Oncology Data Specialist (ODS) / Certified Tumor Registrar (CTR) Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: In cancer epidemiology, what does a 'cohort study' examine?
- Randomized patients assigned to treatment or placebo
- Cancer cases and matched controls interviewed about past exposures
- A group followed over time to observe who develops cancer (Correct answer)
- A cross-sectional snapshot of cancer prevalence
Correct answer: A group followed over time to observe who develops cancer
A cohort study follows a defined population prospectively (or retrospectively) over time to measure cancer incidence and identify risk factors.
Question 2: What documentation practice is considered essential in Confidentiality & Data Security within the Certified Tumor Registrar field?
- Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible (Correct answer)
- Completing all documentation at the end of the workday
- Using shorthand notes that can be expanded later if needed
- Only documenting unusual events or complications
Correct answer: Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible
Real-time or near-real-time documentation in Confidentiality & Data Security ensures accuracy, provides a contemporaneous record, and is considered the gold standard for professional accountability and legal defensibility.
Question 3: For colorectal cancer, which Dukes classification corresponds to AJCC Stage III?
- Dukes C (Correct answer)
- Dukes B
- Dukes A
- Dukes D
Correct answer: Dukes C
Dukes C corresponds to regional lymph node involvement, which aligns with AJCC Stage III colorectal cancer.
Question 4: Which date is used as the 'date of diagnosis' when a biopsy and a subsequent surgical resection both confirm malignancy?
- Date the oncologist first evaluated the patient
- Date the pathology report was signed
- Date of the biopsy confirming malignancy (Correct answer)
- Date of surgical resection
Correct answer: Date of the biopsy confirming malignancy
The date of diagnosis is the earliest date on which a definitive diagnosis of cancer was established, typically the biopsy date.
Question 5: A cancer registry manager receives a request from a life insurance company asking for a patient's cancer history to assess a policy application. The CORRECT response is to:
- Require a signed, valid patient authorization before releasing any information (Correct answer)
- Provide the information because insurance companies are authorized requesters
- Share de-identified data since it does not reveal the specific patient
- Refer the insurer directly to the treating oncologist
Correct answer: Require a signed, valid patient authorization before releasing any information
Disclosure to a life insurance company requires the patient's valid written authorization because this is not a treatment, payment, or healthcare operations purpose.
Question 6: The five-year relative survival rate compares observed survival of cancer patients to the survival of which comparison group?
- A matched general population of the same age, sex, and race (Correct answer)
- All cancer patients in the registry regardless of type
- Hospital inpatients with chronic disease
- Patients with the same cancer who received no treatment
Correct answer: A matched general population of the same age, sex, and race
Relative survival divides observed survival in cancer patients by expected survival in a demographically matched general population to isolate the cancer's impact.
Question 7: A cancer registry uses a third-party cloud storage vendor to back up patient data. According to HIPAA, this vendor must sign which type of agreement?
- A memorandum of understanding (MOU)
- A data use agreement (DUA)
- A qualified protective order
- A business associate agreement (BAA) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A business associate agreement (BAA)
Any vendor that creates, receives, maintains, or transmits PHI on behalf of a covered entity is a business associate and must sign a BAA.
Question 8: What action is required when a cancer registrar discovers that a previously submitted case was incorrectly classified as reportable?
- Change the histology code to a non-reportable code without flagging
- Archive the case without notifying the state
- Delete the case from the registry and submit a correction to the state (Correct answer)
- Leave the case in the registry as submitted
Correct answer: Delete the case from the registry and submit a correction to the state
Incorrectly reported cases must be deleted from the registry and a correction or deletion notice submitted to the state central registry to maintain data integrity.
Question 9: A central registry rejects a hospital's submission because 4% of records fail the 'Diagnosis Year vs. Date of Birth' edit. This is an example of which quality control mechanism?
- Manual reabstraction audit
- Case-finding completeness review
- Interagency data comparison
- Automated edit check at submission (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Automated edit check at submission
Automated edit checks run at submission validate logical relationships between fields, catching errors before data enters the central registry.
Question 10: A patient with colorectal cancer receives bevacizumab along with FOLFOX. How should bevacizumab be classified?
- Chemotherapy
- Immunotherapy
- Hormone therapy
- Targeted therapy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Targeted therapy
Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody targeting VEGF, classifying it as targeted therapy rather than conventional chemotherapy.
Question 11: What does the term 'completeness' mean in the context of a central cancer registry's data quality?
- The accuracy of stage data for abstracted cases
- The proportion of all cancer cases in the catchment area that are captured by the registry (Correct answer)
- The timeliness of case submission to the registry
- The percentage of cases with complete treatment information
Correct answer: The proportion of all cancer cases in the catchment area that are captured by the registry
Completeness refers to the registry's case ascertainment rate — how well it captures all incident cancer cases occurring in its defined geographic population.
Question 12: A pathology report mentions 'signet ring cell features' in a gastric adenocarcinoma. How should histology be coded?
- 8140/3 — Adenocarcinoma, NOS
- 8490/3 — Signet ring cell carcinoma (Correct answer)
- 8145/3 — Carcinoma, diffuse type
- 8010/3 — Carcinoma, NOS
Correct answer: 8490/3 — Signet ring cell carcinoma
When signet ring cell features are identified, ICD-O-3 code 8490/3 (Signet ring cell carcinoma) is the most specific and preferred code.
Question 13: When a hospital cancer registry submits data to the state central registry, which organization's standards govern the required data items and their coding?
- NAACCR standards, which integrate CoC and SEER requirements (Correct answer)
- Only CoC standards apply
- Each hospital sets its own submission standards
- Only SEER standards apply
Correct answer: NAACCR standards, which integrate CoC and SEER requirements
NAACCR standards serve as the umbrella framework that harmonizes CoC, SEER, and NPCR data items for state reporting.
Question 14: What role do re-abstracting audits play in quality assurance?
- They verify data accuracy and consistency (Correct answer)
- They identify late patient arrivals
- They evaluate financial operations
- They measure coding productivity
Correct answer: They verify data accuracy and consistency
Re-abstracting audits involve having a second, independent abstractor review a sample of cases to compare their abstracted data against the original abstract and source documents. This process helps identify errors, inconsistencies, and variations in coding practices. These audits are crucial for ensuring the overall accuracy and reliability of the data within the cancer registry.
Question 15: Which standard-setter publishes the rules that define the 'casefinding' process used by hospital cancer registries accredited by the American College of Surgeons?
- CoC (Commission on Cancer) (Correct answer)
- CDC NPCR
- NAACCR
- SEER
Correct answer: CoC (Commission on Cancer)
The Commission on Cancer (CoC) sets casefinding standards for accredited hospital cancer registries through its STORE manual.
Question 16: What does age-adjusted (age-standardized) cancer rate allow researchers to do?
- Determine the stage distribution of a cancer type
- Calculate the number of new cases in one year
- Compare rates across populations with different age distributions (Correct answer)
- Estimate a patient's individual cancer risk
Correct answer: Compare rates across populations with different age distributions
Age-adjustment removes the confounding effect of age so that rates in populations with different age structures can be validly compared.
Question 17: What is the purpose of the NAACCR Call for Data in the context of data quality?
- To request follow-up information from patients
- To notify registries of new ICD-O-3 coding updates
- To audit individual hospital registries for accreditation
- To collect standardized, quality-checked data from state registries for national analytic databases (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To collect standardized, quality-checked data from state registries for national analytic databases
The NAACCR Call for Data is an annual request for standardized submissions to build national datasets, requiring data that has passed quality edits.
Question 18: Which measure expresses the probability of dying FROM cancer (rather than with it) over a specified time period?
- Overall survival rate
- Disease-free survival rate
- Relative survival rate
- Cause-specific survival rate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cause-specific survival rate
Cause-specific survival counts only deaths attributed to the cancer of interest as events, excluding deaths from other causes.
Question 19: A patient receives a diagnosis of carcinoma in situ of the cervix (CIN III). Under most state and central registry rules, this case is:
- Reportable as a non-malignant tumor
- Reportable only if the patient subsequently develops invasive cancer
- Reportable as an invasive cancer
- Not reportable because it is in situ (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Not reportable because it is in situ
Carcinoma in situ of the cervix (CIN III) is generally excluded from central cancer registry reporting because it is not invasive cancer.
Question 20: What does the term 'first course of treatment' mean in cancer registry abstracting?
- The first chemotherapy regimen only
- Only surgery performed within 30 days of diagnosis
- All treatment given before recurrence or progression (Correct answer)
- Treatment given in the first hospital visit
Correct answer: All treatment given before recurrence or progression
First course of treatment includes all planned therapy given before disease recurrence, progression, or the start of a new treatment approach.
Question 21: Which statistical test is most commonly used to compare Kaplan-Meier survival curves between two groups?
- Student's t-test
- Fisher's exact test
- Chi-square test
- Log-rank test (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Log-rank test
The log-rank test (Mantel-Cox test) compares the overall survival experience between groups across all time points.
Question 22: The concept of 'lead time bias' in cancer screening studies refers to:
- Overestimation of incidence due to improved case finding
- The delay between symptom onset and diagnosis
- The time lag between diagnosis and treatment initiation
- The apparent increase in survival time due to earlier detection, without actual benefit (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The apparent increase in survival time due to earlier detection, without actual benefit
Lead time bias inflates apparent survival because screening detects disease earlier, but if the death date is unchanged, survival appears longer without true benefit.
Question 23: When a cancer registry transitions to a new software system, which action should be performed FIRST before go-live?
- Training all staff on the new system before any data entry begins
- Notifying the state registry of the planned system change
- Parallel testing by running both old and new systems simultaneously with the same cases (Correct answer)
- Migrating all historical data to the new system and archiving the old one
Correct answer: Parallel testing by running both old and new systems simultaneously with the same cases
Parallel testing validates that the new system produces results consistent with the old system before fully committing to the transition.
Question 24: Which statistic is most useful for assessing whether cancer mortality rates are declining over time in a population?
- Stage distribution at diagnosis
- Crude incidence rate for a single year
- Annual percent change (APC) in age-adjusted mortality rate (Correct answer)
- Five-year relative survival rate
Correct answer: Annual percent change (APC) in age-adjusted mortality rate
Annual percent change (APC) in age-adjusted mortality quantifies the trend direction and magnitude over time, making it the standard metric for mortality trend analysis.
Question 25: In cancer registry epidemiology, 'denominator data' refers to:
- The number of registry-certified hospitals in a region
- Population counts used to calculate incidence and mortality rates (Correct answer)
- The total number of cancer cases in the numerator
- Pathology-confirmed cases only
Correct answer: Population counts used to calculate incidence and mortality rates
Denominator data are the population figures (usually from census estimates) that serve as the base for calculating rates per 100,000 persons.
Question 26: A patient receives neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgery. How should sequence of systemic therapy and surgery be coded?
- Systemic before surgery (Correct answer)
- Surgery only
- Systemic only
- Surgery before systemic
Correct answer: Systemic before surgery
When chemotherapy precedes surgery, the sequence is coded as systemic therapy before surgery, reflecting actual treatment order.
Question 27: A tumor registrar notices that the same patient has been abstracted twice under two different medical record numbers. This is an example of:
- A duplicate record (Correct answer)
- An incomplete abstract
- A casefinding error
- A coding discrepancy
Correct answer: A duplicate record
Duplicate records occur when the same patient is entered more than once in the registry, often due to multiple medical record numbers or facility visits.
Question 28: In Registry Operations & Management, what is the FIRST step a CTR professional should take when encountering a new case or situation?
- Implement an immediate solution based on past experience
- Document the situation and wait for further instructions
- Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information (Correct answer)
- Consult with a supervisor before taking any action
Correct answer: Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
In Registry Operations & Management, a thorough initial assessment ensures all relevant factors are identified before deciding on an appropriate course of action. This systematic approach is fundamental to Certified Tumor Registrar practice.
Question 29: Which field in a cancer abstract captures the specific hospital department or service where the cancer was first recognized within the facility?
- Source of Case Report (Correct answer)
- Primary Site
- Type of Reporting Source
- Admitting Diagnosis
Correct answer: Source of Case Report
Source of Case Report (NAACCR Item #380) identifies the department or service within the hospital that initially identified the cancer.
Question 30: Under AJCC 8th edition, which biomarker is NOT part of the breast cancer prognostic stage grouping?
- HER2 status
- ER (estrogen receptor) status
- Ki-67 proliferation index (Correct answer)
- PR (progesterone receptor) status
Correct answer: Ki-67 proliferation index
Ki-67 is not included in AJCC 8th edition breast cancer prognostic staging; ER, PR, HER2, and Oncotype DX score are used.
Question 31: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Data Quality & Completeness, what should a CTR professional prioritize?
- Strict adherence to written procedures without exception
- The preference of the client or stakeholder
- The most cost-effective solution available
- Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
Safety and ethics always take priority in Data Quality & Completeness. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.
Oncology Data Specialist (ODS) / Certified Tumor Registrar (CTR) Exam
The ODS (formerly CTR) certification exam tests competency in cancer registry operations, data identification, coding, abstraction, and legal/ethical standards for oncology data professionals. It is administered by the National Cancer Registrars Association (NCRA).
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds
These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- ncra-usa.org — Renewal, eligibility, passing score, retake policy, score release, test dates, time limit, test delivery, fees, registration deadline · verified Oct 2026