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Airway Management & Emergency Preparedness Flashcards

7 cards from real CSC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Airway Management & Emergency Preparedness flashcards as text
  1. A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) receiving moderate sedation is at heightened risk for airway compromise primarily because:

    Answer: Upper airway muscle tone is further reduced by sedatives, worsening pharyngeal collapse

    Sedatives and opioids reduce pharyngeal dilator muscle tone, exacerbating the airway collapse that already characterizes OSA.

  2. During conscious sedation, a patient's pulse oximeter reads 92% despite apparent adequate respiration. The clinician's FIRST action should be:

    Answer: Assess airway patency, confirm probe placement, and increase supplemental oxygen

    Clinical reassessment of the airway, probe verification, and increasing oxygen addresses both equipment artifact and true hypoxemia simultaneously.

  3. Succinylcholine is used as a last resort during laryngospasm in a sedation emergency because it:

    Answer: Produces complete muscle relaxation allowing ventilation but also requires controlled airway management

    Succinylcholine (0.1–0.3 mg/kg IV) breaks laryngospasm by paralyzing the vocal cords, but the patient becomes apneic and requires controlled ventilation.

  4. Which finding on a patient's pre-sedation airway assessment is MOST predictive of difficult mask ventilation AND difficult intubation simultaneously?

    Answer: Short thick neck with limited cervical extension and Mallampati Class III–IV

    A short, thick neck with limited cervical mobility and high Mallampati class independently predicts difficulty with both mask ventilation and laryngoscopy.

  5. According to ACLS guidelines, after the first defibrillation shock for ventricular fibrillation, the next immediate action is:

    Answer: Resume CPR immediately for 2 minutes before checking the rhythm

    ACLS protocol mandates immediate resumption of high-quality CPR for 2 minutes after each defibrillation attempt before rhythm reassessment.

  6. A supraglottic airway device (LMA) inserted during a sedation emergency provides which of the following advantages over endotracheal intubation?

    Answer: Faster insertion with minimal training required and no laryngoscopy needed

    The LMA can be inserted quickly without direct laryngoscopy and can maintain an airway when endotracheal intubation fails or is not immediately possible.

  7. During recovery from conscious sedation, at what minimum SpO2 level (on room air) should a patient typically meet before supplemental oxygen is discontinued per standard discharge criteria?

    Answer: 95%

    Most post-sedation discharge criteria require SpO2 ≥95% on room air to ensure adequate oxygenation without supplemental support before the patient is discharged.