Certified Surveillance Technician (CST) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: During installation of a network video recorder (NVR), what is the correct procedure when adding cameras to ensure the system clock is accurate?
- Set the NVR time manually and rely on cameras to sync via ONVIF protocol automatically
- Use the factory default time settings on all cameras to avoid conflicts
- Synchronize all cameras and the NVR to an NTP server to ensure consistent timestamps (Correct answer)
- Manually set each camera's time independently using the camera's web interface
Correct answer: Synchronize all cameras and the NVR to an NTP server to ensure consistent timestamps
Synchronizing all devices to an NTP server ensures consistent, accurate timestamps across all cameras and the NVR, which is critical for forensic video review.
Question 2: Which type of motion sensor is best suited for detecting intruders in environments with large temperature fluctuations?
- Dual-technology (PIR + microwave) (Correct answer)
- Microwave
- Passive Infrared (PIR)
- Ultrasonic
Correct answer: Dual-technology (PIR + microwave)
Dual-technology sensors combine PIR and microwave detection, reducing false alarms caused by temperature changes that would trigger a PIR-only sensor.
Question 3: A PTZ camera's pan movement is jerky and inconsistent. After ruling out network issues, what mechanical component should be inspected?
- The RJ-45 jack
- The pan motor gears and drive belt (Correct answer)
- The IR illuminator board
- The lens iris motor
Correct answer: The pan motor gears and drive belt
Worn or damaged pan motor gears and drive belts are common causes of erratic PTZ pan movement after electrical causes are eliminated.
Question 4: Which factor has the GREATEST impact on the storage capacity required for a surveillance system?
- The resolution, frame rate, and compression codec used (Correct answer)
- The length of the camera cable
- The type of camera mount
- The color of the camera housing
Correct answer: The resolution, frame rate, and compression codec used
Higher resolution, higher frame rates, and less efficient codecs all increase the storage space consumed per hour of recorded video.
Question 5: What is the benefit of using cloud storage as a backup for on-site surveillance recordings?
- It provides off-site redundancy so footage survives on-site theft, fire, or hardware failure (Correct answer)
- Cloud storage reduces camera installation costs
- Cloud storage eliminates the need for on-site NVRs entirely
- It allows cameras to operate without network connectivity
Correct answer: It provides off-site redundancy so footage survives on-site theft, fire, or hardware failure
Off-site cloud backup ensures footage is preserved even if the on-site NVR is stolen, destroyed, or suffers a hardware failure.
Question 6: A technician installs a photoelectric beam detector along a 500-foot fence line. At installation, what initial adjustment is most critical for reliable operation?
- Precisely aligning the transmitter beam with the center of the receiver lens (Correct answer)
- Adjusting the detection range potentiometer to maximum
- Programming the panel zone to a 24-hour response type
- Setting the pulse frequency to match the receiver
Correct answer: Precisely aligning the transmitter beam with the center of the receiver lens
Precise optical alignment of the transmitter beam with the receiver lens is critical; misalignment reduces signal margin, increasing susceptibility to false alarms and missed detections over long distances.
Question 7: What is the primary purpose of a 'supervised' intrusion detection circuit?
- To monitor operator login activity
- To continuously verify circuit integrity and detect tampering or wiring faults (Correct answer)
- To log all entry and exit events
- To supervise guard patrol routes
Correct answer: To continuously verify circuit integrity and detect tampering or wiring faults
Supervised circuits use end-of-line resistors or active polling to detect open or short circuit conditions, indicating tampering, cut wires, or equipment failure.
Question 8: Which IP camera stream type uses less bandwidth and is typically used for live viewing on mobile devices while the main stream is recorded at full quality?
- Multicast stream
- Unicast stream
- Primary stream (mainstream)
- Secondary stream (substream) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Secondary stream (substream)
The secondary stream (substream) is a lower-resolution, lower-bandwidth stream that is ideal for live viewing on mobile devices or remote monitoring, while the higher-quality primary stream is recorded.
Question 9: A preventive maintenance plan specifies annual calibration of video management software (VMS) time synchronization. Why is this important?
- To reduce storage usage
- To increase camera frame rates
- To improve video compression ratios
- To ensure accurate timestamps on recorded footage for evidentiary purposes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure accurate timestamps on recorded footage for evidentiary purposes
Accurate timestamps are critical for using surveillance footage as legal evidence, making time synchronization calibration a key maintenance task.
Question 10: What is the primary ethical obligation of a CST professional when a conflict of interest arises during intrusion detection & monitoring activities?
- Proceed while favoring the outcome that benefits the professional personally
- Ignore the conflict if it does not directly affect the current task
- Resolve the conflict privately without informing stakeholders
- Disclose the conflict to all relevant parties and recuse from the decision if necessary (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Disclose the conflict to all relevant parties and recuse from the decision if necessary
The primary ethical obligation when a conflict of interest arises in intrusion detection & monitoring is to disclose it to all relevant parties and, if necessary, recuse from the decision. This maintains professional integrity and stakeholder trust.
Question 11: A technician is asked to export footage from a cloud-based VMS. What additional step is required compared to local DVR export?
- Cloud footage never requires chain of custody documentation
- Cloud exports are always pre-authenticated and require no further action
- Download logs from the cloud provider showing file integrity, download timestamp, and account authentication (Correct answer)
- Convert cloud footage to a local format before export documentation begins
Correct answer: Download logs from the cloud provider showing file integrity, download timestamp, and account authentication
Cloud exports require provider-generated access logs showing who downloaded what, when, and with what credentials to establish provenance and integrity.
Question 12: In access control, 'two-man rule' (also called dual-custody) requires:
- Backup power to activate after the primary power fails
- Two authorized individuals to both present credentials before access is granted (Correct answer)
- Two separate readers mounted side-by-side at a single door
- A biometric scan followed by a PIN entry from the same user
Correct answer: Two authorized individuals to both present credentials before access is granted
The two-man rule mandates that two separate authorized individuals must authenticate simultaneously before a highly sensitive area is unlocked.
Question 13: What does a 'watermark' embedded in exported VMS video files prove?
- The camera used a fixed focal length lens
- The video was recorded during business hours
- The video was compressed using H.265
- The video has not been tampered with since it was exported from the system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The video has not been tampered with since it was exported from the system
A digital watermark embedded in exported video provides a mechanism to verify the file's integrity, confirming it has not been altered since it was exported from the VMS.
Question 14: A surveillance system for a healthcare facility captures footage of patients receiving treatment. Which regulation MOST directly applies to handling and protecting this video data?
- Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
- COPPA
- FERPA
- HIPAA Privacy Rule (Correct answer)
Correct answer: HIPAA Privacy Rule
HIPAA's Privacy Rule covers protected health information (PHI), and video footage showing identifiable patients receiving medical treatment can constitute PHI requiring HIPAA-compliant safeguards.
Question 15: In a monitored alarm system, what is the standard communication path used as a primary channel under UL 2050 requirements?
- Cellular-only transmission
- Radio frequency (RF) transmission
- Internet (IP) transmission
- Digital communicator over PSTN (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Digital communicator over PSTN
UL 2050 traditionally recognizes the digital communicator over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) as the primary communication path, though IP and cellular are now widely used as supplements or replacements.
Question 16: What is 'tailgating' in the context of access control?
- An unauthorized person following an authorized person through a secured door (Correct answer)
- A biometric enrollment error that allows multiple users the same template
- A software glitch that grants access after hours
- A reader malfunction caused by excessive card swipes
Correct answer: An unauthorized person following an authorized person through a secured door
Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized individual closely follows an authorized user through a secured entry point before the door closes.
Question 17: What is the key disadvantage of RAID 0 for surveillance storage?
- It provides no redundancy — a single drive failure causes total data loss (Correct answer)
- It requires a minimum of six drives
- It is too slow for video recording
- It cannot be used with NVRs
Correct answer: It provides no redundancy — a single drive failure causes total data loss
RAID 0 stripes data across drives for performance but has zero fault tolerance — one drive failure loses all data.
Question 18: What is the function of a 'request-to-exit' (REX) device in an access control system?
- It triggers a lockdown when motion is detected near a door
- It prevents re-entry using the same card within a set time window
- It reboots the card reader after a failed read
- It signals the panel to unlock the door for egress without using a credential (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It signals the panel to unlock the door for egress without using a credential
A REX device (motion sensor or push button) signals the access control panel to release the door latch for egress, allowing exit without a card swipe.
Question 19: What is one of the ethical concerns when using audio surveillance?
- Ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the footage.
- Respecting privacy and obtaining consent for audio recording. (Correct answer)
- Ensuring the system works without interruption.
- Making sure that no one can disable the cameras.
Correct answer: Respecting privacy and obtaining consent for audio recording.
One significant ethical concern when using audio surveillance is respecting privacy and obtaining consent for audio recording. Audio can capture private conversations, making it highly intrusive, so ethical practice and often legal requirements dictate that individuals should be informed and give consent before their audio is recorded.
Question 20: Under NFPA 731, who is qualified to perform the final acceptance test of an intrusion alarm system?
- A qualified alarm technician, often verified by an industry certification such as ESA NTS or equivalent (Correct answer)
- Any licensed electrician
- The building owner or their representative only
- Only the local police department liaison
Correct answer: A qualified alarm technician, often verified by an industry certification such as ESA NTS or equivalent
NFPA 731 requires acceptance testing to be performed by personnel qualified in alarm systems, typically demonstrated through certifications such as the ESA National Training School (NTS) or equivalent credentials.
Question 21: In VMS access control integration, what action can be configured to occur automatically when an access control panel reports a forced door event?
- The VMS switches all monitors to screensaver mode
- The VMS deletes the most recent camera footage
- The VMS disables all PTZ camera presets
- The VMS triggers an alarm and displays live video from associated door cameras (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The VMS triggers an alarm and displays live video from associated door cameras
Integration between VMS and access control allows forced-door events to automatically trigger VMS alarms and pop up live video from cameras associated with that door on operator monitors.
Question 22: Which access control model assigns permissions based on a user's role within an organization rather than individual identity?
- Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) (Correct answer)
- Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
- Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
- Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Correct answer: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
RBAC grants access permissions based on defined organizational roles (e.g., 'employee,' 'manager,' 'security'), simplifying large-scale access management.
Question 23: Which technology uses a 13.56 MHz frequency and supports onboard data encryption for contactless smart card access?
- MIFARE / iCLASS (Correct answer)
- Barcode
- 125 kHz HID Prox
- Magnetic stripe
Correct answer: MIFARE / iCLASS
MIFARE and iCLASS operate at 13.56 MHz and use cryptographic keys stored on the card chip, providing encrypted, more secure contactless transactions.
Question 24: A proximity card reader stops responding after a nearby lightning strike. The most likely damaged component is the:
- Reader's surge protection or internal circuitry (Correct answer)
- Access control software database
- Card credential itself
- Door strike mechanism
Correct answer: Reader's surge protection or internal circuitry
Lightning-induced surges most commonly damage the reader's electronics, particularly if surge protection devices are absent or insufficient.
Question 25: When documenting activities related to cctv camera selection & placement, which practice is considered essential for CST certification holders?
- Completing documentation only when requested by auditors or supervisors
- Keeping documentation in personal notes that are not accessible to other team members
- Maintaining comprehensive records that include procedures, observations, results, and any anomalies (Correct answer)
- Recording only outcomes while omitting the methods and processes used
Correct answer: Maintaining comprehensive records that include procedures, observations, results, and any anomalies
Comprehensive documentation that includes procedures, observations, results, and any anomalies is essential in cctv camera selection & placement. This supports quality assurance, enables peer review, and satisfies regulatory and audit requirements.
Question 26: During a scheduled PM, a technician finds condensation inside an outdoor camera enclosure. What is the correct response?
- Increase the camera's IR output to compensate
- Continue the visit and note it in the log only
- Replace the entire camera immediately
- Dry the enclosure, inspect for seal failure, and replace gaskets if needed (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Dry the enclosure, inspect for seal failure, and replace gaskets if needed
Condensation indicates a compromised seal; drying the unit and replacing failed gaskets prevents moisture damage to internal electronics.
Question 27: What is the purpose of a 'health monitor' module in a VMS?
- To regulate video compression quality
- To track operator login frequency
- To monitor system components like cameras, servers, and storage for faults (Correct answer)
- To manage user password expiration
Correct answer: To monitor system components like cameras, servers, and storage for faults
The health monitor module continuously checks the status of cameras, recording servers, and storage devices, alerting administrators to faults or offline components.
Question 28: RAID 5 requires a minimum of how many drives?
- 4
- 3 (Correct answer)
- 6
- 2
Correct answer: 3
RAID 5 requires at least 3 drives to distribute parity data across all drives while maintaining read/write performance.
Question 29: An attorney requests only a 'clip' of the incident rather than the raw export. What should the technician do?
- Preserve the full original export as primary evidence and provide a clearly labeled derivative clip as a copy (Correct answer)
- Provide only the requested clip, deleting the broader export to save storage
- Provide the clip after re-encoding it in the attorney's preferred format
- Refuse the request as clips are never acceptable in legal proceedings
Correct answer: Preserve the full original export as primary evidence and provide a clearly labeled derivative clip as a copy
The original full export must be preserved as primary evidence while the clip is provided as a derivative copy with clear labeling to avoid confusion.
Question 30: Which VMS feature helps investigators find a specific person or vehicle across multiple cameras by searching for similar visual attributes?
- Motion heat mapping
- Event correlation engine
- License plate indexing
- Forensic video search or appearance search (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Forensic video search or appearance search
Forensic video search (also called appearance search) uses video analytics to search recorded footage for objects matching specified visual characteristics like clothing color or vehicle type across all cameras.
Question 31: When a private employer monitors employee computer usage on company equipment, which statement BEST reflects the legal standard in most U.S. states?
- Only IT personnel are legally permitted to review employee communications
- Employers must obtain a court order before monitoring any digital communications
- Employees have no expectation of privacy on company equipment when properly notified (Correct answer)
- Monitoring is only permitted with written consent from each employee
Correct answer: Employees have no expectation of privacy on company equipment when properly notified
Courts generally hold that employees have reduced or no expectation of privacy on employer-owned equipment when a clear policy and prior notice are provided.
Certified Surveillance Technician (CST)
The CST certification validates proficiency in designing, installing, and maintaining electronic surveillance systems including CCTV cameras, access control, intrusion detection, network security, and digital storage solutions. It covers the full scope of skills required for professional surveillance technicians across physical security and IP-based systems.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds