AIP Certified Parliamentarian (CP) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the parliamentary term for the procedure that allows the assembly to 'undo' an action taken at a previous meeting?
- Repeal
- Rescind (Correct answer)
- Reconsider
- Reverse
Correct answer: Rescind
The motion to rescind strikes out an action taken at a prior meeting; the motion to reconsider applies only within the same meeting.
Question 2: The bylaws specify that the president 'shall appoint all committee chairs.' At a meeting, the assembly votes to elect the chairs instead. What is the effect?
- The president may choose to honor or void the election at their discretion
- The chairs serve provisionally pending ratification by the president
- The election is valid if approved by a two-thirds vote
- The election is void because it usurps a power vested in the president by the bylaws (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The election is void because it usurps a power vested in the president by the bylaws
A bylaw vesting the appointment power in the president cannot be overridden by an assembly motion; doing so would be null and void.
Question 3: Which of these is a valid way to limit or extend debate beyond RONR defaults?
- A simple majority vote
- A ruling by the parliamentarian
- Adoption of a consent agenda
- Unanimous consent or a two-thirds vote (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Unanimous consent or a two-thirds vote
Debate may be limited or extended either by a two-thirds vote or, if no one objects, by unanimous consent.
Question 4: When a presiding officer announces the result of a vote incorrectly, the proper remedy is:
- A motion to reconsider the vote
- A point of order raised by any member (Correct answer)
- A motion to rescind the announced result
- Filing a written objection with the secretary
Correct answer: A point of order raised by any member
A point of order is the correct tool to challenge an erroneous ruling or announcement by the chair.
Question 5: When a member is speaking and another member interrupts with a 'point of personal privilege,' the chair should:
- Immediately recognize the interrupting member to state the point (Correct answer)
- Rule it out of order during debate
- Require the motion to be submitted in writing first
- Ignore the interruption until the speaker yields
Correct answer: Immediately recognize the interrupting member to state the point
A point of personal privilege may interrupt a speaker because it concerns the comfort or rights of a member and must be addressed promptly.
Question 6: A committee is given authority in the bylaws to 'recommend' action on a matter. Can the committee instead take final action on that matter?
- Only if the bylaws do not specifically prohibit final action
- Yes, if all committee members are present and vote unanimously
- Yes, with approval of the executive director
- No, the committee's authority is limited to making recommendations to the assembly (Correct answer)
Correct answer: No, the committee's authority is limited to making recommendations to the assembly
A committee authorized only to 'recommend' lacks authority to take final action; that power remains with the body that created the committee.
Question 7: Under RONR, an officer may be removed from office by the assembly if:
- A majority of the membership signs a petition
- The bylaws provide for removal or the assembly has inherent power to do so (Correct answer)
- Two consecutive meetings are missed without excuse
- The board recommends removal
Correct answer: The bylaws provide for removal or the assembly has inherent power to do so
The assembly may remove an officer if authorized by the bylaws or, where bylaws are silent, by the assembly's inherent authority over those it elects.
Question 8: When a CP is asked to testify as an expert witness in litigation involving a former client, what ethical consideration is paramount?
- Confidentiality obligations to the former client must be respected unless legally compelled to testify (Correct answer)
- Expert witness fees waive all prior confidentiality duties
- The CP must refuse all expert witness roles
- Loyalty to the former client overrides all other duties
Correct answer: Confidentiality obligations to the former client must be respected unless legally compelled to testify
Confidentiality duties to former clients persist and must be carefully weighed against any legal compulsion to testify.
Question 9: During the reports section of the order of business, in what sequence should reports normally be presented?
- Officers, then boards and standing committees, then special committees (Correct answer)
- Committees, then boards, then officers
- Special committees, then standing committees, then officers
- The chair may call on reporters in any order preferred
Correct answer: Officers, then boards and standing committees, then special committees
RONR prescribes the sequence: reports of officers first, then boards, then standing committees, and finally special committees, though the assembly may vary this order.
Question 10: Under RONR, how should a committee handle a matter that exceeds its delegated authority?
- Expand its own authority by committee vote
- Table the matter until the next meeting
- Act on it anyway if it serves the organization's interests
- Return the matter to the assembly with a recommendation but without acting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Return the matter to the assembly with a recommendation but without acting
A committee must stay within delegated authority and should report back to the assembly for direction on matters beyond its mandate.
Question 11: Which sanction does NOT require a formal trial under RONR?
- Removal from office
- Expulsion from membership
- Suspension of membership rights for more than six months
- Censure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Censure
Censure—a formal expression of disapproval—does not deprive a member of rights and therefore does not require a formal trial.
Question 12: An organization's presiding officer persistently interrupts members during debate in violation of their rights. What is the appropriate ethical and procedural response for the parliamentarian?
- File a formal complaint with NAP immediately
- Privately advise the chair on the proper rules respecting members' debate rights (Correct answer)
- Remain silent to avoid embarrassing the chair
- Publicly correct the chair each time before the assembly
Correct answer: Privately advise the chair on the proper rules respecting members' debate rights
Parliamentarians advise the chair privately to protect member rights while preserving the chair's authority and dignity.
Question 13: When the assembly 'strikes and inserts' in an amendment, it:
- Deletes a section and inserts a new section in its place
- All of the above
- Deletes certain words and substitutes new ones in a single action (Correct answer)
- First strikes all text then inserts completely new text
Correct answer: Deletes certain words and substitutes new ones in a single action
Strike and insert is an amendment that simultaneously removes specified words and replaces them with new language in one motion.
Question 14: What is the effect of a successful appeal from the chair's decision?
- The assembly's decision overrules the chair's ruling (Correct answer)
- The appeal is noted in the minutes but the ruling stands
- The matter is referred to the parliamentarian for final decision
- The chair must resign
Correct answer: The assembly's decision overrules the chair's ruling
A successful appeal reverses the chair's ruling and substitutes the assembly's judgment for the chair's on the parliamentary question.
Question 15: What is a motion in parliamentary procedure?
- A suggestion made by the chairperson.
- A formal proposal made for discussion and vote (Correct answer)
- A casual conversation between members.
- A directive issued by the president.
Correct answer: A formal proposal made for discussion and vote
In parliamentary procedure, a motion is a formal proposal made by a member for the group to consider, discuss, and ultimately vote upon. It is the mechanism by which an assembly introduces new business or takes action on existing matters. Once a motion is properly made and seconded, it becomes the subject of debate and decision.
Question 16: A CP advises an organization that a proposed bylaw amendment is procedurally valid. The amendment later proves to have an unintended harmful effect. The CP's ethical exposure depends primarily on:
- Whether the CP charged a fee for the advice
- Whether the amendment required a two-thirds or majority vote
- Whether the organization has errors-and-omissions insurance
- Whether the CP's advice was accurate as to procedure and given in good faith based on available information (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Whether the CP's advice was accurate as to procedure and given in good faith based on available information
A parliamentarian's ethical responsibility is to give honest, competent procedural advice in good faith; they are not guarantors of outcomes.
Question 17: Under RONR, which officer is primarily responsible for sending out notices of meetings to members?
- President
- Parliamentarian
- Treasurer
- Secretary (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Secretary
The secretary is responsible for sending meeting notices, maintaining the membership roll, and handling official correspondence on behalf of the organization.
Question 18: Which of the following motions can be used to bring back a motion that was laid on the table?
- Discharge the committee
- Take from the table (Correct answer)
- Reconsider
- Rescind
Correct answer: Take from the table
The motion to take from the table resumes consideration of a matter that was previously laid on the table.
Question 19: What is the purpose of a recess during a meeting?
- To provide time for members to regroup and resume work (Correct answer)
- To avoid dealing with difficult topics.
- To end the meeting early.
- To cancel the meeting.
Correct answer: To provide time for members to regroup and resume work
A recess is a temporary break in a meeting, allowing members to rest, consult, or attend to other matters without ending the meeting entirely. Its purpose is to facilitate continued work by providing a brief pause for regrouping. This temporary suspension helps maintain productivity and focus when the meeting reconvenes, rather than concluding or avoiding topics.
Question 20: Under RONR, what is the effect of an action taken by a board that exceeded its authority as defined in the bylaws?
- The action is null and void and may be declared so at any time (Correct answer)
- The action stands until overturned by a two-thirds vote
- The action is valid unless challenged within 30 days
- The action requires ratification by the membership to become void
Correct answer: The action is null and void and may be declared so at any time
Actions that are beyond the authority granted by the governing documents are null and void and can be challenged at any time.
Question 21: Which officer is responsible for referring matters to the appropriate standing committee?
- Parliamentarian
- President/Chair (Correct answer)
- Treasurer
- Secretary
Correct answer: President/Chair
The president or presiding officer typically has authority to refer matters to committees consistent with the bylaws and rules.
Question 22: A 'minority report' may be presented when:
- The committee chair disagrees with the majority
- The committee failed to reach quorum
- One or more committee members dissent from the majority recommendation (Correct answer)
- The full assembly overrides the committee
Correct answer: One or more committee members dissent from the majority recommendation
A minority report, signed by one or more dissenting committee members, presents an alternative recommendation to the assembly.
Question 23: What is the role of bylaws in governing documents?
- To govern only the financial transactions of the organization.
- To establish the foundational rules for the organization’s operation (Correct answer)
- To set specific rules for the election of members.
- To provide guidelines for meeting decorum.
Correct answer: To establish the foundational rules for the organization’s operation
Bylaws are a crucial component of an organization's governing documents, serving as its fundamental rulebook. They define the organization's purpose, membership, officers' duties, meeting procedures, and how amendments can be made. These foundational rules dictate how the organization is structured and operates, ensuring consistency and stability.
Question 24: Which principle applies when two provisions of the same bylaw article appear to conflict?
- Both provisions are void and must be re-drafted
- The specific provision controls over the general provision (Correct answer)
- The earlier provision controls as it was the original intent
- The later provision repeals the earlier one by implication
Correct answer: The specific provision controls over the general provision
A well-established rule of document interpretation is that the specific provision controls over a general provision on the same subject.
Question 25: Which of the following motions takes precedence over all other motions?
- Adjourn
- Call for the Orders of the Day
- Recess
- Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn
Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn is the highest-ranking privileged motion and takes precedence over all other motions.
Question 26: An organization's bylaws set quorum at 'twenty members.' If 22 members attend but 3 leave during the meeting, what is the quorum status?
- Quorum is lost and business must stop immediately
- Quorum is unaffected because it was present at the start
- The chair may continue the meeting at their discretion
- Business already transacted remains valid but no new business may be conducted (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Business already transacted remains valid but no new business may be conducted
Once quorum is lost, previously transacted business stands but the assembly must either secure quorum or adjourn before taking further action.
Question 27: A 'point of order' must be raised:
- Only during new business
- Only by the parliamentarian
- At the time the breach occurs, or promptly thereafter (Correct answer)
- Before the meeting is called to order
Correct answer: At the time the breach occurs, or promptly thereafter
A point of order must be raised promptly at the time the rule is violated; waiting too long may be interpreted as a waiver of the breach.
Question 28: What should the chairperson do if a vote is tied?
- Cast the deciding vote or follow the organization's procedure (Correct answer)
- Allow the motion to be reconsidered immediately.
- Declare the motion passed.
- Postpone the vote until the next meeting.
Correct answer: Cast the deciding vote or follow the organization's procedure
If a vote is tied, the chairperson typically has the authority to cast the deciding vote, or the organization's specific rules of procedure may dictate an alternative course of action. This mechanism is crucial for resolving deadlocks and allowing the assembly to reach a definitive decision on a motion. The chairperson's vote ensures that business can proceed.
Question 29: The correct term for an officer who continues serving after their term has expired because no successor was elected is:
- Interim officer
- Acting officer
- Holdover officer (Correct answer)
- Pro tempore officer
Correct answer: Holdover officer
A holdover officer continues in office after their term expires until a successor is duly elected and qualifies.
Question 30: A member rises and says, 'I move we adjourn.' Before a vote is taken, another member calls out 'I object to consideration.' The chair should:
- Sustain the objection since adjournment is disruptive
- Table the motion to adjourn pending the objection
- Rule the objection out of order because adjournment is privileged (Correct answer)
- Allow debate on whether to consider adjourning
Correct answer: Rule the objection out of order because adjournment is privileged
The objection to consideration only applies to main motions; the privileged motion to adjourn cannot be subjected to an objection to consideration.
Question 31: Under RONR, can a member of the nominating committee be nominated for office?
- Yes, but they must resign from the committee first
- Only if they were appointed, not elected, to the committee
- No, committee members are ineligible to be nominated
- Yes, without any restriction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Yes, without any restriction
RONR places no restriction on nominating committee members being nominated; however, bylaws may impose such a restriction.
Question 32: Under RONR, how many times may a member speak to the same question during one day without special permission?
- Unlimited, subject to the chair's discretion
- Once
- Three times
- Twice (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Twice
RONR limits each member to two speeches on the same question on the same day, each not exceeding ten minutes, unless the rules are suspended.
Question 33: An amendment to 'substitute' replaces:
- One word with another word
- The entire pending motion with a completely different motion (Correct answer)
- A nominee with a different candidate
- A section of the bylaws with updated language
Correct answer: The entire pending motion with a completely different motion
A substitute amendment replaces the entire text of the pending motion or a major section of it with entirely new language.
Question 34: An organization's charter grants certain powers. The bylaws attempt to restrict one of those charter powers. What is the result?
- Both documents are equally authoritative and the board decides
- The bylaw restriction controls as the more specific document
- The bylaw restriction is void because the charter supersedes the bylaws (Correct answer)
- The bylaw restriction is valid if adopted by a two-thirds vote
Correct answer: The bylaw restriction is void because the charter supersedes the bylaws
The charter (or corporate articles) is the highest governing document and bylaws cannot validly restrict powers granted by the charter.
Question 35: When the bylaws authorize a board to 'fill vacancies,' does this include filling a vacancy in an elective office?
- Yes, unless the bylaws specifically exclude elective offices (Correct answer)
- No, filling elected offices always requires a membership vote
- Yes, but the board's appointment must be confirmed at the next meeting
- Only if the vacancy occurs during the last quarter of the term
Correct answer: Yes, unless the bylaws specifically exclude elective offices
A bylaw grant to fill vacancies is interpreted to include elective offices unless the bylaws specifically carve them out.
Question 36: Under RONR, what notice is generally required before a special meeting can be held?
- No notice is required for special meetings
- At least 24 hours written notice to all members
- A quorum of members must consent in person to the meeting
- Reasonable notice as defined by the bylaws, sent to all members (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reasonable notice as defined by the bylaws, sent to all members
The bylaws should specify the required notice for special meetings; if silent, reasonable notice must be given to all members with the stated purpose.
Question 37: A 'special order' differs from a 'general order' in that a special order:
- Is used only for constitutional amendments
- Can be set only by unanimous consent
- Must be adopted by a two-thirds vote each time it is considered
- Interrupts any pending business at the time specified (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Interrupts any pending business at the time specified
A special order is given priority such that it interrupts any pending business when its designated time arrives, unlike a general order which waits until the floor is clear.
Question 38: A bylaws provision requires a 'majority of the board' to approve contracts. The board has 9 members and 2 seats are vacant. What constitutes a majority?
- 5 members (majority of the full authorized board)
- A majority of current membership, which is 5 of 7 (Correct answer)
- A majority of those voting, excluding abstentions
- 4 members (majority of those present at a duly called meeting)
Correct answer: A majority of current membership, which is 5 of 7
When the bylaws require a majority of the board, it typically means a majority of the current membership of the board, not the authorized maximum size.
Question 39: Under RONR, which statement about motions to 'close debate' (previous question) is accurate?
- When ordered, it applies to immediately pending question only, unless it specifies otherwise (Correct answer)
- It requires unanimous consent to be in order
- It may be debated briefly before being voted upon
- It can be applied to a committee report without affecting amendments
Correct answer: When ordered, it applies to immediately pending question only, unless it specifies otherwise
Unless the motion specifies, the previous question applies only to the immediately pending question, not to related pending motions.
Question 40: What happens to pending business if a meeting adjourns without completing the agenda?
- The secretary must re-introduce every item in the same order
- Unfinished business and general orders carry over to the next regular meeting (Correct answer)
- The chair may rule that any item is dropped if not reached
- All pending business is lost and must be re-introduced at the next meeting
Correct answer: Unfinished business and general orders carry over to the next regular meeting
Business that was pending or on the agenda but not reached automatically becomes unfinished business or a general order at the next regular meeting.
Question 41: A motion to 'postpone to a definite time' differs from 'lay on the table' primarily in that:
- Postpone can be used to kill a motion; tabling cannot
- Table is debatable; postpone is not
- Postpone sets a specific future time; tabling has no set time for resumption (Correct answer)
- Postpone requires a two-thirds vote; table requires a majority
Correct answer: Postpone sets a specific future time; tabling has no set time for resumption
Postpone to a definite time sets a fixed future date/time to resume consideration, whereas laying on the table sets no specific time and may never be taken up again.
Question 42: How does a parliamentarian interpret conflicting rules within governing documents?
- By prioritizing the most recent or specific rules and considering fairness (Correct answer)
- By interpreting the rules based on the organization's goals.
- By ignoring the conflicting rules.
- By selecting the rules that favor one side over the other.
Correct answer: By prioritizing the most recent or specific rules and considering fairness
When conflicting rules arise, a parliamentarian must carefully interpret them to maintain order and fairness. Generally, more specific rules take precedence over general ones, and more recently adopted rules supersede older ones, assuming proper adoption. The interpretation should always align with the organization's overall objectives and ensure equitable treatment for all members.
Question 43: A CP who has been publicly critical of a particular organization on social media is later hired by that organization. The ethical obligation is to:
- Delete all prior posts before accepting the engagement
- Disclose the prior public statements to the client before finalizing the engagement (Correct answer)
- Proceed without disclosure since the engagement is a fresh start
- Disclose only if the client asks directly
Correct answer: Disclose the prior public statements to the client before finalizing the engagement
Prior public criticism creates a potential conflict that must be disclosed so the client can make an informed hiring decision.
Question 44: When a main motion is 'committed,' all pending amendments:
- Are voted on before committing
- Remain with the assembly for later vote
- Are automatically withdrawn
- Go to the committee along with the main motion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Go to the committee along with the main motion
When a main motion is referred to committee, all pending amendments go with it so the committee considers the full picture.
Question 45: When an organization's constitution is silent on a procedure, what is the correct course of action?
- The organization's parliamentary authority fills the gap (Correct answer)
- The matter is left to the chair's sole discretion
- A special committee must be formed to create a rule
- The procedure cannot be performed until the constitution is amended
Correct answer: The organization's parliamentary authority fills the gap
When governing documents are silent on a procedure, the organization's adopted parliamentary authority (such as RONR) provides the applicable rules.
Question 46: Which body typically conducts a formal disciplinary trial under RONR?
- The full assembly in open session
- A special investigating or trial committee (Correct answer)
- The parliamentarian acting as adjudicator
- The executive committee behind closed doors
Correct answer: A special investigating or trial committee
RONR recommends a special trial committee to conduct formal disciplinary proceedings, ensuring impartiality and due process.
Question 47: What is the role of the chairperson in ensuring member participation?
- To facilitate discussion and ensure all voices are heard (Correct answer)
- To allow only the most vocal members to speak.
- To dominate the conversation and make decisions.
- To prevent any members from speaking out of turn.
Correct answer: To facilitate discussion and ensure all voices are heard
The chairperson plays a vital role in ensuring member participation by facilitating discussion and ensuring all voices are heard. They should encourage quieter members to speak, manage speaking times, and prevent any single individual from dominating the conversation. This promotes an inclusive environment where diverse perspectives contribute to better decision-making.
Question 48: A motion is made that contradicts the organization's standing rules. What should the chair do?
- Table the motion pending a bylaws review
- Allow the motion and let the assembly decide
- Refer the motion to the executive board
- Rule the motion out of order (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Rule the motion out of order
The chair must rule a motion out of order if it conflicts with the organization's standing rules or other governing documents.
Question 49: What must a CP disclose before accepting an engagement with a new client whose interests may conflict with an existing client?
- Only the name of the existing client
- Nothing, as each client relationship is confidential
- The conflict of interest, so both clients can give informed consent or the parliamentarian can decline (Correct answer)
- The fee structure of the prior engagement
Correct answer: The conflict of interest, so both clients can give informed consent or the parliamentarian can decline
Ethical practice requires full disclosure of conflicts of interest so clients can make informed decisions about representation.
Question 50: Which best describes the difference between a parliamentarian's ethical duty of confidentiality and a lawyer's attorney-client privilege?
- They are legally identical under federal law
- Parliamentarian confidentiality is stronger because it is codified in NAP bylaws
- Parliamentarian confidentiality is an ethical professional obligation, not a legal privilege protecting against compelled disclosure (Correct answer)
- Attorney-client privilege does not apply to governance matters, but parliamentarian privilege does
Correct answer: Parliamentarian confidentiality is an ethical professional obligation, not a legal privilege protecting against compelled disclosure
Unlike attorney-client privilege, parliamentarian confidentiality is an ethical standard, not a legally recognized privilege shielding disclosures in court.
Question 51: What is the role of the chairperson in parliamentary procedure?
- To make decisions for all members.
- To prevent any discussions.
- To lead the meeting and enforce the rules (Correct answer)
- To speak on behalf of the members.
Correct answer: To lead the meeting and enforce the rules
The chairperson's role in parliamentary procedure is to lead the meeting and enforce the rules fairly and impartially. They are responsible for maintaining order, recognizing speakers, stating motions, and ensuring that discussions remain relevant and respectful. The chairperson guides the group through the agenda, facilitating decision-making while upholding the principles of democratic process.
Question 52: During a meeting a non-member guest asks permission to speak on a pending motion. Under standard parliamentary procedure the proper way to grant this is:
- A two-thirds vote specifically called a 'vote of confidence'
- Written permission obtained before the meeting
- The chair's unilateral discretion without any vote
- A simple majority vote to suspend the rules or grant unanimous consent (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A simple majority vote to suspend the rules or grant unanimous consent
Allowing a non-member to speak requires either a suspension of the rules or unanimous consent of the assembly.
Question 53: What is the role of a 'reference committee' commonly used in large conventions?
- Manage convention logistics and scheduling
- Hear testimony and refine resolutions before floor debate (Correct answer)
- Tabulate election results
- Credential and seat delegates
Correct answer: Hear testimony and refine resolutions before floor debate
Reference committees receive proposed resolutions, hold hearings, and present refined recommendations to the full convention for debate and action.
Question 54: Which statement best describes the chair's role when a motion to 'suspend the rules' is made?
- The chair states the purpose, takes the vote, and enforces the two-thirds requirement (Correct answer)
- The chair may deny the motion if it conflicts with the bylaws
- The chair must table all pending business before entertaining the motion
- The chair has discretion to approve minor rule suspensions without a vote
Correct answer: The chair states the purpose, takes the vote, and enforces the two-thirds requirement
The chair must properly state the motion, explain what rule is being suspended, and require the two-thirds vote needed for adoption.
Question 55: A 'primary amendment' amends:
- The main motion directly (Correct answer)
- The governing documents
- Another amendment already pending
- The agenda
Correct answer: The main motion directly
A primary amendment modifies the main motion directly; a secondary amendment modifies the primary amendment.
Question 56: What is the role of a point of order in a meeting?
- To call attention to a violation of the rules (Correct answer)
- To interrupt the speaker and change the subject.
- To delay the meeting until further notice.
- To stop a vote from taking place.
Correct answer: To call attention to a violation of the rules
A point of order is a procedural motion used by a member to call the chairperson's attention to a breach of the rules of order or the organization's governing documents. It allows members to ensure that the meeting is conducted fairly and according to established procedures. The chairperson must immediately address a point of order and rule on it.
Question 57: The purpose of 'previous notice' in parliamentary procedure is to:
- Require a second reading of all motions
- Protect absentees by ensuring important decisions are not made without advance warning (Correct answer)
- Warn the chair of upcoming controversial motions
- Give the secretary time to record motions properly
Correct answer: Protect absentees by ensuring important decisions are not made without advance warning
Previous notice protects members who are absent by ensuring they have a chance to attend or communicate their views on significant matters.
Question 58: A 'friendly amendment' under strict parliamentary procedure is:
- Adopted by unanimous consent
- Allowed only in committee, not the full assembly
- Automatically adopted if the mover consents
- Not recognized—all amendments must follow regular procedure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Not recognized—all amendments must follow regular procedure
Strict parliamentary law does not recognize 'friendly amendments'; once a motion is before the assembly, it belongs to the assembly and requires formal amendment procedure.
Question 59: How should a parliamentarian handle a situation where a motion is out of order?
- Inform the chairperson and advise the motion cannot be considered (Correct answer)
- Ignore the error and continue with the discussion.
- Allow the motion to be debated, even if out of order.
- Allow the motion to proceed regardless of the error.
Correct answer: Inform the chairperson and advise the motion cannot be considered
If a motion is out of order, meaning it violates the rules of the organization or parliamentary procedure, the parliamentarian's role is to advise the chairperson. The chairperson, upon receiving this advice, should then rule the motion out of order, preventing its consideration. This upholds the established rules and maintains the integrity of the meeting process.
Question 60: The right of a member to 'appeal from the decision of the chair' applies to rulings on:
- Only voting procedure decisions
- Credentialing and quorum decisions only
- Any ruling by the chair except those required by the bylaws (Correct answer)
- Parliamentary procedure questions only
Correct answer: Any ruling by the chair except those required by the bylaws
An appeal can be taken from any ruling by the chair, except rulings that are merely executing a clear bylaw requirement without any discretionary judgment.
Question 61: An organization's bylaws require notice for bylaw amendments but do not specify the notice period. What applies?
- The parliamentary authority's requirement for previous notice applies (Correct answer)
- A minimum of 60 days notice is always required by law
- The assembly votes on the required notice period each time
- No advance notice is required since the bylaws don't specify
Correct answer: The parliamentary authority's requirement for previous notice applies
When the bylaws require notice but do not specify a period, the parliamentary authority's provisions on previous notice govern.
Question 62: Under RONR, 'unfinished business' consists of:
- Matters referred to committee but not yet reported
- Business that was pending when the previous meeting adjourned and general orders not reached (Correct answer)
- New business carried over because the meeting ran long
- Any item that any member wishes to reintroduce from a prior meeting
Correct answer: Business that was pending when the previous meeting adjourned and general orders not reached
Unfinished business consists of items that were pending (on the floor) when the previous meeting adjourned and general orders that were not reached during that meeting.
Question 63: In a committee meeting, what rule about quorum differs from a full assembly meeting?
- Committee quorum is always a majority of members, not a fixed number (Correct answer)
- Committees may not waive quorum requirements
- Committee quorum equals one-third of members
- Committees do not require quorum to meet informally
Correct answer: Committee quorum is always a majority of members, not a fixed number
Unless the governing documents specify otherwise, committee quorum is a majority of the committee's membership.
Question 64: An 'ex officio' member of a committee:
- Has no right to vote under any circumstances
- Is appointed by the president only for one meeting
- Holds membership by virtue of holding a particular office and has the same rights as other members unless the rules specify otherwise (Correct answer)
- Must attend all meetings or lose committee status
Correct answer: Holds membership by virtue of holding a particular office and has the same rights as other members unless the rules specify otherwise
An ex officio member serves because of a position held and has the same rights as other members, including the right to vote, unless the governing documents specify otherwise.
Question 65: An organization's bylaws set terms of office as 'one year or until a successor is elected.' An election is delayed. What is the status of the current officers?
- The board appoints temporary officers until the election is held
- Their terms automatically expire and the positions are vacant
- They continue to hold office until successors are elected (Correct answer)
- The membership must ratify their continued service by majority vote
Correct answer: They continue to hold office until successors are elected
The 'or until a successor is elected' language creates a holdover provision that keeps officers in office until their successors are duly elected.
Question 66: Which of the following motions is NOT debatable under RONR?
- Amend
- Previous Question (Correct answer)
- Main motion
- Postpone Indefinitely
Correct answer: Previous Question
The Previous Question (motion to close debate) is undebatable because allowing debate on it would defeat its purpose.
Question 67: What is the primary function of governing documents in parliamentary procedure?
- To provide guidelines only for financial decisions.
- To limit the participation of members.
- To establish rules for fair and orderly meetings (Correct answer)
- To allow the chairperson to make all decisions.
Correct answer: To establish rules for fair and orderly meetings
Governing documents, such as bylaws, constitutions, and standing rules, are foundational to parliamentary procedure. Their primary function is to provide a clear framework of rules and procedures that ensure all members have an equal opportunity to participate, debate, and make decisions. This structure promotes fairness, efficiency, and transparency in the organization's operations and meetings.
Question 68: A motion to 'rescind' a previously adopted motion differs from 'reconsider' primarily because:
- Rescind can only be used for financial decisions
- Rescind can be made at any future meeting while reconsider is limited to the same or next meeting session (Correct answer)
- Reconsider permanently removes an action while rescind only delays it
- Rescind requires unanimous consent while reconsider requires a two-thirds vote
Correct answer: Rescind can be made at any future meeting while reconsider is limited to the same or next meeting session
Rescind may be moved at any subsequent meeting to nullify a prior action, whereas reconsider must be moved during the same session the vote was taken.
Question 69: If an organization's bylaws specify a quorum of 25 members, can a meeting with 24 members present lower the quorum requirement by a majority vote?
- Yes, if a two-thirds vote approves the reduction
- Yes, if the reduction is temporary and for that meeting only
- No, unless the bylaws include a dispensation clause
- No, quorum requirements can only be changed by amending the bylaws (Correct answer)
Correct answer: No, quorum requirements can only be changed by amending the bylaws
Quorum requirements are fixed in the bylaws and cannot be altered by any vote taken at a meeting; they can only be changed through the formal process of amending the bylaws.
Question 70: A 'quasi-committee of the whole' differs from a full committee of the whole in that:
- Written reports are not required
- Only board members may participate
- Debate is limited to two speeches per member
- The chair remains in the chair instead of appointing a committee chair (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The chair remains in the chair instead of appointing a committee chair
In a quasi-committee of the whole, the regular presiding officer remains in the chair rather than yielding to a specially appointed committee chair.
Question 71: When can the assembly instruct a committee that is currently studying a matter?
- Never—committees are independent once formed
- At any time before the committee makes its final report (Correct answer)
- Only by a two-thirds vote
- Only before the committee first meets
Correct answer: At any time before the committee makes its final report
The assembly retains authority to give additional instructions to a committee at any time before the committee submits its final report.
Question 72: What should the chairperson do if a member challenges the procedure?
- End the meeting immediately.
- Disregard the challenge and proceed.
- Listen to the challenge, make a ruling, and refer to the rules (Correct answer)
- Allow the challenge to stop the meeting.
Correct answer: Listen to the challenge, make a ruling, and refer to the rules
When a member challenges a procedure (a "Point of Order"), the chairperson must address it promptly and fairly. This involves listening to the challenge, consulting the organization's governing documents or parliamentary authority, and then making an impartial ruling. This ensures adherence to established rules and maintains order and fairness in the meeting.
Question 73: An 'executive committee' typically has authority to:
- Act on behalf of the board between regular board meetings (Correct answer)
- Remove elected officers without a vote
- Conduct elections without quorum
- Amend the bylaws between board meetings
Correct answer: Act on behalf of the board between regular board meetings
An executive committee is a small subset of the board authorized to act on behalf of the full board between its regularly scheduled meetings.
Question 74: A presiding officer who announces 'the motion is adopted' before the required vote has been taken has:
- Properly used the chair's prerogative to close discussion
- Exercised legitimate chair discretion
- Validly concluded debate under the previous question rule
- Committed a reversible procedural error subject to a point of order (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Committed a reversible procedural error subject to a point of order
Declaring a motion adopted without a vote is a procedural error and any member may raise a point of order.
Question 75: What is the primary purpose of parliamentary procedure?
- To ensure fairness and order during meetings (Correct answer)
- To make meetings longer.
- To restrict discussion.
- To allow only the chairman to speak.
Correct answer: To ensure fairness and order during meetings
The primary purpose of parliamentary procedure is to ensure fairness and order during meetings. It provides a structured framework for conducting business, allowing all members to participate, express their views, and make decisions democratically. By following established rules, meetings can proceed efficiently, respectfully, and with clear outcomes.
Question 76: A CP charges a flat consulting fee. During an engagement the scope expands significantly beyond the original agreement. The ethical standard requires:
- Bill the additional work at double the normal rate without notice
- Withdraw from the engagement
- Renegotiate fees transparently with the client before proceeding with expanded work (Correct answer)
- Complete the additional work without charge to honor the original agreement
Correct answer: Renegotiate fees transparently with the client before proceeding with expanded work
Professional ethics require transparent fee renegotiation when scope materially changes, protecting both client and parliamentarian.
Question 77: What is the effect of a negative vote on the motion to 'postpone indefinitely'?
- The main motion is killed
- The main motion is tabled
- The main motion remains before the assembly (Correct answer)
- The main motion is immediately adopted
Correct answer: The main motion remains before the assembly
Defeating postpone indefinitely simply keeps the main motion before the assembly for continued consideration.
Question 78: When an organization has no quorum present but needs to deal with an emergency, it may:
- Proceed with business if the majority of those present agree
- Declare an emergency and act with any number present
- Delegate all authority to the executive committee indefinitely
- Take action only to fix the quorum problem, adjourn, or recess (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Take action only to fix the quorum problem, adjourn, or recess
Without quorum, the assembly may only act to obtain a quorum (set a new time, notify absent members), recess, or adjourn.
Question 79: After a substitute amendment is adopted, what becomes the main motion?
- The substitute text, which is immediately voted on final passage
- The original motion, unchanged
- Both the original and substitute texts, merged
- The substitute text, which is then open to further amendment (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The substitute text, which is then open to further amendment
When a substitute is adopted, it replaces the original motion and then itself becomes the pending main motion, which may still be amended.
Question 80: Which method of filling in a blank is used when multiple numbers or names are proposed?
- The chair selects the most reasonable proposal
- Vote on all proposals simultaneously by ballot
- Nominations with a separate vote on the best option
- Vote on each proposal until one gets a majority (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Vote on each proposal until one gets a majority
When filling a blank with competing proposals, the assembly votes on each one in order until one achieves the required majority.
Question 81: A parliamentarian is approached by a media outlet for comment on a client's internal governance dispute currently being litigated. The CP should:
- Share procedural facts but not client communications
- Decline to comment to protect client confidentiality (Correct answer)
- Comment freely because the dispute is now public record
- Refer the media to the client's attorney without disclosing any details
Correct answer: Decline to comment to protect client confidentiality
Client confidentiality is not waived by public litigation, and a parliamentarian must decline media comment on client matters.
Question 82: The presiding officer is in the middle of presenting a report when a fire alarm sounds. The most appropriate action is:
- Complete the report before responding to the alarm
- Put the question of evacuation to a majority vote
- Declare an emergency recess and direct members to exit safely (Correct answer)
- Transfer presiding duties to the vice president before evacuating
Correct answer: Declare an emergency recess and direct members to exit safely
Safety emergencies supersede parliamentary protocol; the chair should immediately declare a recess and ensure the safety of members.
Question 83: A 'credentials committee' at a convention is responsible for:
- Auditing the credentials of the nominating committee
- Reviewing the financial credentials of member organizations
- Ensuring only credentialed parliamentarians preside
- Verifying and certifying eligible delegates and their voting rights (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Verifying and certifying eligible delegates and their voting rights
The credentials committee verifies that delegates are duly authorized representatives and reports the official count of voting delegates.
Question 84: A committee 'rises and reports' when it wants to:
- Return business to the full assembly (Correct answer)
- Request additional time to study the matter
- Permanently dissolve the committee
- Elect a new committee chair
Correct answer: Return business to the full assembly
When a committee of the whole or quasi-committee rises, it returns to the status of the regular assembly and presents its recommendations.
Question 85: Which of the following best illustrates the concept of 'competence' as an ethical standard for a CP?
- Accepting only engagements within one's expertise and continuing education to expand it (Correct answer)
- Relying solely on Robert's Rules and never consulting other authorities
- Limiting practice to meetings with fewer than 50 members
- Charging premium fees as evidence of expertise
Correct answer: Accepting only engagements within one's expertise and continuing education to expand it
Competence requires practicing within one's expertise and continuously updating knowledge through education and study.
Question 86: A 'recess' differs from 'adjournment' in that:
- Adjournment requires a two-thirds vote; recess does not
- A recess automatically carries over all pending business to the next meeting
- A recess is a temporary break; adjournment ends the meeting entirely (Correct answer)
- A recess requires a motion; adjournment does not
Correct answer: A recess is a temporary break; adjournment ends the meeting entirely
A recess pauses the meeting temporarily; the assembly resumes from the same point. Adjournment closes the meeting and business resumes only at the next meeting.
Question 87: Which of the following describes 'informal consideration' as a simplified alternative to a committee of the whole?
- The assembly agrees to consider a matter as if in committee without formal procedure (Correct answer)
- The chair permits open floor discussion outside the agenda
- Members gather informally before the meeting to debate
- The assembly debates without any motion pending
Correct answer: The assembly agrees to consider a matter as if in committee without formal procedure
Informal consideration allows the assembly to discuss a matter under relaxed rules without formally going into a committee of the whole.
Question 88: A CP is hired to conduct a parliamentary procedure training workshop and realizes the client expects the training to be biased toward the majority faction's positions. The CP should:
- Clarify that training will present parliamentary law impartially and decline if the client insists on biased content (Correct answer)
- Cancel the workshop without explanation
- Teach correct procedure while subtly favoring the majority to satisfy the client
- Conduct the training as requested since the client sets the curriculum
Correct answer: Clarify that training will present parliamentary law impartially and decline if the client insists on biased content
Training must present parliamentary law accurately and impartially; agreeing to deliver biased training undermines professional integrity.
Question 89: The bylaws state that the treasurer 'shall present a financial report at each meeting.' The treasurer is absent at a meeting. What should occur?
- Another officer may present the report or it may be deferred to the next meeting (Correct answer)
- The membership votes to waive the report for that meeting
- The meeting is invalid without a financial report
- A special meeting must be called when the treasurer is available
Correct answer: Another officer may present the report or it may be deferred to the next meeting
When the designated officer is absent, a substitute may fulfill the duty or the matter may be deferred, as the bylaws express intent rather than a nullifying condition.
Question 90: The chair must rule an amendment out of order when it is:
- Contrary to the motion's stated purpose
- Opposed by more than one-third of members
- Not germane to the main motion (Correct answer)
- Too long to read aloud
Correct answer: Not germane to the main motion
An amendment must be germane—directly related to the subject of the motion it amends; non-germane amendments are ruled out of order.
Question 91: What is 'perfecting an amendment' in parliamentary practice?
- Having the parliamentarian review amendment language
- Presenting the clean version of a motion after multiple amendments
- Editing an amendment for spelling and grammar after adoption
- Amending a primary amendment with a secondary amendment to improve it before voting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Amending a primary amendment with a secondary amendment to improve it before voting
Perfecting an amendment means using a secondary amendment to improve the primary amendment before the assembly votes on the primary amendment.
Question 92: An organization's bylaws specify that members must give 'written notice' before making a motion to amend the bylaws. A member submits notice by email. Is this valid?
- It depends on whether the organization has adopted rules permitting electronic notice (Correct answer)
- No, notice must always be delivered in person to be valid
- Yes, email constitutes written notice under modern interpretation
- The parliamentarian makes a binding determination on a case-by-case basis
Correct answer: It depends on whether the organization has adopted rules permitting electronic notice
Whether electronic communication constitutes written notice depends on the organization's own rules or adopted policies regarding electronic communications.
Question 93: A 'consent agenda' item that a member objects to must be:
- Referred to committee before being discussed
- Voted down by the full assembly
- Tabled until the next meeting
- Removed from the consent agenda and considered separately (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Removed from the consent agenda and considered separately
Any member may request that an item be pulled from the consent agenda for separate consideration; it is then discussed and voted on individually.
Question 94: How should an organization resolve a genuine ambiguity in its bylaws?
- The assembly adopts a motion interpreting the provision, which controls until the bylaws are amended (Correct answer)
- The ambiguity renders the entire bylaw article void
- The president interprets the ambiguous provision with binding effect
- A two-thirds vote is required to resolve any ambiguity
Correct answer: The assembly adopts a motion interpreting the provision, which controls until the bylaws are amended
The assembly may adopt an interpretation of an ambiguous bylaw provision that is binding on the organization until the bylaws are formally amended.
Question 95: Which of the following best supports a CP's ongoing ethical obligation of professional development?
- Reading parliamentary procedure books published within the last ten years only
- Limiting practice to areas covered in the original CP examination
- Passing the CP examination is sufficient to demonstrate competence for the career's duration
- Regularly studying updates to parliamentary authorities, attending professional conferences, and pursuing continuing education (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Regularly studying updates to parliamentary authorities, attending professional conferences, and pursuing continuing education
Professional ethics require continuous learning because parliamentary law, best practices, and organizational contexts evolve over time.
Question 96: The primary purpose of a nominating committee is to:
- Identify and recruit qualified candidates for each office (Correct answer)
- Certify election results after balloting
- Restrict the field of candidates to approved members
- Conduct background checks on nominees
Correct answer: Identify and recruit qualified candidates for each office
The nominating committee identifies, recruits, and presents qualified candidates to ensure competitive and capable slates for each office.
Question 97: A 'preferential ballot' (ranked-choice) can be used when:
- The bylaws or rules of order authorize it (Correct answer)
- Any member demands it before the election
- The chair deems it appropriate
- More than two candidates are in a race
Correct answer: The bylaws or rules of order authorize it
Preferential or ranked-choice balloting must be authorized by the bylaws or special rules of order before it can be used.
Question 98: Under RONR, how many levels of amendment may be pending simultaneously?
- Two levels (primary and secondary) (Correct answer)
- One level only
- Unlimited levels
- Three levels
Correct answer: Two levels (primary and secondary)
Only two levels of amendment may be pending at once: a primary amendment to the main motion and a secondary amendment to the primary amendment.
Question 99: What is the fundamental difference between a 'standing committee' and a 'special committee'?
- Standing committees are permanent; special committees dissolve when their task ends (Correct answer)
- Standing committees have more members
- Special committees may not spend money
- Special committees report to the board; standing committees report to the membership
Correct answer: Standing committees are permanent; special committees dissolve when their task ends
Standing committees are permanent, ongoing bodies; special (ad hoc) committees are created for a specific purpose and cease to exist once that purpose is fulfilled.
Question 100: An organization's constitution requires annual elections in 'the fall.' A dispute arises over which months constitute 'the fall.' Who resolves this?
- Courts must be petitioned to interpret the language
- The executive board issues a final determination
- The parliamentarian makes a binding ruling
- The assembly decides by majority vote subject to appeal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The assembly decides by majority vote subject to appeal
Ambiguous provisions in governing documents are resolved by the assembly through a majority vote, and the decision may be appealed.
AIP Certified Parliamentarian (CP)
The Certified Parliamentarian credential from the American Institute of Parliamentarians tests comprehensive knowledge of parliamentary procedure including Robert's Rules of Order, motions and voting, debate, committees, governing documents, and professional ethics.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds