CRLS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRLS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A resident reports bed bugs. Which approach is considered best practice for the property? → Integrated pest management with inspection of adjacent units
2. Which factor can landlords legally consider when screening tenants? → Credit and rental history
3. Which federal law prohibits ALL racial discrimination in property transactions, with no exemptions? → Civil Rights Act of 1866
4. When facing an ethical dilemma, what is the recommended first step? → Identify all stakeholders affected and review applicable codes of conduct
5. When does positive leverage occur on a financed rental property? → When the property's cap rate exceeds the loan's mortgage constant
6. What is the generally recommended minimum height for a pool barrier fence under widely adopted residential pool safety codes? → 48 inches
7. A property with a 'no pets' policy receives a request for an assistance animal from an applicant with a non-obvious disability. What may the provider do? → Request reliable documentation of the disability-related need for the animal
8. Rising mortgage interest rates typically have what effect on the residential rental market? → Rental demand increases as fewer renters can afford to buy
9. What is the proper way to correct an error in professional documentation? → Draw a single line through the error, initial, date, and write the correction
10. Maintenance staff use cleaning chemicals and pool chemicals daily. Which OSHA standard requires Safety Data Sheets and employee training on these products? → Hazard Communication Standard
11. A leasing agent tells a family with children, "You'd probably be happier in Building C where the other families live." This is an example of: → Steering
12. Which of the following is an example of deferred maintenance? → Postponing HVAC servicing until the system fails
13. A landlord declines to renew the lease of a tenant who recently filed a fair housing complaint with HUD. Which FHA section is most likely violated? → Section 818, interference, coercion, or retaliation
14. A tenant asks the leasing agent if there have been past pest problems in a unit, and the agent knows of a recent bedbug treatment. What should the agent do? → Honestly disclose the known treatment history
15. Which of the following is a common incentive offered to encourage lease renewals? → Offering one month of reduced rent or a small upgrade to the unit
16. How far in advance should a leasing specialist typically initiate the lease renewal process with a tenant? → 60 to 90 days before the lease expiration date
17. A community has 200 units, 10 vacant units, and 8 residents who have given notice to vacate with no pre-leases. What is the exposure count? → 18
18. What is the main purpose of a move-in condition report signed by both the resident and the manager? → To record the unit's starting condition and support any later deposit deductions
19. How long does a person generally have to file a private Fair Housing Act lawsuit in federal court? → 2 years
20. An electronic signature on a residential lease is generally: → Legally valid under the federal E-SIGN Act and state UETA laws
21. How often should compliance procedures be reviewed and updated? → Regularly, and whenever regulations change or new risks are identified
22. A property offers self-guided tours using smart locks. Which step is most important before granting a prospect a temporary access code? → Verifying the prospect's identity, such as with a photo ID check
23. Which leasing strategy is most effective at reducing turnover costs? → A proactive renewal program starting 90-120 days before lease expiration
24. A manager receives two management fees—one from the owner and one from the tenant—for the same lease. When is this permissible? → Only with informed consent of all parties
25. Which feature of a property management platform most directly reduces late rent payments? → Automatic recurring ACH payments with reminders
26. Within how many days after receiving an adverse action notice can an applicant request a free copy of their consumer report? → 60 days
27. A property has operating expenses of $200,000, annual debt service of $300,000, and gross potential income of $625,000. What is the break-even occupancy? → 80%
28. What is the appropriate action when discovering a colleague has violated professional standards? → Report through proper channels as outlined in the code of ethics
29. When should a leasing agent ask qualifying questions such as desired move-in date and budget? → Early in the first contact, applied consistently to every prospect
30. Closing a community pool permanently because of high liability is an example of: → Risk avoidance