CPS Risk & Performance 2

Question 1

A process owner notices that cycle time variability has increased over the past quarter despite no change in inputs. Which risk response strategy best addresses this situation?

Accepted Answer

Investigate root causes and implement controls to reduce variability

Answer

Increased variability with stable inputs signals an emerging process risk that requires root cause analysis and corrective controls.

Question 2

Which KPI most directly measures the effectiveness of a risk mitigation plan implemented in a business process?

Accepted Answer

Reduction in the frequency and severity of identified risk events

Answer

An effective mitigation plan should reduce both how often and how severely risk events occur, making that the primary effectiveness measure.

Question 3

In a risk heat map, a risk plotted in the upper-right quadrant requires which treatment priority?

Accepted Answer

High priority — immediate mitigation action required

Answer

The upper-right quadrant of a heat map represents high likelihood and high impact, demanding immediate and active mitigation.

Question 4

A CPS practitioner is asked to select a leading indicator for process performance. Which of the following qualifies as a leading indicator?

Accepted Answer

Supplier quality audit score obtained before production begins

Answer

A leading indicator predicts future performance; a pre-production supplier audit score signals quality risk before defects occur.

Question 5

When conducting a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA), the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is calculated as:

Accepted Answer

Severity × Occurrence × Detection

Answer

RPN = Severity × Occurrence × Detection, giving a composite score to prioritize which failure modes need corrective action first.

(CPS) Certified Process Specialist Practice Test

(CPS) Certified Process Specialist Practice Test

CPS Risk & Performance 2