AIP Certified Parliamentarian (CP) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The chair must rule an amendment out of order when it is:

Too long to read aloud
Opposed by more than one-third of members
Contrary to the motion's stated purpose
Not germane to the main motion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Not germane to the main motion

An amendment must be germane—directly related to the subject of the motion it amends; non-germane amendments are ruled out of order.

Question 2: A CP is hired to conduct a parliamentary procedure training workshop and realizes the client expects the training to be biased toward the majority faction's positions. The CP should:

Cancel the workshop without explanation
Conduct the training as requested since the client sets the curriculum
Teach correct procedure while subtly favoring the majority to satisfy the client
Clarify that training will present parliamentary law impartially and decline if the client insists on biased content (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clarify that training will present parliamentary law impartially and decline if the client insists on biased content

Training must present parliamentary law accurately and impartially; agreeing to deliver biased training undermines professional integrity.

Question 3: What should the chairperson do if the governing documents are silent on a procedural issue?

Delay the meeting until clarification is received.
Make a decision based on personal preference.
Ignore the issue and proceed with the meeting.
Consult external sources, like Robert’s Rules of Order (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Consult external sources, like Robert’s Rules of Order

If an organization's governing documents are silent on a particular procedural issue, it should refer to its adopted parliamentary authority, such as Robert's Rules of Order Newly Revised. This external source provides comprehensive rules for situations not covered by the organization's specific bylaws or standing rules. Relying on a recognized authority ensures consistency and fairness in procedural matters.

Question 4: The term 'abstain' in voting means a member:

Votes no by silence
Does not vote at all (Correct answer)
Casts a blank ballot
Delegates their vote

Correct answer: Does not vote at all

An abstention means the member declines to cast any vote; they are present but choose not to participate in the decision.

Question 5: A 'primary amendment' amends:

The agenda
The governing documents
Another amendment already pending
The main motion directly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The main motion directly

A primary amendment modifies the main motion directly; a secondary amendment modifies the primary amendment.

Question 6: Which motion is used to bring a matter that was previously tabled back before the assembly?

Motion to discharge a committee
Motion to reconsider
Motion to take from the table (Correct answer)
Motion to rescind

Correct answer: Motion to take from the table

The motion to take from the table is the proper mechanism to resume consideration of a tabled motion.

Question 7: The right of a member to 'appeal from the decision of the chair' applies to rulings on:

Parliamentary procedure questions only
Only voting procedure decisions
Credentialing and quorum decisions only
Any ruling by the chair except those required by the bylaws (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Any ruling by the chair except those required by the bylaws

An appeal can be taken from any ruling by the chair, except rulings that are merely executing a clear bylaw requirement without any discretionary judgment.

Question 8: When the presiding officer states 'the ayes have it,' a member immediately calls 'Division!' The chair must:

Require the member to submit a written request
Rule the call out of order as dilatory
Order a standing or counted vote (Correct answer)
Ignore the call if satisfied with the voice vote result

Correct answer: Order a standing or counted vote

A call for division is a demand for a more verifiable vote and the chair must conduct a standing or counted vote.

Question 9: Which of the following describes 'informal consideration' as a simplified alternative to a committee of the whole?

The assembly debates without any motion pending
The chair permits open floor discussion outside the agenda
Members gather informally before the meeting to debate
The assembly agrees to consider a matter as if in committee without formal procedure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The assembly agrees to consider a matter as if in committee without formal procedure

Informal consideration allows the assembly to discuss a matter under relaxed rules without formally going into a committee of the whole.

Question 10: An amendment to 'substitute' replaces:

A nominee with a different candidate
The entire pending motion with a completely different motion (Correct answer)
One word with another word
A section of the bylaws with updated language

Correct answer: The entire pending motion with a completely different motion

A substitute amendment replaces the entire text of the pending motion or a major section of it with entirely new language.

Question 11: Which action violates a parliamentarian's ethical duty of honesty?

Citing a parliamentary authority incorrectly to support a client's preferred outcome (Correct answer)
Acknowledging uncertainty about an obscure rule and promising to research it
Recommending a bylaw revision the client did not request
Charging a higher fee for urgent engagements

Correct answer: Citing a parliamentary authority incorrectly to support a client's preferred outcome

Misrepresenting parliamentary authority to achieve a client's preferred outcome is a direct violation of the duty of honesty.

Question 12: A 'recess' differs from 'adjournment' in that:

A recess requires a motion; adjournment does not
A recess automatically carries over all pending business to the next meeting
Adjournment requires a two-thirds vote; recess does not
A recess is a temporary break; adjournment ends the meeting entirely (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A recess is a temporary break; adjournment ends the meeting entirely

A recess pauses the meeting temporarily; the assembly resumes from the same point. Adjournment closes the meeting and business resumes only at the next meeting.

Question 13: The presiding officer is in the middle of presenting a report when a fire alarm sounds. The most appropriate action is:

Put the question of evacuation to a majority vote
Declare an emergency recess and direct members to exit safely (Correct answer)
Transfer presiding duties to the vice president before evacuating
Complete the report before responding to the alarm

Correct answer: Declare an emergency recess and direct members to exit safely

Safety emergencies supersede parliamentary protocol; the chair should immediately declare a recess and ensure the safety of members.

Question 14: What is the purpose of a motion to amend in parliamentary procedure?

To change the content of a motion before voting (Correct answer)
To amend the agenda for the next meeting.
To withdraw a motion from consideration.
To modify a motion after it has been seconded.

Correct answer: To change the content of a motion before voting

A motion to amend is used to modify the wording or substance of a main motion that is currently under consideration. This allows members to refine proposals, correct errors, or improve the motion's clarity or effectiveness before a final vote is taken. Amendments ensure that the final decision accurately reflects the will of the assembly.

Question 15: A 'point of order' must be raised:

Only by the parliamentarian
At the time the breach occurs, or promptly thereafter (Correct answer)
Before the meeting is called to order
Only during new business

Correct answer: At the time the breach occurs, or promptly thereafter

A point of order must be raised promptly at the time the rule is violated; waiting too long may be interpreted as a waiver of the breach.

Question 16: When an organization's constitution is silent on a procedure, what is the correct course of action?

The matter is left to the chair's sole discretion
The organization's parliamentary authority fills the gap (Correct answer)
The procedure cannot be performed until the constitution is amended
A special committee must be formed to create a rule

Correct answer: The organization's parliamentary authority fills the gap

When governing documents are silent on a procedure, the organization's adopted parliamentary authority (such as RONR) provides the applicable rules.

Question 17: A 'special order' differs from a 'general order' in that a special order:

Is used only for constitutional amendments
Interrupts any pending business at the time specified (Correct answer)
Must be adopted by a two-thirds vote each time it is considered
Can be set only by unanimous consent

Correct answer: Interrupts any pending business at the time specified

A special order is given priority such that it interrupts any pending business when its designated time arrives, unlike a general order which waits until the floor is clear.

Question 18: The motion to 'ratify' is used to:

Formally end a trial proceeding
Approve minutes at the beginning of a meeting
Confirm an action taken without proper authority that the assembly can legally approve (Correct answer)
Adopt a substitute version of a pending motion

Correct answer: Confirm an action taken without proper authority that the assembly can legally approve

Ratification validates an action taken outside of a meeting or without proper authority, binding the organization to that action retroactively.

Question 19: An organization's bylaws require notice for bylaw amendments but do not specify the notice period. What applies?

The parliamentary authority's requirement for previous notice applies (Correct answer)
The assembly votes on the required notice period each time
A minimum of 60 days notice is always required by law
No advance notice is required since the bylaws don't specify

Correct answer: The parliamentary authority's requirement for previous notice applies

When the bylaws require notice but do not specify a period, the parliamentary authority's provisions on previous notice govern.

Question 20: A bylaw provision states that the organization 'shall hold monthly meetings.' What is the effect if a monthly meeting is cancelled?

The provision is directory, not jurisdictional, so business continues normally
The organization is technically in violation of its bylaws (Correct answer)
Cancellation automatically triggers a special meeting requirement
All actions at the next meeting are void

Correct answer: The organization is technically in violation of its bylaws

Mandatory meeting language in bylaws means the organization is obligated to hold those meetings, and failing to do so is a technical bylaw violation.

Question 21: When a motion to Reconsider is made, which condition must be met regarding who makes the motion?

Any member may make it at any time
Only the chair may initiate reconsideration
It must be made by a member who voted on the prevailing side (Correct answer)
It must be seconded by the original mover

Correct answer: It must be made by a member who voted on the prevailing side

Under RONR, only a member who voted on the prevailing side may move to Reconsider a vote.

Question 22: What is the purpose of a second to a motion?

To delay the decision on the motion.
To show support for the motion and allow discussion (Correct answer)
To prevent discussion on the motion.
To automatically approve the motion.

Correct answer: To show support for the motion and allow discussion

The purpose of a second to a motion is to indicate that at least one other member besides the mover believes the motion is worthy of discussion by the assembly. It doesn't signify agreement with the motion, but rather that it should be brought before the group for consideration. A motion without a second generally dies for lack of support and cannot be debated or voted upon.

Question 23: Which sanction does NOT require a formal trial under RONR?

Removal from office
Suspension of membership rights for more than six months
Expulsion from membership
Censure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Censure

Censure—a formal expression of disapproval—does not deprive a member of rights and therefore does not require a formal trial.

Question 24: A quorum is defined as the minimum number of members that must be present to:

Elect officers
Amend the bylaws
Legally transact business (Correct answer)
Adopt a budget

Correct answer: Legally transact business

A quorum is the minimum number of members whose presence is required for the body to legally transact business.

Question 25: When interpreting a bylaw that was adopted before the current parliamentary authority was adopted, what rule applies?

The provision is interpreted under the parliamentary authority in effect when it was adopted
The provision is void because of the inconsistency
The provision is interpreted under the currently adopted parliamentary authority (Correct answer)
The provision must be re-adopted to be valid under the new parliamentary authority

Correct answer: The provision is interpreted under the currently adopted parliamentary authority

Governing documents are interpreted in light of the currently adopted parliamentary authority, not the one in effect when the provision was written.

Question 26: A presiding officer who repeatedly rules in favor of one faction and refuses to recognize opposing members may be removed from the chair by:

A majority vote on a motion to declare the chair vacant
A two-thirds vote on a motion to remove the officer from presiding for the remainder of the session (Correct answer)
Only through formal disciplinary proceedings under the bylaws
A point of order that automatically transfers duties to the vice president

Correct answer: A two-thirds vote on a motion to remove the officer from presiding for the remainder of the session

An assembly may remove a presiding officer from the chair for the remainder of a session by a two-thirds vote, separate from any formal disciplinary process.

Question 27: In a committee meeting, what rule about quorum differs from a full assembly meeting?

Committees do not require quorum to meet informally
Committees may not waive quorum requirements
Committee quorum equals one-third of members
Committee quorum is always a majority of members, not a fixed number (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Committee quorum is always a majority of members, not a fixed number

Unless the governing documents specify otherwise, committee quorum is a majority of the committee's membership.

Question 28: A member accused of an offense that could result in expulsion is entitled to:

Removal by executive committee vote without hearing
Automatic suspension pending board review
A formal trial with notice of charges and an opportunity to be heard (Correct answer)
An immediate vote of the full membership

Correct answer: A formal trial with notice of charges and an opportunity to be heard

Due process requires that a member facing expulsion receive written notice of charges and a fair opportunity to defend themselves before a vote.

Question 29: A CP discovers that minutes they were asked to review were altered after approval to reflect a decision never actually made. The ethical response is to:

Certify the minutes as presented to maintain client relations
Rewrite the minutes independently
Contact the opposing party in any related dispute directly
Refuse to certify and advise the organization to correct the record through proper amendment procedures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Refuse to certify and advise the organization to correct the record through proper amendment procedures

Certifying falsified minutes would implicate the parliamentarian in dishonesty; proper channels exist to correct the official record.

Question 30: Under RONR, what notice is generally required before a special meeting can be held?

A quorum of members must consent in person to the meeting
No notice is required for special meetings
Reasonable notice as defined by the bylaws, sent to all members (Correct answer)
At least 24 hours written notice to all members

Correct answer: Reasonable notice as defined by the bylaws, sent to all members

The bylaws should specify the required notice for special meetings; if silent, reasonable notice must be given to all members with the stated purpose.

AIP Certified Parliamentarian (CP)

The Certified Parliamentarian credential from the American Institute of Parliamentarians tests comprehensive knowledge of parliamentary procedure including Robert's Rules of Order, motions and voting, debate, committees, governing documents, and professional ethics.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

80%

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