CVT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CVT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Standing on a foam pad with eyes closed during sensory organization testing primarily forces reliance on: → Visual and vestibular inputs for postural control
2. What type of exercise is commonly used to retrain gaze stability? → VOR exercises
3. Sequential Romberg testing (firm surface, foam surface, eyes open, eyes closed) is used to assess: → The relative contributions of visual, somatosensory, and vestibular systems to balance
4. Which fall risk screening tool is most validated for use in vestibular rehabilitation patients? → Dynamic Gait Index (DGI)
5. The Functional Gait Assessment (FGA) was developed to improve upon the Dynamic Gait Index (DGI) by: → Including more challenging items to reduce ceiling effects in higher-functioning patients
6. In the Lempert (BBQ) roll maneuver, the patient rolls through which sequence of positions to treat horizontal canal BPPV? → Supine → affected side → prone → unaffected side → sitting
7. How does continuing education relate to communication & interprofessional collaboration for CVT certified professionals? → It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices
8. Which of the following best describes a key competency required for communication & interprofessional collaboration in CVT certification? → Critical thinking and evidence-based decision making
9. In caloric testing, a canal paresis (CP) is calculated using which formula? → (RW + RC − LW − LC) / (RW + RC + LW + LC) × 100
10. Which cells in the vestibular system are responsible for detecting motion? → Hair cells
11. What is a common challenge professionals face when applying professional ethics & legal compliance principles in Certified Vestibular Therapist? → Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application
12. A Timed Up and Go (TUG) score above how many seconds typically indicates increased fall risk in community-dwelling older adults? → 12 seconds
13. The type I hair cell in the vestibular system is characterized by its: → Flask shape enclosed by a calyceal afferent nerve ending
14. Aminoglycoside antibiotics such as gentamicin cause vestibular damage primarily by: → Destroying type I and type II hair cells in the labyrinth
15. Why is the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) important? → It stabilizes gaze during head motion
16. Which technology trend is most likely to impact communication & interprofessional collaboration in the CVT field in coming years? → Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting
17. When implementing communication & interprofessional collaboration practices, what should a CVT professional prioritize first? → Compliance with established standards and protocols
18. A patient on vestibular rehabilitation is also taking meclizine daily. The therapist should anticipate which effect on treatment outcomes? → Reduced central nervous system plasticity potentially slowing compensation
19. Which agent is administered intratympanically to chemically ablate vestibular function in refractory Meniere's disease? → Gentamicin
20. Which outcome measure is specifically designed to assess dizziness-related functional disability and quality of life? → Dizziness Handicap Inventory (DHI)
21. Which documentation practice is most important for communication & interprofessional collaboration in the CVT field? → Maintaining complete, accurate, and timely records
22. Which movement activates the posterior semicircular canal? → Looking up or down
23. During the head impulse test (HIT), a corrective saccade after a rapid head thrust indicates: → Reduced VOR gain on the ipsilateral semicircular canal
24. What is the significance of peer review in professional ethics & legal compliance for CVT professionals? → It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement
25. What does spontaneous nystagmus suggest during examination? → Acute vestibular dysfunction
26. Which imaging technique is commonly used to rule out central causes of dizziness? → MRI
27. The Berg Balance Scale (BBS) is scored out of a maximum of: → 56 points
28. Which diuretic combination is most commonly prescribed to reduce endolymphatic hydrops in Meniere's disease? → Hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene
29. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are used in vestibular disorders primarily as: → Antiemetics to control nausea and vomiting
30. What is the primary purpose of communication & interprofessional collaboration in the context of Certified Vestibular Therapist? → To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability