees
45 degrees
30–45 degrees
5–15 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 133: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Order a chest X-ray first
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)
Administer IV morphine
Document the finding and wait for rounds

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 134: What must a DHA nurse assess before administering an enteral feeding?

Only the feeding temperature
Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency (Correct answer)
Only the patient's appetite
Only the feeding rate

Correct answer: Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency

Before enteral feeding, DHA nurses must verify tube placement (aspiration of gastric contents, pH testing), check residual volume, position the patient upright at 30-45 degrees to prevent aspiration, and confirm tube patency.

Question 135: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Cleaning is done by the patient's family
Only clean after patient discharge
Clean the same as regular rooms
Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 136: What is the maximum single recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) administered IV during adult cardiac arrest?

10 mg IV once only
1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (Correct answer)
0.1 mg IV every minute
5 mg IV bolus every 2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

Current ACLS guidelines recommend 1 mg of IV epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

Question 137: Which DHA category covers nurses with advanced specialisation such as nurse practitioners or clinical nurse specialists?

Healthcare Assistant
Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) (Correct answer)
Nursing Aide
Registered Nurse (General)

Correct answer: Advanced Practice Nurse (APN)

DHA's Advanced Practice Nurse category recognises nurses with postgraduate qualifications and expanded clinical roles beyond those of a general registered nurse.

Question 138: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy term newborn?

100–160 bpm (Correct answer)
60–100 bpm
140–200 bpm
80–120 bpm

Correct answer: 100–160 bpm

A normal resting heart rate for a term newborn is 100–160 bpm; rates below 100 bpm (bradycardia) or above 160 bpm at rest may require evaluation.

Question 139: Which nursing intervention is the priority for a patient in hypovolaemic shock?

Restricting all oral fluids
Administering antihypertensives
Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume (Correct answer)
Elevating the head of the bed to 90°

Correct answer: Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume

Hypovolaemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume; rapid IV fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone treatment to restore perfusion pressure.

Question 140: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Uterine rupture
Premature rupture of membranes
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)
Placenta previa

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 141: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches
6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)
Infant feeds only when visibly distressed
2–3 wet diapers per day

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 142: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Wait for the physician to notice
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)
Document the deterioration and continue monitoring
Only call the charge nurse

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

Question 143: Which laboratory value is the primary indicator of kidney function monitored in medical-surgical patients?

Serum creatinine (Correct answer)
White blood cell count
Haemoglobin
Serum albumin

Correct answer: Serum creatinine

Serum creatinine is the most reliable routine indicator of glomerular filtration rate and overall kidney function in clinical settings.

Question 144: In a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse verify correct tube placement before feeding?

Test with litmus paper placed in the mouth
Rely on patient comfort as indicator
Listen for air insufflation sounds only
Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray

Aspirating gastric contents and checking pH ≤5.5 or confirming with X-ray are evidence-based methods to verify NG tube placement and prevent aspiration.

Question 145: Which medication is routinely administered to newborns immediately after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

Vitamin D injection
Vitamin K injection (Correct answer)
Hepatitis B vaccine
Erythromycin eye ointment

Correct answer: Vitamin K injection

Vitamin K is administered intramuscularly at birth because newborns have low stores and lack gut bacteria to synthesize it, preventing potentially fatal bleeding.

Question 146: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

2 minutes
10–15 seconds
40–60 seconds (Correct answer)
5–10 seconds

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 147: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Administer vitamin K
Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours
Increase the heparin infusion rate
Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 148: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)
Acute asthma
Bronchiolitis
Epiglottitis

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 149: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

This indicates severe kidney damage
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day
This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)
Stop the medication immediately

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 150: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To record medication costs
To document billing information
To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To communicate with insurance companies

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 151: A nurse licensed outside Dubai who wants to practice in Dubai must obtain which type of DHA document before starting work?

DHA License (not a letter of no-objection alone) (Correct answer)
A Gulf Prometric certificate only
Ministry of Health national license
Temporary Practice Permit

Correct answer: DHA License (not a letter of no-objection alone)

Practicing nursing in Dubai requires a valid DHA license specific to Dubai; holding another emirate's license or a Gulf Prometric certificate alone is insufficient.

Question 152: What are the DHA International Patient Safety Goals that nurses must know?

There are no specific safety goals
Only medication safety and fall prevention
Only hand hygiene
Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention

DHA aligns with international patient safety goals covering: correct patient identification, effective communication, high-alert medication safety, correct site/procedure/patient surgery, HAI reduction, and fall prevention.

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

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