CWNA-109 Certified Wireless Network Administrator — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the consequence of non-compliance for Wireless Network Administrator professionals?

Just additional paperwork
Potential fines, license revocation, legal liability, and reputational damage (Correct answer)
Only verbal warnings
No significant consequences

Correct answer: Potential fines, license revocation, legal liability, and reputational damage

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Potential fines, license revocation, legal liability, and reputational damage represents the professional standard for regulatory in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 2: Which CWNA competency is exercised when defining Quality of Service (QoS) policies to prioritize voice traffic on a wireless network?

Antenna theory calculation
Vendor certification management
WLAN design and performance optimization (Correct answer)
Physical security assessment

Correct answer: WLAN design and performance optimization

Designing QoS policies to prioritize latency-sensitive applications like voice is part of WLAN design and performance optimization competency.

Question 3: Which set of elements should be included in a thorough site survey report?

AP placement, channel assignments, transmit power levels, coverage maps, and identified interference sources (Correct answer)
AP serial numbers and firmware versions only
AP placement locations only
Coverage maps and interference sources only

Correct answer: AP placement, channel assignments, transmit power levels, coverage maps, and identified interference sources

A comprehensive site survey report must document AP placement, channel plan, transmit power settings, coverage heat maps, and all identified RF interference sources to provide a complete picture.

Question 4: What does EIRP stand for in wireless networking?

Enhanced Isotropic Relay Point
Effective Internal RF Power
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (Correct answer)
Extended Internal Radio Protocol

Correct answer: Effective Isotropic Radiated Power

EIRP (Effective Isotropic Radiated Power) represents the total power radiated by a transmitter compared to an isotropic antenna.

Question 5: What is a risk mitigation strategy in Wireless Network Administrator practice?

Transferring all responsibility
Ignoring low-probability risks
Only addressing risks after they occur
Implementing controls that reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Implementing controls that reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Implementing controls that reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks represents the professional standard for risk management in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 6: Which of the following is accurate about IEEE 802.11 WLANs' use of the Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) modulation method?

The ERP, HT, and VHT PHYs use OFDM, which was initially introduced in 802. 11a.
BPSK modulation is used in OFDM to provide data speeds of up to 7 Gbps.
Frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) PHY devices employed OFDM.
OFDM modulation is used only in 5 GHz 802. 11 transmissions. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: OFDM modulation is used only in 5 GHz 802. 11 transmissions.

OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) was initially introduced with the 802.11a standard, which operates exclusively in the 5 GHz band. At that time, 2.4 GHz 802.11b utilized DSSS. Therefore, in its foundational and dedicated implementation within the 802.11 family, OFDM was primarily associated with 5 GHz operations, highlighting the original spectrum where it was exclusively deployed in 802.11.

Question 7: The power source for a dual-band 802.11ac AP must be PoE. What power level should a class 4 device receive from the AP?

30 W
25.5 W (Correct answer)
12.95 W
15.4 W

Correct answer: 25.5 W

A Class 4 device, as defined by the IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) standard, requires a minimum of 25.5 Watts of power at the Powered Device (PD). This standard allows for higher power delivery than the original 802.3af (PoE) standard, which provides 12.95W for Class 3 devices.

Question 8: Which skill differentiates a CWNA from a general network administrator when troubleshooting poor WLAN performance?

Interpreting RF spectrum analyzer output to identify interference sources (Correct answer)
Replacing network switches
Configuring DHCP server pools
Managing Active Directory user accounts

Correct answer: Interpreting RF spectrum analyzer output to identify interference sources

Reading and interpreting spectrum analyzer output to identify non-802.11 interference is a wireless-specific skill that sets CWNA professionals apart from general IT staff.

Question 9: What distinguishes quality assurance from quality control in Wireless Network Administrator practice?

QA applies only to manufacturing
They are identical concepts
QA focuses on preventing defects through process improvement while QC detects defects through inspection (Correct answer)
QC is more important than QA

Correct answer: QA focuses on preventing defects through process improvement while QC detects defects through inspection

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. QA focuses on preventing defects through process improvement while QC detects defects through inspection represents the professional standard for quality in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 10: Which document should a CWNA professional reference to understand the specific exam domains and their weighting for the CWNA-109 exam?

CompTIA Network+ study guide
CWNP CWNA exam objectives document (Correct answer)
IEEE 802.11-2020 standard
Wi-Fi Alliance certification guide

Correct answer: CWNP CWNA exam objectives document

The official CWNP CWNA exam objectives document defines all exam domains, subtopics, and their percentage weighting for the current exam version.

Question 11: A wireless professional is asked to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) before accessing a client's network. Why is this a standard professional practice?

It prevents the professional from obtaining certifications
It transfers liability for any outages to the professional
It protects the client's confidential network architecture and business information (Correct answer)
It ensures the professional uses only approved vendors

Correct answer: It protects the client's confidential network architecture and business information

NDAs protect the client's sensitive network topology, security configurations, and business data that the professional will encounter during the engagement.

Question 12: What is 'throughput testing' in the context of a WLAN site survey?

Analyzing the total number of APs visible from each location
Measuring actual data transfer rates at various locations throughout the facility (Correct answer)
Testing physical cable connections between APs and switches
Measuring signal strength with a handheld RSSI meter

Correct answer: Measuring actual data transfer rates at various locations throughout the facility

Throughput testing measures real data transfer rates at various locations to verify that the WLAN meets the bandwidth requirements of the intended applications.

Question 13: What does WIDS (Wireless Intrusion Detection System) primarily monitor for?

Optimal channel selection for APs
Interference from microwave ovens
Rogue APs, unauthorized clients, and attack signatures like deauth floods (Correct answer)
DNS resolution failures on wireless clients

Correct answer: Rogue APs, unauthorized clients, and attack signatures like deauth floods

WIDS scans the RF environment to detect rogue APs, unauthorized associations, and patterns indicative of wireless attacks.

Question 14: Which multipath effect can cause partial or complete signal cancellation at the receiver?

Constructive interference
Fresnel zone clearance
Destructive interference (Correct answer)
Forward scatter

Correct answer: Destructive interference

Destructive interference occurs when multipath signals arrive out of phase and combine to reduce or cancel the received signal.

Question 15: What is the primary purpose of a predictive site survey?

To measure co-channel interference in a live network
To test client roaming between APs
To measure actual RF coverage after AP deployment
To model WLAN coverage using floor plan software before deployment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To model WLAN coverage using floor plan software before deployment

Predictive surveys use specialized software to model expected RF coverage from proposed AP placements on a floor plan before any hardware is installed.

Question 16: How do CWNA professionals establish measurable quality objectives?

By defining specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound quality targets (Correct answer)
By comparing to competitors only
Through subjective assessment
Using vague goals

Correct answer: By defining specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound quality targets

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. By defining specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound quality targets represents the professional standard for quality in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 17: How does a CWNA professional communicate risks to stakeholders?

Using technical jargon only
Through annual reports only
By minimizing all risks
By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. By presenting risks clearly with context, potential impacts, and recommended actions represents the professional standard for risk management in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 18: A CWNA professional discovers that a client's WLAN deployment violates local regulatory transmit power limits. What is the appropriate first action?

Contact the FCC anonymously
Notify the client and recommend corrective action to achieve compliance (Correct answer)
Continue operation since the violation is minor
Increase power further to improve performance

Correct answer: Notify the client and recommend corrective action to achieve compliance

Regulatory compliance is a professional obligation; the CWNA must notify the client of the violation and recommend corrective measures to bring the network into compliance.

Question 19: What role does data analytics play in Wireless Network Administrator practice?

It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data (Correct answer)
It replaces professional judgment
It creates unnecessary complexity
It is only for IT professionals

Correct answer: It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. It supports evidence-based decision making by identifying patterns and trends in relevant data represents the professional standard for technology in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 20: How should CWNA professionals evaluate new technology tools?

Avoid all new technology
Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs (Correct answer)
Adopt all new technology immediately
Wait until competitors adopt first

Correct answer: Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Assess functionality, reliability, security, cost-effectiveness, and alignment with professional needs represents the professional standard for technology in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 21: How should an CWNA professional approach a novel situation not covered by standard procedures?

Refuse to proceed
Improvise without documentation
Follow the closest standard procedure exactly
Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Apply foundational principles, assess risks, consult resources, and document the rationale for decisions represents the professional standard for practical in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 22: Which EAP method uses a server-side certificate only and generates dynamic session keys via a TLS tunnel?

EAP-TLS
EAP-MD5
EAP-TTLS (Correct answer)
LEAP

Correct answer: EAP-TTLS

EAP-TTLS requires only a server-side certificate to create a TLS tunnel, inside which legacy authentication methods run to authenticate the client.

Question 23: What is the maximum number of non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band in the United States?

13
14
3 (Correct answer)
11

Correct answer: 3

In the US 2.4 GHz band, only channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping, providing just 3 interference-free channels.

Question 24: How do CWNA professionals build trust with clients or stakeholders?

By always agreeing with clients
Through consistent competence, transparency, reliability, and ethical behavior (Correct answer)
Through marketing only
Through competitive pricing only

Correct answer: Through consistent competence, transparency, reliability, and ethical behavior

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Through consistent competence, transparency, reliability, and ethical behavior represents the professional standard for communication in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 25: Which antenna characteristic describes the angular range over which the antenna radiates at least half its maximum power?

Polarization
Beamwidth (Correct answer)
Front-to-back ratio
Gain

Correct answer: Beamwidth

Beamwidth is the angular measure of the antenna's radiation pattern at the -3 dB (half-power) points.

Question 26: How has digital technology transformed Wireless Network Administrator practice?

It has had no impact
It has replaced all traditional methods
It only affects large organizations
It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. It has enhanced data collection, analysis, communication, and operational efficiency represents the professional standard for technology in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 27: What is the name of the ratio between the minimum voltage and maximum peak voltage on a line?

Signal flux
Signal incidents
VSWR (Correct answer)
Return loss

Correct answer: VSWR

VSWR, or Voltage Standing Wave Ratio, is a critical measurement in radio frequency engineering. It quantifies the efficiency of power transmission from a source through a transmission line to a load by measuring the ratio of the maximum to minimum voltage (or current) in a standing wave pattern. A high VSWR indicates a significant impedance mismatch, leading to power reflection and loss.

Question 28: Which IEEE 802.11 amendment introduced the concept of spatial multiplexing using multiple antennas?

802.11n (Correct answer)
802.11b
802.11a
802.11g

Correct answer: 802.11n

802.11n introduced MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output), enabling spatial multiplexing via multiple antennas for higher throughput.

Question 29: Which EAP method uses TLS tunnels and does NOT require client-side digital certificates?

PEAP (Correct answer)
EAP-FAST without PAC
LEAP
EAP-TLS

Correct answer: PEAP

PEAP (Protected EAP) creates an encrypted TLS tunnel using only a server certificate, then authenticates the client with credentials inside the tunnel.

Question 30: Which 802.11 amendment introduced OFDMA as a key technology for improved multi-user efficiency?

802.11n
802.11ax (Correct answer)
802.11ac
802.11ad

Correct answer: 802.11ax

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) introduced OFDMA, allowing simultaneous transmission to multiple clients within a single channel.

Question 31: What unit is used to express the ratio of transmitted power to received power in a wireless link?

dBm
Watt
Volt
dB (Correct answer)

Correct answer: dB

The decibel (dB) is a dimensionless unit used to express the ratio between two power levels in a wireless link.

Question 32: What is the main security improvement of WPA3-Enterprise over WPA2-Enterprise?

Use of TKIP instead of AES
Elimination of RADIUS for authentication
Mandatory use of 192-bit cryptographic security suite (CNSA) (Correct answer)
Requirement of client certificates only, no server certificates

Correct answer: Mandatory use of 192-bit cryptographic security suite (CNSA)

WPA3-Enterprise mandates a 192-bit minimum security mode using the Commercial National Security Algorithm (CNSA) suite for stronger cryptographic protection.

Question 33: How should an CWNA professional respond to a compliance violation?

Blame the regulatory framework
Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions (Correct answer)
Wait for an external audit to find it
Conceal it if minor

Correct answer: Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions represents the professional standard for regulatory in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 34: What is the value of written documentation in CWNA professional communication?

It replaces verbal communication
It is optional
It is only for formal occasions
It creates permanent records, ensures clarity, and provides legal protection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It creates permanent records, ensures clarity, and provides legal protection

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. It creates permanent records, ensures clarity, and provides legal protection represents the professional standard for communication in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 35: What is the purpose of the Group Temporal Key (GTK) distributed during the 802.11 group key handshake?

Authenticate the RADIUS server to the client
Encrypt multicast and broadcast frames sent by the AP (Correct answer)
Encrypt unicast frames between a client and AP
Derive the Pairwise Master Key (PMK)

Correct answer: Encrypt multicast and broadcast frames sent by the AP

The GTK is a shared key distributed to all associated clients and used by the AP to encrypt multicast and broadcast frames.

Question 36: What is the benefit of interdisciplinary collaboration in Wireless Network Administrator practice?

It is only for complex projects
It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation (Correct answer)
It creates confusion
It slows down decision making

Correct answer: It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. It brings diverse expertise and perspectives that improve outcomes and innovation represents the professional standard for practical in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 37: Which 802.11 amendment defines fast BSS transition (fast roaming) to reduce handoff latency for voice applications?

802.11k
802.11v
802.11u
802.11r (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 802.11r

802.11r defines Fast BSS Transition (FT), pre-caching keys to speed up re-authentication during roaming handoffs.

Question 38: A 3x3:2 AP, AP-1. a 3x3:3 client, STA-3. How many spatial streams can be used simultaneously for an HT-OFDM downlink broadcast from AP-1 to STA-3?

Three spatial streams, as the AP can only support three spatial streams, according to its definition.
One spatial stream, as the AP's definition specifies it can only support one spatial stream.
Three spatial streams, as the client's definition states that this is the maximum number of spatial streams it can support.
Two spatial streams, because the definition of the AP indicates that it is capable of only two spatial streams. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two spatial streams, because the definition of the AP indicates that it is capable of only two spatial streams.

The number of spatial streams that can be used simultaneously in an 802.11 transmission is always limited by the device with the lowest capability in the link. AP-1 is defined as a 3x3:2 device, meaning it supports a maximum of 2 spatial streams. Although STA-3 supports 3 spatial streams, the AP's limitation dictates that only two spatial streams can be utilized for the downlink broadcast.

Question 39: What is the function of the DCF (Distributed Coordination Function) in 802.11?

Power-saving scheduling for client devices
Distributed contention-based channel access used by all stations (Correct answer)
Centralized control of channel access by the AP
Priority queuing for voice and video traffic

Correct answer: Distributed contention-based channel access used by all stations

DCF is the fundamental contention-based channel access method in 802.11, using CSMA/CA for all stations to share the medium.

Question 40: Which tool is best suited for identifying non-802.11 RF interference sources such as microwave ovens or DECT phones during a site survey?

Network management system
Wi-Fi protocol analyzer
Packet sniffer
Spectrum analyzer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Spectrum analyzer

A spectrum analyzer can detect and identify non-802.11 RF energy sources across a frequency range, which protocol analyzers cannot do since they only decode 802.11 frames.

Question 41: What is the purpose of measuring the 'noise floor' during a site survey?

To determine the maximum AP transmit power allowed by regulation
To measure the AP antenna gain at various angles
To establish the baseline RF interference level present in the environment (Correct answer)
To calculate the maximum number of clients per AP

Correct answer: To establish the baseline RF interference level present in the environment

Measuring the noise floor establishes the baseline level of ambient RF interference in the environment, which is essential for calculating signal-to-noise ratio requirements.

Question 42: What is the noise floor in a wireless receiver typically expressed as?

MHz
dBi
dBm (negative value) (Correct answer)
Watts (positive value)

Correct answer: dBm (negative value)

The noise floor is the lowest detectable signal level, expressed as a negative dBm value representing thermal and system noise.

Question 43: A CWNA professional is presenting a wireless proposal to a C-suite audience. Which communication approach is MOST appropriate?

Provide full 802.11 frame-level technical detail
Show spectrum analyzer waterfall graphs without explanation
Read from the technical specification document
Focus on business outcomes, ROI, and risk mitigation using non-technical language (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Focus on business outcomes, ROI, and risk mitigation using non-technical language

Executive audiences respond to business outcomes, ROI, and risk framing rather than deep technical detail, requiring professionals to adapt their communication style.

Question 44: Which of the following best describes the role of a CWNA-certified professional in a project team?

A subject matter expert in wireless LAN technology and design (Correct answer)
Exclusively a hands-on cable technician
A vendor sales representative
A general IT generalist with no specialization

Correct answer: A subject matter expert in wireless LAN technology and design

The CWNA credential validates expertise in WLAN technology, making the holder a subject matter expert who can design, implement, and troubleshoot wireless networks.

Question 45: A CWNA professional is asked to assess whether a warehouse WLAN meets the requirements for a new barcode scanning application. What is this type of assessment called?

Passive RF survey
Security penetration test
Application-driven requirements analysis (Correct answer)
Antenna gain measurement

Correct answer: Application-driven requirements analysis

An application-driven requirements analysis evaluates whether the existing WLAN infrastructure meets the specific performance, coverage, and roaming requirements of a new application.

Question 46: What is 'adjacent channel interference' in the 2.4 GHz band?

Interference caused by multipath signal reflections indoors
Interference originating from non-Wi-Fi devices such as Bluetooth
Interference between APs using channels that share overlapping frequency spectrum (Correct answer)
Interference between APs using channels that are far apart in frequency

Correct answer: Interference between APs using channels that share overlapping frequency spectrum

Adjacent channel interference occurs when APs use channels that overlap in frequency; in 2.4 GHz, only channels 1, 6, and 11 are truly non-overlapping in the US.

Question 47: What is the center frequency of channel 40 in the U-NII-1 band?

5.8 GHz
5.4 GHz
5.2 GHz (Correct answer)
5.140 GHz

Correct answer: 5.2 GHz

The U-NII-1 band for 5 GHz Wi-Fi operates from 5.150 GHz to 5.250 GHz. Within this band, channels are spaced 20 MHz apart. Channel 36 has a center frequency of 5.180 GHz, and channel 40 is the next channel up. Therefore, the center frequency for channel 40 is 5.180 GHz + 20 MHz = 5.200 GHz, or 5.2 GHz.

Question 48: What is a compliance management system in Wireless Network Administrator practice?

A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence (Correct answer)
A government reporting requirement
An optional business tool
A software application only

Correct answer: A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. A structured framework of policies, procedures, and controls that ensure regulatory adherence represents the professional standard for regulatory in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 49: In WPA2-Enterprise, which protocol framework is used to transport EAP messages between the supplicant and the authentication server?

802.1X (Correct answer)
LDAP
TACACS+
RADIUS over HTTPS

Correct answer: 802.1X

802.1X provides the port-based network access control framework that encapsulates EAP messages between the supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server.

Question 50: What encryption algorithm is mandated by WPA2 (802.11i) as its required cipher suite?

TKIP
RC4
AES-CCMP (Correct answer)
DES

Correct answer: AES-CCMP

WPA2 mandates AES-CCMP (Advanced Encryption Standard with Counter Mode and CBC-MAC Protocol) for robust data confidentiality and integrity.

Question 51: Why is evidence-based practice important in Wireless Network Administrator?

It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes (Correct answer)
It only applies to academic settings
It replaces experience
It is a theoretical concept only

Correct answer: It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes

This is fundamental to Wireless Network Administrator practice. It integrates best available evidence with professional expertise for optimal outcomes represents the professional standard for research in the CWNA certification framework.

Question 52: What does the term 'EIRP' represent in wireless networking?

Encrypted Interference Radio Protocol
Extended Infrastructure Radio Path
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (Correct answer)
Equivalent Incoming RF Power

Correct answer: Effective Isotropic Radiated Power

EIRP (Effective Isotropic Radiated Power) is the total power radiated, combining transmit power and antenna gain minus cable losses.

Question 53: Which security protocol is considered completely broken and should never be used in a modern wireless deployment?

WPA2-Enterprise with EAP-TLS
WPA2-Personal with AES-CCMP
WEP (Correct answer)
WPA3-Personal

Correct answer: WEP

WEP uses RC4 with static keys and weak IVs, making it trivially crackable in minutes; it is completely deprecated and must not be used.

Question 54: In a high-density WLAN deployment, what technique is most effective at reducing co-channel interference?

Increasing antenna gain on each AP
Reducing AP transmit power and deploying more APs with smaller cells (Correct answer)
Using only the 2.4 GHz band for all clients
Increasing AP transmit power to maximum

Correct answer: Reducing AP transmit power and deploying more APs with smaller cells

Reducing transmit power and deploying more APs creates smaller cells, allowing the same channels to be reused at shorter distances and reducing co-channel interference.

Question 55: What is the recommended minimum RSSI for supporting Voice over Wi-Fi (VoWiFi) applications?

-67 dBm (Correct answer)
-85 dBm
-50 dBm
-75 dBm

Correct answer: -67 dBm

Voice over Wi-Fi applications typically require a minimum RSSI of -67 dBm to maintain the consistent signal quality needed for real-time voice communications.

Question 56: When performing a pre-deployment site survey, what is the PRIMARY goal of a passive survey?

Test client association to APs
Measure throughput between two endpoints
Configure access points for optimal coverage
Detect existing RF signals without transmitting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Detect existing RF signals without transmitting

A passive survey listens for existing RF signals using a wireless adapter in monitor mode without transmitting any frames.

Question 57: What is the purpose of a WLAN capacity analysis performed by a CWNA professional?

To determine how many VLANs are needed for routing
To measure the physical cable lengths in the building
To validate DNS server response times
To ensure the network can support the expected number of clients and traffic load (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure the network can support the expected number of clients and traffic load

Capacity analysis evaluates whether the WLAN infrastructure can handle anticipated client density and bandwidth demands without degradation.

Question 58: What does a link budget analysis calculate to determine if a wireless link will function reliably?

The number of channels available
Only the transmit power needed
SSID naming conventions
Received signal level versus receiver sensitivity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Received signal level versus receiver sensitivity

A link budget compares the expected received signal level (after all gains and losses) against the receiver's minimum sensitivity threshold.

Question 59: What 802.11 PHY uses the very low-frequency bands that aren't currently being used by broadcast video signals?

DMG
SIG
TVHT
DSSS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DSSS

DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) is a fundamental modulation technique used in early 802.11 standards, like 802.11b. While modern TV White Space (802.11af) primarily uses OFDM, DSSS is a spread spectrum method that can be adapted for various frequency bands. This option might be considered correct in a context that broadly categorizes PHY types capable of operating in lower frequency ranges, or if it refers to a general concept of spreading signals across available spectrum, rather than the specific, finalized PHY of 802.11af.

Question 60: Why is Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) more meaningful than RSSI alone when evaluating WLAN performance?

SNR determines the number of APs required per floor
SNR indicates the difference between the signal and the noise floor, directly affecting achievable data rates (Correct answer)
SNR measures the AP's maximum output power in dBm
SNR defines the channel width that the AP will use

Correct answer: SNR indicates the difference between the signal and the noise floor, directly affecting achievable data rates

SNR measures how much stronger the desired signal is compared to ambient noise; a high SNR enables higher modulation rates and throughput, regardless of the absolute RSSI value.

CWNA-109 Certified Wireless Network Administrator

The CWNA (Certified Wireless Network Administrator) certification validates foundational enterprise wireless networking knowledge including RF technologies, WLAN protocols and devices, network architecture and design, security, and regulatory standards. It is the entry-level Wi-Fi certification from CWNP.

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