Certified Wireless Specialist (CWS-101) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which 802.11 power-save mechanism does Wi-Fi 6 introduce to improve efficiency for IoT and battery-powered devices?
- U-APSD (Unscheduled APSD)
- WMM Power Save
- TWT (Target Wake Time) (Correct answer)
- Legacy PSM (Power Save Mode)
Correct answer: TWT (Target Wake Time)
TWT (Target Wake Time), introduced in 802.11ax, allows an AP to schedule specific wake times for clients, dramatically reducing power consumption.
Question 2: How should Certified Wireless Specialist professionals handle disagreements with stakeholders?
- Avoid all confrontation
- Prioritize being right over being constructive
- Immediately escalate to management
- Address issues professionally through active listening and seeking collaborative resolution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Address issues professionally through active listening and seeking collaborative resolution
Professional conflict resolution in Certified Wireless Specialist practice involves active listening, understanding perspectives, and working toward mutually acceptable solutions.
Question 3: A logistics company needs to track Wi-Fi-enabled scanners across a 500,000 sq ft warehouse. Which technique allows real-time location tracking using the existing WLAN?
- Enabling 802.11ac wave 2 MU-MIMO
- Increasing beacon rate to 100ms
- Wi-Fi RSSI-based triangulation or time difference of arrival (TDoA) using multiple APs (Correct answer)
- SSID broadcast suppression
Correct answer: Wi-Fi RSSI-based triangulation or time difference of arrival (TDoA) using multiple APs
RSSI triangulation or TDoA compares signal strength or timing from multiple APs to estimate client location without additional hardware.
Question 4: Which FCC rule establishes the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits for RF radiation to which wireless equipment operators must comply?
- FCC Part 24 for personal communications services
- FCC Part 15 Subpart B
- ANSI C95.1 as adopted by OSHA only
- OET Bulletin 65 and FCC §1.1310 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: OET Bulletin 65 and FCC §1.1310
FCC §1.1310 establishes RF exposure limits (MPE), and OET Bulletin 65 provides the evaluation procedures for demonstrating compliance with those limits.
Question 5: What antenna characteristic defines the angular spread over which the antenna radiates at least half its maximum power (-3 dB points)?
- Half-power beamwidth (HPBW) (Correct answer)
- Polarization
- Front-to-back ratio
- Antenna efficiency
Correct answer: Half-power beamwidth (HPBW)
The half-power beamwidth (HPBW) is the angle between the two -3 dB points on the antenna's radiation pattern, defining the main beam coverage area.
Question 6: A company wants employees to access internal resources via Wi-Fi while preventing access to social media. Which solution enforces this without client software?
- Enable 802.11w on the SSID
- Configure role-based access control on the wireless controller with URL filtering policies (Correct answer)
- Increase firewall MTU size
- Use WPA3-SAE encryption only
Correct answer: Configure role-based access control on the wireless controller with URL filtering policies
Role-based access control on wireless controllers applies per-user or per-SSID policies including URL filtering without requiring agents on endpoints.
Question 7: What does RSSI stand for in wireless site surveys?
- Received Signal Strength Indicator (Correct answer)
- Radio Signal Strength Index
- Remote Site Survey Information
- Roaming Signal Standard Interface
Correct answer: Received Signal Strength Indicator
RSSI (Received Signal Strength Indicator) measures the power level of a received wireless signal, expressed in dBm.
Question 8: A wireless client is experiencing intermittent disconnections during peak hours. What is the most likely cause?
- Incorrect DNS server settings
- DHCP pool exhaustion on IPv6
- AP overload due to too many associated clients or high channel utilization (Correct answer)
- Incorrect subnet mask
Correct answer: AP overload due to too many associated clients or high channel utilization
During peak hours, high client density and channel utilization can cause APs to drop or reject clients, leading to disconnections.
Question 9: What is the purpose of a wireless access point?
- To increase internet speed
- To block devices
- To enable wireless connectivity (Correct answer)
- To manage email servers
Correct answer: To enable wireless connectivity
A wireless access point (WAP) is a networking hardware device that allows Wi-Fi compliant devices to connect to a wired network. It acts as a central hub for wireless devices, enabling them to communicate with each other and access the internet without physical cables.
Question 10: A specialist is planning a high-density wireless deployment for a stadium. Which design approach is most appropriate?
- Use low-power, directional APs deployed in an under-seat or overhead pattern to reduce cell size (Correct answer)
- Use high-power APs spaced far apart
- Deploy a single high-gain omnidirectional AP at center field
- Use only 2.4 GHz to maximize range
Correct answer: Use low-power, directional APs deployed in an under-seat or overhead pattern to reduce cell size
High-density deployments require small cells with low transmit power and directional antennas to serve many clients per unit area.
Question 11: A school district reports that student Chromebooks frequently roam poorly between classrooms. APs are 802.11ac with 5 GHz only. What is the first thing to verify?
- That each classroom has a unique SSID
- That 2.4 GHz is enabled on all APs
- That WPA3 is enabled
- That all APs share the same SSID, VLAN, and security configuration to form a unified ESS (Correct answer)
Correct answer: That all APs share the same SSID, VLAN, and security configuration to form a unified ESS
For seamless roaming, all APs must broadcast the same SSID with identical security settings on the same VLAN so clients can move between APs without re-authenticating.
Question 12: What does a cell overlap of approximately 15–20% between adjacent APs achieve in a WLAN design?
- Maximizes channel reuse
- Ensures seamless roaming with consistent coverage (Correct answer)
- Reduces the number of APs needed
- Prevents clients from associating
Correct answer: Ensures seamless roaming with consistent coverage
A 15–20% cell overlap ensures clients can roam between APs without dropping the connection or experiencing coverage gaps.
Question 13: Which document type created during site survey planning defines the maximum number of clients per AP?
- IP address management (IPAM) spreadsheet
- Capacity planning worksheet (Correct answer)
- Firewall ruleset
- Network topology diagram
Correct answer: Capacity planning worksheet
A capacity planning worksheet calculates client density, application requirements, and expected throughput to determine AP count and placement.
Question 14: What does the 'noise floor' reading in a Wi-Fi analyzer indicate?
- The maximum transmit power of nearby APs
- The number of client devices currently associated to an AP
- The channel utilization percentage at a given location
- The ambient RF energy level in the absence of a desired signal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The ambient RF energy level in the absence of a desired signal
The noise floor represents background RF energy from thermal noise and interference; a lower noise floor enables better SNR for wireless communications.
Question 15: What does a high 'retry rate' in an AP's statistics indicate?
- Poor RF conditions or interference causing frame retransmissions (Correct answer)
- Successful load balancing across APs
- Too many client associations
- RADIUS server latency
Correct answer: Poor RF conditions or interference causing frame retransmissions
A high retry rate means the AP or client is frequently retransmitting frames, which typically points to RF issues such as low SNR or interference.
Question 16: When conducting an outdoor wireless site survey, which environmental factor is most likely to cause signal multipath?
- Wind speed
- High humidity
- Reflections off buildings, vehicles, and the ground (Correct answer)
- UV radiation
Correct answer: Reflections off buildings, vehicles, and the ground
Reflections from hard surfaces cause multipath propagation, where multiple signal copies arrive at the receiver at slightly different times.
Question 17: Which device assigns IP addresses in a wireless network?
- Firewall
- Web Server
- DNS Server
- DHCP Server (Correct answer)
Correct answer: DHCP Server
A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices connected to a network. This simplifies network management by eliminating the need to manually configure each device's IP address, ensuring efficient network operation.
Question 18: A technician performing a post-deployment validation survey finds that measured signal levels are weaker than the predictive model showed. What is the MOST likely cause?
- The APs are transmitting on the wrong SSID
- Actual building materials have higher attenuation than modeled in the simulation (Correct answer)
- The spectrum analyzer was not calibrated before use
- Client devices have lower receive sensitivity than expected
Correct answer: Actual building materials have higher attenuation than modeled in the simulation
Predictive models use estimated attenuation values for walls and materials; actual construction with concrete, metal, or insulation often attenuates more than default assumptions.
Question 19: Which regulation requires that wireless devices sold in the US include the statement that the device may not cause harmful interference and must accept any interference received?
- FCC Part 68 registration statement
- HIPAA wireless security clause
- NEBS Level 3 certification requirement
- FCC Part 15 compliance statement (Correct answer)
Correct answer: FCC Part 15 compliance statement
FCC Part 15 requires that unlicensed devices include a compliance statement acknowledging both non-interference and interference-acceptance obligations.
Question 20: What is the effect of increasing antenna height on a point-to-point outdoor wireless link?
- Narrows antenna beamwidth
- Reduces ground reflection and improves LOS clearance (Correct answer)
- Decreases link budget
- Increases Fresnel zone obstruction
Correct answer: Reduces ground reflection and improves LOS clearance
Raising antenna height reduces ground-level obstructions, clears Fresnel zones, and minimizes ground reflection interference on point-to-point links.
Question 21: During a quality review, a wireless controller log shows frequent client de-authentications on a specific AP. The FIRST variable to investigate is:
- WAN link bandwidth
- RADIUS server certificate expiration
- RF environment changes or excessive interference near that AP (Correct answer)
- Number of VLANs configured
Correct answer: RF environment changes or excessive interference near that AP
Frequent de-authentications isolated to one AP typically indicate RF degradation, interference, or physical connectivity issues specific to that unit.
Question 22: A user's laptop shows full Wi-Fi bars but a ping test shows 40% packet loss. A spectrum scan reveals a clean RF environment. What should the technician investigate next?
- The AP's current client association count and whether it has reached its client limit (Correct answer)
- The DNS TTL value
- Antenna polarization mismatch
- The AP's LED status color
Correct answer: The AP's current client association count and whether it has reached its client limit
When RF looks clean but performance is poor, an overloaded AP at or near its maximum associated client count can cause queuing delays and packet drops.
Question 23: A network admin notices clients frequently deauthenticating from the WLAN. Which tool would BEST help identify whether a deauthentication attack is occurring?
- Cable tester
- Ping sweep
- SNMP MIB browser
- Wireless protocol analyzer (packet capture) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Wireless protocol analyzer (packet capture)
A wireless protocol analyzer can capture 802.11 management frames and reveal illegitimate deauthentication frames from a rogue source.
Question 24: A hotel client wants guests to have easy Wi-Fi access without a password. What security concern must you communicate?
- Guest Wi-Fi never poses a security risk
- Passwords are optional on 5 GHz networks
- Open networks expose guest traffic to eavesdropping; a captive portal with client isolation is a safer alternative (Correct answer)
- Open networks are as secure as WPA3
Correct answer: Open networks expose guest traffic to eavesdropping; a captive portal with client isolation is a safer alternative
Open SSIDs transmit data unencrypted; client isolation and a captive portal provide usability while reducing exposure.
Question 25: What role does documentation play in Certified Wireless Specialist client communications?
- It should replace all verbal communication
- It only matters for legal disputes
- It creates clear records of discussions, decisions, and agreements (Correct answer)
- It is an unnecessary administrative burden
Correct answer: It creates clear records of discussions, decisions, and agreements
Documentation in client communications creates permanent records that ensure clarity, prevent misunderstandings, and provide references for future interactions.
Question 26: What is the purpose of an active site survey compared to a passive one?
- It physically inspects cable runs
- It only records existing signals without transmitting
- It transmits test traffic to measure throughput, latency, and packet loss (Correct answer)
- It audits firewall rules
Correct answer: It transmits test traffic to measure throughput, latency, and packet loss
An active site survey transmits actual data packets to test real-world throughput, latency, and packet loss under load.
Question 27: A CWS discovers clients on channel 6 are experiencing interference from a neighboring business also on channel 6. The only available non-overlapping 2.4 GHz channels are 1 and 11. What is the correct action?
- Increase Tx power on channel 6 to overpower the neighbor
- Enable channel bonding on channel 6
- Move affected APs to channel 1 or 11 to eliminate co-channel interference (Correct answer)
- Switch to WPA3 to reduce interference
Correct answer: Move affected APs to channel 1 or 11 to eliminate co-channel interference
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three non-overlapping channels in 2.4 GHz; moving to channel 1 or 11 eliminates co-channel interference from the neighbor on channel 6.
Question 28: How should an CWS professional handle unexpected results that differ from predictions?
- Blame external factors for the variance
- Repeat the exact same approach again
- Ignore the discrepancy if small
- Analyze factors, document findings, and adjust the approach based on what was learned (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Analyze factors, document findings, and adjust the approach based on what was learned
Unexpected results are learning opportunities. Professional practice requires analysis of contributing factors and adaptation based on those findings.
Question 29: Which protocol is used to secure wireless networks?
- ICMP
- HTTP
- POP3
- WPA2 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: WPA2
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access II) is a robust security protocol widely used to secure wireless networks. It employs strong encryption algorithms, such as AES, and authentication methods to protect data transmitted over Wi-Fi from unauthorized access and eavesdropping. While WPA3 is newer, WPA2 remains a common and effective standard for securing most wireless networks.
Question 30: Which CSMA mechanism do 802.11 stations use to avoid collisions before transmitting?
- CSMA/CA (Correct answer)
- Token passing
- CSMA/CD
- Polling
Correct answer: CSMA/CA
802.11 uses CSMA/CA (Collision Avoidance), where stations sense the medium and use random backoff timers to minimize the chance of simultaneous transmissions.
Question 31: What is the purpose of a wireless LAN probe (or passive site survey tool) used during a post-deployment validation?
- To configure SSID security settings remotely
- To inject traffic and stress-test the AP hardware
- To update AP firmware over the air
- To passively listen to 802.11 frames and measure RSSI, SNR, and channel utilization at various locations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To passively listen to 802.11 frames and measure RSSI, SNR, and channel utilization at various locations
A passive survey tool (e.g., a laptop with site survey software) moves through the coverage area collecting RSSI, SNR, and protocol metrics to validate that coverage meets design requirements.
Question 32: A prospective client asks how your wireless deployment process differs from a competitor who offers a faster, cheaper installation. How should you respond?
- Explain your value proposition: site survey, RF design, testing, and documentation that ensure long-term performance (Correct answer)
- Criticize the competitor's approach without evidence
- Agree the competitor is probably better and withdraw your proposal
- Match the competitor's price without justification
Correct answer: Explain your value proposition: site survey, RF design, testing, and documentation that ensure long-term performance
Articulating the business value of a structured methodology—site surveys, design, validation—justifies premium positioning and sets realistic quality expectations.
Question 33: What is the purpose of defining a Minimum Viable Signal (MVS) threshold during network planning?
- To establish the lowest acceptable signal level at which devices should operate (Correct answer)
- To configure QoS traffic classes
- To set the password complexity requirement
- To determine the maximum number of SSIDs
Correct answer: To establish the lowest acceptable signal level at which devices should operate
The MVS threshold sets the baseline signal level below which device performance is unacceptable, guiding AP placement decisions.
Question 34: What distinguishes risk mitigation from risk avoidance in Certified Wireless Specialist practice?
- Mitigation reduces impact or likelihood while avoidance eliminates the activity entirely (Correct answer)
- They are identical concepts
- Avoidance is never appropriate
- Mitigation is always preferred
Correct answer: Mitigation reduces impact or likelihood while avoidance eliminates the activity entirely
Risk mitigation allows the activity to continue with reduced risk, while avoidance eliminates the risk by not engaging in the activity at all.
Question 35: What does a wireless site survey heat map primarily display?
- Number of clients associated to each AP over time
- Channel utilization measured in percentage
- CPU utilization of access points across the floor plan
- Signal strength or coverage levels overlaid on a physical map (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Signal strength or coverage levels overlaid on a physical map
A heat map visually represents RF signal strength (typically RSSI) or coverage quality overlaid on a floor plan to identify coverage gaps.
Question 36: During a risk assessment, an analyst discovers that the wireless network uses 802.11n with TKIP encryption. What is the specific risk and recommended mitigation?
- 802.11n does not support any form of encryption
- TKIP should be combined with WEP for additional security layers
- TKIP limits bandwidth and should be replaced with AES/CCMP for both security and performance (Correct answer)
- TKIP is too strong and prevents legacy device compatibility
Correct answer: TKIP limits bandwidth and should be replaced with AES/CCMP for both security and performance
TKIP was designed as a temporary fix for WEP vulnerabilities and has known weaknesses; replacing it with AES/CCMP (used in WPA2) improves both security strength and network performance.
Question 37: How should an CWS professional present complex findings to non-experts?
- Provide detailed written reports without explanation
- Skip complex topics to avoid confusion
- Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and verify understanding (Correct answer)
- Use full technical terminology only
Correct answer: Translate into accessible language, use visuals, and verify understanding
Complex information should be translated into accessible language with visual aids, followed by checking for understanding to ensure effective communication.
Question 38: What is a MAC address used for?
- To assign usernames
- To identify devices on a network (Correct answer)
- To locate GPS position
- To measure signal strength
Correct answer: To identify devices on a network
A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications within a network segment. It serves as a hardware address that uniquely identifies each device on a network, allowing data to be directed to the correct recipient at the data link layer.
Question 39: During a post-deployment validation walk, you notice a -80 dBm signal at a location where -65 dBm was specified. What should you check first?
- Whether the AP is powered on, correctly mounted, and transmitting at the planned power level (Correct answer)
- DNS server response time
- Client's operating system version
- The WPA2 key complexity
Correct answer: Whether the AP is powered on, correctly mounted, and transmitting at the planned power level
Before investigating complex causes, verify the AP is operational, properly oriented, and transmitting at the specified Tx power matching the design.
Question 40: In Wi-Fi 6E, which new spectrum is opened for WLAN use compared to Wi-Fi 6?
- 60 GHz band
- 3.6 GHz band
- 900 MHz band
- 6 GHz band (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 6 GHz band
Wi-Fi 6E extends 802.11ax operation into the 6 GHz band, providing up to 1,200 MHz of additional spectrum in the US.
Question 41: Which is a common wireless security risk?
- Using VPN
- Setting complex passwords
- Using WPA3
- Open network with no encryption (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Open network with no encryption
An open wireless network with no encryption is a significant security risk because all data transmitted over it is completely unprotected. Anyone within range can easily intercept and read sensitive information, such as passwords, personal data, or financial details. This lack of security makes the network highly vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access.
Question 42: What does RF stand for in wireless communication?
- Range Factor
- Radio Frequency (Correct answer)
- Radio Function
- Rapid Fire
Correct answer: Radio Frequency
In wireless communication, RF is the widely recognized abbreviation for Radio Frequency. These are electromagnetic waves that transmit data through the air, forming the fundamental basis for various wireless technologies like Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and cellular networks. Understanding this core term is essential for anyone involved with wireless systems and their operation.
Question 43: What is the significance of the Fresnel zone in wireless network planning?
- It is the area covered by a single SSID
- It describes the encryption zone around an AP
- It is the elliptical area around the line of sight that should be kept clear for optimal signal propagation (Correct answer)
- It defines the IP address range for wireless clients
Correct answer: It is the elliptical area around the line of sight that should be kept clear for optimal signal propagation
Obstructions within the Fresnel zone cause signal diffraction and attenuation, so keeping at least 60% clear is critical for optimal links.
Question 44: How should an CWS professional respond to discovering a compliance violation?
- Wait for external auditors to identify it
- Report promptly, investigate root cause, and implement corrective actions (Correct answer)
- Blame the regulatory framework for being unclear
- Conceal it if the impact is minor
Correct answer: Report promptly, investigate root cause, and implement corrective actions
Professional responsibility requires prompt reporting, thorough investigation, and corrective action when compliance violations are discovered, regardless of severity.
Question 45: A university library has thick concrete walls between floors and reports poor inter-floor coverage. What antenna type on APs is best suited for this scenario?
- Rubber duck dipole antenna
- Patch or ceiling-mount AP with downtilt to serve the floor below through penetration planning (Correct answer)
- Yagi directional antenna
- High-gain omnidirectional antenna
Correct answer: Patch or ceiling-mount AP with downtilt to serve the floor below through penetration planning
Ceiling-mount APs with downward radiation patterns, properly placed and accounted for floor attenuation, provide the best per-floor coverage in multi-story concrete buildings.
Question 46: Which security vulnerability does the KRACK (Key Reinstallation Attack) exploit in WPA2?
- Nonce reuse caused by replaying handshake messages (Correct answer)
- Forged EAPOL-Start frames to disrupt authentication
- IV collision in TKIP encryption
- Weak passphrase brute-force during the 4-way handshake
Correct answer: Nonce reuse caused by replaying handshake messages
KRACK exploits the WPA2 4-way handshake by forcing nonce reuse through handshake message replay, allowing decryption of encrypted traffic.
Question 47: A Fresnel zone clearance calculation is most critical when designing which type of wireless link?
- Cellular handoff zone
- Bluetooth piconet
- Point-to-point outdoor bridge (Correct answer)
- Indoor mesh network
Correct answer: Point-to-point outdoor bridge
Fresnel zone clearance is essential for outdoor point-to-point bridges to ensure the signal path is unobstructed and minimize diffraction losses.
Question 48: A wireless controller alert shows an AP is operating in monitor mode instead of serving clients. What is the likely explanation?
- The AP has a hardware failure
- The AP has been designated as a wireless IDS/IPS sensor scanning for rogue devices and threats (Correct answer)
- The AP needs a firmware update
- The SSID configuration was deleted
Correct answer: The AP has been designated as a wireless IDS/IPS sensor scanning for rogue devices and threats
In managed WLAN deployments, some APs are placed in dedicated monitor mode to perform air monitoring, rogue AP detection, and intrusion prevention functions.
Question 49: What is the regulatory purpose of the FCC's 'quiet zones' such as the one surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory in Green Bank, West Virginia?
- To create a spectrum-free zone where no electronic devices may be used for public health reasons
- To restrict RF emissions in the area to protect sensitive radio telescope and government receiver operations from interference (Correct answer)
- To reserve spectrum exclusively for emergency communications in rural areas
- To limit commercial wireless deployment until universal broadband reaches rural areas
Correct answer: To restrict RF emissions in the area to protect sensitive radio telescope and government receiver operations from interference
Radio quiet zones restrict RF transmissions near sensitive government receivers, such as radio telescopes, to prevent interference with scientific and national security operations.
Question 50: What polarization orientation do most indoor WLAN access point antennas use by default?
- Horizontal polarization
- Cross polarization
- Circular polarization
- Vertical polarization (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Vertical polarization
Most indoor WLAN access point antennas use vertical polarization because the antennas are typically mounted upright and vertical polarization minimizes ground reflection losses.
Question 51: What is the effect of enabling band steering on a dual-band AP?
- It disables the 2.4 GHz radio entirely
- It bonds both bands into a single channel
- It increases transmit power on both bands
- It encourages capable clients to connect on the 5 GHz band to reduce 2.4 GHz congestion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It encourages capable clients to connect on the 5 GHz band to reduce 2.4 GHz congestion
Band steering steers dual-band-capable clients to the less congested 5 GHz band, improving overall network performance.
Question 52: What does SNR (Signal-to-Noise Ratio) measure in a wireless network?
- The ratio of AP transmit power to client receive power
- The number of clients per AP
- The difference in dB between the desired signal level and the noise floor (Correct answer)
- The percentage of bandwidth used by noise traffic
Correct answer: The difference in dB between the desired signal level and the noise floor
SNR is the difference in decibels between the received signal and the ambient noise floor; higher SNR means better signal quality.
Question 53: Under GDPR requirements applicable to European wireless network deployments, what obligation exists when collecting MAC address data from client devices for analytics?
- GDPR only applies to data collected via wired Ethernet, not wireless
- MAC addresses are considered personal data under GDPR, requiring a lawful basis for collection and user notification (Correct answer)
- MAC addresses are excluded from GDPR as they are technical identifiers, not personal data
- MAC address collection only requires GDPR compliance if the device is used by EU citizens outside the EU
Correct answer: MAC addresses are considered personal data under GDPR, requiring a lawful basis for collection and user notification
Under GDPR, MAC addresses can identify individuals and are therefore classified as personal data, requiring lawful basis, transparency, and compliance with data subject rights.
Question 54: Which 802.11 amendment introduced neighbor report and BSS load information to assist clients in making better roaming decisions?
- 802.11k (Correct answer)
- 802.11ac
- 802.11r
- 802.11i
Correct answer: 802.11k
802.11k provides clients with neighbor AP reports and load information so they can make informed roaming decisions before disconnecting.
Question 55: In a QC process, a 'control chart' is used to:
- Assign tasks to team members
- Document customer complaints
- Monitor a process variable over time to detect trends or out-of-control conditions (Correct answer)
- Track project expenses against budget
Correct answer: Monitor a process variable over time to detect trends or out-of-control conditions
Control charts display data points over time with upper and lower control limits to identify when a process is drifting or unstable.
Question 56: A technician suspects a microwave oven is causing interference. In which frequency band and approximate channel range would this interference appear?
- 5 GHz, channels 36–48
- 2.4 GHz, the entire band (channels 1–14) (Correct answer)
- 6 GHz, channels 1–233
- 2.4 GHz, channels 6–11
Correct answer: 2.4 GHz, the entire band (channels 1–14)
Microwave ovens emit broadband noise across most of the 2.4 GHz ISM band (~2.4–2.5 GHz), affecting all channels in that band.
Question 57: A client asks you to guarantee 100% wireless uptime in their SLA. The appropriate response is to:
- Decline to discuss SLAs at all
- Guarantee uptime but exclude wireless from the scope
- Explain that 100% uptime is unrealistic and discuss achievable SLA targets with redundancy options (Correct answer)
- Agree immediately to secure the contract
Correct answer: Explain that 100% uptime is unrealistic and discuss achievable SLA targets with redundancy options
Honest communication about realistic SLA targets and the infrastructure needed to approach high availability builds credible, sustainable client relationships.
Question 58: Under FCC regulations, what is the maximum EIRP allowed for a point-to-point bridge operating in the 2.4 GHz band with a directional antenna?
- Up to 36 dBm EIRP with antenna gain reductions above 6 dBi (Correct answer)
- 20 dBm EIRP with no exceptions
- 30 dBm EIRP regardless of antenna type
- 53.3 dBm EIRP without restriction
Correct answer: Up to 36 dBm EIRP with antenna gain reductions above 6 dBi
For 2.4 GHz point-to-point bridges, the FCC allows up to 36 dBm EIRP, but requires 1 dB reduction in transmit power for every 3 dB of antenna gain above 6 dBi.
Question 59: What is the typical channel width used for 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) deployments to maximize throughput?
- 40 MHz
- 20 MHz
- 160 MHz
- 80 MHz (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 80 MHz
80 MHz channels are the standard for 802.11ac deployments, balancing high throughput with reasonable interference management.
Question 60: What causes RF reflection?
- Metal objects (Correct answer)
- Carpet
- Wooden floors
- Plastic chairs
Correct answer: Metal objects
RF reflection occurs when radio waves encounter surfaces that are large and smooth relative to the wavelength, causing the signal to bounce off. Metal objects are particularly effective at reflecting RF signals due to their conductive properties. This reflection can lead to multipath propagation, where signals take multiple paths to reach a receiver, potentially causing interference.
Certified Wireless Specialist (CWS-101)
The CWS certification validates entry-level knowledge of 802.11 wireless networking fundamentals, RF characteristics, wireless hardware and software, and organizational Wi-Fi use cases. It is a CWNP foundational certification for IT professionals, sales, and support roles.
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
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