Cosmetology State Board Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is 'base relaxer application' used for?
- Using a mild base formula on resistant hair
- Coating the entire scalp with base cream before applying relaxer (Correct answer)
- Applying a neutralizing base after the chemical service
- Applying relaxer only to the new growth area
Correct answer: Coating the entire scalp with base cream before applying relaxer
A base application means the scalp is fully coated with protective base cream before relaxer application to protect sensitive scalp skin.
Question 2: What is the function of hydrogen peroxide in a permanent haircolor formula?
- It deposits pigment directly into the cortex
- It activates the dye intermediates and lifts natural melanin (Correct answer)
- It seals the cuticle after color processing
- It neutralizes the ammonia in the color formula
Correct answer: It activates the dye intermediates and lifts natural melanin
Hydrogen peroxide (developer) oxidizes dye intermediates to form color molecules and simultaneously oxidizes melanin to lighten the hair.
Question 3: During the state board practical exam, a candidate accidentally cuts themselves with shears. What is the correct first action?
- Notify the examiner immediately and follow bloodborne pathogen protocol (Correct answer)
- Ask the client to hold a cloth to the wound
- Continue the service and bandage after
- Stop the service and treat the wound with gloves on
Correct answer: Notify the examiner immediately and follow bloodborne pathogen protocol
Any exposure incident must be reported to the examiner immediately, and bloodborne pathogen protocol (stopping service, gloves, proper disposal) must be followed.
Question 4: Which product should be used when professionally removing keratin/fusion bond extensions?
- Hot water
- Bond remover solution (Correct answer)
- Regular clarifying shampoo
- Acetone nail polish remover
Correct answer: Bond remover solution
A professional bond remover solution is specifically formulated to dissolve the keratin adhesive safely without causing damage to the natural hair.
Question 5: Which product is used to dehydrate the natural nail plate before applying acrylic or gel enhancements?
- Nail bleach
- Nail dehydrator (Correct answer)
- Base coat
- Nail primer
Correct answer: Nail dehydrator
A nail dehydrator removes moisture and oils from the nail plate surface, improving adhesion of enhancements.
Question 6: The axon of a neuron is responsible for:
- Transmitting impulses away from the cell body (Correct answer)
- Receiving nerve impulses
- Absorbing nutrients for the neuron
- Producing myelin sheath only
Correct answer: Transmitting impulses away from the cell body
Axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body toward other neurons or effector organs.
Question 7: What is the 'occipital bone' and why is it important as a landmark in haircutting?
- The cheekbone used to frame face-framing layers
- The front hairline bone used to measure bang length
- The prominent bone at the back of the skull that affects weight distribution in cuts (Correct answer)
- The bony ridge above the ear used to position clipper guards
Correct answer: The prominent bone at the back of the skull that affects weight distribution in cuts
The occipital bone is the protruding bone at the back of the skull; its position affects where weight falls in a cut and helps stylists place graduation or layering correctly.
Question 8: What is the 'horseshoe section' used for in haircutting?
- Sectioning out the nape area for clipper work
- Isolating the top of the head from the sides and back (Correct answer)
- Separating bangs from the rest of the hair
- Creating a guide for a one-length perimeter
Correct answer: Isolating the top of the head from the sides and back
The horseshoe section follows the curve of the head to separate the top (crown area) from the sides and back for layering or texturizing.
Question 9: Which ingredient in nail hardeners cross-links the keratin proteins in the nail plate to strengthen it?
- Formaldehyde (Correct answer)
- Biotin
- Calcium
- Vitamin E
Correct answer: Formaldehyde
Formaldehyde (and its safer derivative toluene sulfonamide/formaldehyde resin) cross-links keratin proteins, hardening the nail plate.
Question 10: A client receiving a facial massage feels a tingling sensation. This is a direct result of the stimulation of which body system?
- Integumentary system
- Muscular system
- Nervous system (Correct answer)
- Circulatory system
Correct answer: Nervous system
The nervous system is responsible for transmitting sensory information, like touch and tingling, from the skin to the brain. Massage techniques directly stimulate nerve endings in the skin.
Question 11: A client arrives with a small cut on their finger. What should the cosmetologist do before performing a service?
- Apply alcohol directly to the wound
- Refuse the service entirely
- Proceed with the service as normal
- Cover the wound with a bandage and wear gloves (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cover the wound with a bandage and wear gloves
Covering wounds and wearing gloves protects both the client and the cosmetologist from bloodborne pathogen exposure.
Question 12: Which mixing ratio is standard for most permanent haircolor with 20-volume cream developer?
- 1:1 (color to developer) (Correct answer)
- 1:3 (color to developer)
- 1:2 (color to developer)
- 2:1 (color to developer)
Correct answer: 1:1 (color to developer)
Most permanent haircolor manufacturers specify a 1:1 ratio of color to developer, though always check the manufacturer's instructions.
Question 13: Under most state cosmetology laws, which of the following requires a written client record or intake form?
- Shampooing services only
- Blow-dry styling only
- Simple trims only
- Chemical services such as color, perm, or relaxer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Chemical services such as color, perm, or relaxer
Chemical services require documented client records including patch test results, previous services, and contraindications to ensure client safety and legal compliance.
Question 14: During a double-process blonde service, what is the correct order of steps?
- Bleach, shampoo and condition, then tone (Correct answer)
- Tone, then bleach, then shampoo
- Tone, then apply bleach to roots only
- Pre-soften, then bleach and tone simultaneously
Correct answer: Bleach, shampoo and condition, then tone
In a double-process service, bleach lifts the hair first; after shampooing and conditioning to remove bleach residue, a toner is applied to achieve the desired blonde shade.
Question 15: What should a cosmetologist do if they observe signs of a nail fungus on a client's nails?
- Refer the client to a physician and decline the service (Correct answer)
- Treat the nail with an antifungal product
- Proceed with the service using gloves
- File down the affected area before applying polish
Correct answer: Refer the client to a physician and decline the service
Cosmetologists are not licensed to diagnose or treat nail fungus; they must refer clients to a physician and cannot perform services on infected nails.
Question 16: What type of chemical reaction produces heat as a byproduct, such as during exothermic relaxer application?
- Exothermic reaction (Correct answer)
- Neutralization reaction
- Endothermic reaction
- Photochemical reaction
Correct answer: Exothermic reaction
An exothermic reaction releases energy in the form of heat, which is why some relaxers feel warm during processing.
Question 17: What does the term 'net income' mean for a salon business?
- Revenue remaining after all expenses are deducted (Correct answer)
- Total revenue before any expenses
- The owner's personal draw from the business
- Total payroll costs for all employees
Correct answer: Revenue remaining after all expenses are deducted
Net income is the profit remaining after all operating expenses, taxes, and costs have been subtracted from total revenue.
Question 18: Salt bonds in hair are broken and reformed by changes in:
- Heat
- pH levels (Correct answer)
- Chemical oxidation
- UV exposure
Correct answer: pH levels
Salt bonds are ionic bonds that are easily broken by changes in pH (acids or alkalis) and reform when the pH is normalized.
Question 19: The stratum granulosum is significant because it is where:
- Langerhans cells first appear
- Keratinocytes begin to flatten and produce keratin granules (Correct answer)
- Melanocytes produce melanin pigment
- New skin cells are produced by mitosis
Correct answer: Keratinocytes begin to flatten and produce keratin granules
In the stratum granulosum, cells accumulate keratohyalin granules and begin to lose their nuclei, preparing to become the outer protective layer.
Question 20: A client presents with nails that have a white, powdery surface. This is most likely caused by:
- Vitamin C deficiency
- Over-filing the nail surface (Correct answer)
- Excessive cuticle oil use
- Bacterial infection
Correct answer: Over-filing the nail surface
Over-buffing or over-filing thins and roughens the nail plate, leaving a chalky white appearance.
Question 21: The hair of Jon's customer has been lightened. His customer claims that she notices brassy, orange tones in her hair. In order to eliminate the unwelcome brassiness, John chooses to put a toner on his client's hair. What color toner should Jon use on his client's hair based on the color wheel?
- yellow
- violet
- blue (Correct answer)
- red
Correct answer: blue
According to the color wheel, blue is the complementary color to orange. Complementary colors neutralize each other when mixed or placed side-by-side. Therefore, to counteract and eliminate unwanted brassy, orange tones in lightened hair, a blue-based toner should be applied.
Question 22: Desincrustation in esthetics refers to:
- Application of a clay mask to absorb oils
- Manual extraction using comedone extractor tools
- A galvanic current treatment that softens and emulsifies sebum in follicles (Correct answer)
- A deep-tissue massage technique
Correct answer: A galvanic current treatment that softens and emulsifies sebum in follicles
Desincrustation uses the negative pole of a galvanic current with an alkaline solution to saponify sebum and soften plugged follicles.
Question 23: What three things make up a pincurl?
- base, stem, circle (Correct answer)
- curl, balance, stem
- contour, base, curl
- circle, stem, curl
Correct answer: base, stem, circle
A pincurl is composed of three main parts: the base, the stem, and the circle. The base is the stationary foundation of the curl, attached to the scalp. The stem is the section of hair between the base and the first arc of the circle, determining the curl's direction and mobility. The circle is the actual curl formation, dictating the wave's size and strength.
Question 24: What is the safest maximum time recommended for leaving bleach on the scalp?
- 30 minutes
- 15 minutes
- 45 minutes (Correct answer)
- 60 minutes
Correct answer: 45 minutes
Most professional bleach manufacturers recommend a maximum of 45 minutes on-scalp to prevent scalp burns and excessive hair damage.
Question 25: The term 'porosity' in haircare refers to the hair's ability to:
- Stretch without breaking
- Reflect light and appear shiny
- Absorb and retain moisture (Correct answer)
- Withstand heat styling without damage
Correct answer: Absorb and retain moisture
Hair porosity describes how readily the hair's cuticle layer allows moisture and chemicals to enter and be retained.
Question 26: During a pedicure, which instrument is used to remove dead skin from the bottom of the foot?
- Curette
- Cuticle pusher
- Nail rasp
- Foot file (paddle) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Foot file (paddle)
A foot file or paddle file is used to gently abrade and remove dead, hardened skin from the soles and heels.
Question 27: A client with fine, thin hair wants a perm. Which technique would add volume without over-curling?
- Piggyback wrap with medium rods
- Body wave using large rods (Correct answer)
- Spiral wrap with small rods throughout
- Weave technique with alternating small rods
Correct answer: Body wave using large rods
A body wave with large rods creates a loose, soft wave that lifts fine hair and adds volume without an overly tight curl.
Question 28: What is the correct term for implements that have been cleaned and disinfected but not sterilized?
- Sanitized (Correct answer)
- Aseptic
- Decontaminated
- Sterile
Correct answer: Sanitized
Sanitized implements have been cleaned and disinfected to reduce microbial counts to safe levels, but are not completely free of all microorganisms.
Question 29: What does a 'restricted license' in cosmetology typically indicate?
- The license is valid only during daytime hours
- The licensee must pay higher annual fees
- The licensee is permitted to perform only specific services or work in limited settings (Correct answer)
- The licensee may only work in rural areas
Correct answer: The licensee is permitted to perform only specific services or work in limited settings
A restricted license limits the scope of services a cosmetologist may legally perform, often due to incomplete training in certain areas.
Question 30: Which of the following is a virus that can be transmitted in a salon through blood-to-blood contact?
- Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Tinea pedis
Correct answer: Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B is a bloodborne virus that can survive on surfaces for days and poses a significant risk in salon settings if proper infection control is not followed.
Question 31: When applying a base coat, how many strokes are typically used for each nail?
- Three strokes side by side from left to right
- One stroke down the center only
- Two strokes on the sides followed by one down the center (Correct answer)
- Four overlapping strokes
Correct answer: Two strokes on the sides followed by one down the center
The standard three-stroke method — two side strokes then one center stroke — ensures even, complete coverage of the nail plate with base coat.
Question 32: Which of the following is the correct way to hold scissors during a haircut to maintain safety and control?
- Both rings held loosely with fingers only, no thumb inserted
- Thumb in the larger ring and middle finger in the smaller ring
- Index finger in both rings with the thumb stabilizing outside
- Thumb in the smaller ring and ring finger in the larger ring (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Thumb in the smaller ring and ring finger in the larger ring
The correct grip places the thumb in the smaller thumb ring and the ring finger in the larger finger ring, with the pinky resting on the finger rest for stability.
Question 33: Under cosmetology administrative rules, what is an 'inactive' license status?
- A valid license that the holder has chosen not to use actively to practice, often with reduced renewal requirements (Correct answer)
- A license issued to a retired cosmetologist with no renewal needed
- A temporary status granted only to military personnel
- A license that has been permanently revoked by the board
Correct answer: A valid license that the holder has chosen not to use actively to practice, often with reduced renewal requirements
An inactive license allows a cosmetologist to maintain their credentials without actively practicing, often at a lower fee, but they cannot legally perform services.
Question 34: In color theory, which two primary colors are mixed to create the secondary color orange?
- Yellow and blue
- Red and yellow (Correct answer)
- Red and blue
- Red and green
Correct answer: Red and yellow
Orange is a secondary color created by combining equal parts of the primary colors red and yellow.
Question 35: When cutting, Emily is instructed by her teacher to lift the hair. What other name would you give to elevation?
- Sectioning
- Thinning
- Lowering
- Projection (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Projection
In haircutting, elevation refers to the degree at which the hair is lifted away from the head before cutting. This technique is also commonly known as projection. The angle of elevation or projection directly influences the amount of graduation or layering achieved in the haircut.
Question 36: What is the purpose of applying nail primer before acrylic application?
- To moisturize the cuticle area
- To sanitize the nail surface
- To improve adhesion between the nail plate and acrylic (Correct answer)
- To add color to the nail bed
Correct answer: To improve adhesion between the nail plate and acrylic
Nail primer etches the nail plate surface and creates a chemical bond that helps acrylic adhere securely.
Question 37: A client with an oily and acne-prone skin type is receiving a facial. Which type of facial mask would be MOST beneficial for this client?
- Clay/mud mask (Correct answer)
- Cream mask
- Gel mask
- Paraffin wax mask
Correct answer: Clay/mud mask
Clay and mud masks are highly effective for oily and acne-prone skin because of their absorbent properties. They help draw out excess oil, dirt, and impurities from the pores, leading to a more mattified and refined complexion.
Question 38: Where your operator's license or speciality permit have to be visible?
- at the person's place of business or employment (Correct answer)
- second anniversary of the date of the license
- 1 to 1/2 times the normal required renewal fee
- continuing education
Correct answer: at the person's place of business or employment
Your operator's license or specialty permit must be visibly displayed at your place of business or employment. This requirement ensures that clients and regulatory officials can easily verify that the individual providing services is properly licensed. It promotes transparency and accountability within the cosmetology industry.
Question 39: In most states, what happens if a cosmetologist fails to complete required continuing education before license renewal?
- The license is automatically renewed with a warning
- The renewal application will be denied or the license placed on inactive status (Correct answer)
- No penalty applies if the courses are taken within 6 months
- A grace period of two years is granted
Correct answer: The renewal application will be denied or the license placed on inactive status
Failure to complete mandatory continuing education results in denial of renewal or an inactive license status until requirements are met.
Question 40: What is the purpose of a filler in haircoloring?
- To fill in damage on the cuticle before lightening
- To neutralize warm tones before applying ash shades
- To pre-pigment porous or previously lightened hair before coloring (Correct answer)
- To seal the cuticle after color is applied
Correct answer: To pre-pigment porous or previously lightened hair before coloring
A filler deposits missing warm tones into overly porous or lightened hair so that the final color formula deposits evenly and lasts longer.
Question 41: Which type of infection is caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi and can be transmitted from one person to another?
- Inflammatory infection
- Occupational infection
- Contagious infection (Correct answer)
- Systemic infection
Correct answer: Contagious infection
A contagious infection is one that can be transmitted from person to person through direct or indirect contact.
Question 42: Immune insufficiency syndrome, acquired (aids)
- Is a form of herpes
- Attacks the nervous system
- Is caused by needle use
- Is caused by HIV virus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Is caused by HIV virus
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is the final, most severe stage of infection with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). HIV attacks and destroys CD4 T cells, a type of white blood cell crucial to the immune system, progressively weakening the body's ability to fight off infections and certain cancers. AIDS is not caused by needle use directly, but rather by the transmission of the HIV virus, which can occur through shared needles.
Question 43: Before applying any chemical texture service, a stylist must perform a strand test. What is the primary purpose of this test?
- To see if the client likes the smell of the product.
- To determine the final cost of the service.
- To select the appropriate shampoo and conditioner.
- To check for the presence of metallic salts and determine processing time. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To check for the presence of metallic salts and determine processing time.
A strand test is crucial for safety and to ensure a successful outcome. It reveals how the hair will react to the chemical, indicates the presence of metallic salts which could cause severe damage, and helps the stylist accurately determine the required processing time for the desired result.
Question 44: What is the main active ingredient in most sodium hydroxide (lye) hair relaxers?
- Sodium lauryl sulfate
- Hydrogen peroxide
- Sodium hydroxide (Correct answer)
- Ammonium thioglycolate
Correct answer: Sodium hydroxide
Sodium hydroxide is the active ingredient in lye relaxers; it has a very high pH (above 12) that permanently straightens hair by breaking disulfide bonds.
Question 45: What is 'freehand clipper over comb' primarily used for?
- Blending and tapering areas that clippers alone cannot reach (Correct answer)
- Removing bulk from very thick hair sections
- Establishing the initial guide for a layered cut
- Creating sharp, defined lines at the nape
Correct answer: Blending and tapering areas that clippers alone cannot reach
Clipper-over-comb uses a comb to lift the hair and clippers to cut it, allowing blending and tapering in areas where a guard attachment won't work.
Question 46: During a gel manicure, what causes the 'inhibition layer' left on the nail surface after curing?
- Using an expired top coat
- Insufficient UV lamp wattage
- Oxygen in the air preventing full surface polymerization (Correct answer)
- Applying gel too thickly
Correct answer: Oxygen in the air preventing full surface polymerization
Oxygen inhibits the top layer of gel from fully curing, leaving a sticky residue called the inhibition layer.
Question 47: Which SPF value is recommended by the American Academy of Dermatology for daily use?
- SPF 100
- SPF 10
- SPF 15
- SPF 30 or higher (Correct answer)
Correct answer: SPF 30 or higher
The AAD recommends at minimum SPF 30, which blocks about 97% of UVB rays, for adequate daily sun protection.
Question 48: During a haircut, holding the hair at 90 degrees from the head creates:
- Maximum tension for blunt cutting
- A stacked graduation effect
- A one-length cut with no layers
- Uniform layers throughout the head (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Uniform layers throughout the head
Lifting hair perpendicular (90°) to the scalp and cutting creates even, uniform layers across the entire head.
Question 49: A client's hair has low porosity. What does this indicate about the cuticle?
- The cuticle is raised and damaged
- The cuticle is absent
- The cuticle is extremely porous
- The cuticle is tightly closed and resists moisture (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The cuticle is tightly closed and resists moisture
Low porosity hair has a tightly sealed cuticle layer that resists water and chemical absorption.
Question 50: Which tool is best for gently pushing back the cuticle during a manicure?
- Metal nail file
- Emery board
- Cuticle pusher or orangewood stick (Correct answer)
- Nail nipper
Correct answer: Cuticle pusher or orangewood stick
A cuticle pusher or orangewood stick is used to gently push back the cuticle without cutting living tissue.
Question 51: What is the term for the process of removing artificial haircolor from the hair shaft?
- Color stripping (Correct answer)
- Color lifting
- Color extraction
- Color correction
Correct answer: Color stripping
Color stripping (also called color removal) uses reducing agents to break down artificial pigment molecules so they can be rinsed from the hair.
Question 52: During a chemical relaxer service, the primary role of the neutralizer is to:
- Condition the hair and scalp.
- Swell the cuticle and soften the hair.
- Harden and reform the disulfide bonds in their new, straighter alignment. (Correct answer)
- Break the disulfide bonds.
Correct answer: Harden and reform the disulfide bonds in their new, straighter alignment.
After the relaxer has broken the disulfide bonds to straighten the hair, the neutralizer is applied to rebuild these bonds in their new shape. This process is what permanently locks the hair into its new, straighter form.
Question 53: A client presents with a nail plate that is noticeably thickened, discolored with a yellowish hue, and appears to be separating from the nail bed. The client states the condition is not painful. What is the most appropriate action for the cosmetologist?
- Perform the service but use a gentle file and avoid applying polish.
- Soak the nail in a strong antiseptic for ten minutes before proceeding.
- Refuse the service on the affected nail and recommend the client see a physician. (Correct answer)
- Apply a nail dehydrator and a strengthening base coat to the nail.
Correct answer: Refuse the service on the affected nail and recommend the client see a physician.
The symptoms described (thickening, discoloration, separation from the nail bed) are classic signs of a potential fungal infection (onychomycosis) or other nail disease. Cosmetologists are not licensed to diagnose or treat medical conditions. The scope of practice requires them to refuse service on any nail that shows signs of infection or disease and to refer the client to a medical professional for diagnosis and treatment.
Question 54: What is the primary difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal products?
- Bactericidal products are weaker than bacteriostatic products
- Bacteriostatic products kill bacteria; bactericidal products slow growth
- Both terms mean the same thing in a salon context
- Bacteriostatic products slow bacterial growth; bactericidal products kill bacteria (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bacteriostatic products slow bacterial growth; bactericidal products kill bacteria
Bacteriostatic agents inhibit bacterial reproduction without killing them, while bactericidal agents actively kill bacteria — salons require bactericidal disinfectants.
Question 55: Which federal agency regulates the safety of cosmetic products sold in the United States?
- FDA (Correct answer)
- OSHA
- CDC
- EPA
Correct answer: FDA
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) oversees the safety and labeling of cosmetic products in the U.S.
Question 56: A microdermabrasion treatment exfoliates the skin using:
- A rotating vacuum tip with fine crystals or a diamond-tipped wand (Correct answer)
- Alpha hydroxy acids applied under occlusion
- High-frequency electrical current
- Enzyme-based creams left on for 20 minutes
Correct answer: A rotating vacuum tip with fine crystals or a diamond-tipped wand
Microdermabrasion mechanically abrades the stratum corneum using aluminum oxide crystals or a diamond-tipped applicator combined with suction.
Question 57: What does the term 'stress area' refer to in nail technology?
- The area nearest the cuticle
- The point where the nail plate meets the free edge (Correct answer)
- The area where the nail plate extends past the fingertip
- The sidewalls of the nail
Correct answer: The point where the nail plate meets the free edge
The stress area is the point at which the nail plate extends beyond the fingertip, where the most mechanical stress occurs during wear.
Question 58: What is the main advantage of balayage over traditional foil highlights?
- Balayage provides more uniform lift throughout the hair
- Balayage deposits color more deeply into the cortex
- Balayage processes faster because it uses higher-volume developer
- Balayage creates a softer, more natural-looking grow-out with less maintenance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Balayage creates a softer, more natural-looking grow-out with less maintenance
Balayage's freehand painting technique produces softer, blended results with a gradual grow-out, reducing the frequency of touch-up appointments.
Question 59: When texturizing with notching scissors (chunking shears), where on the hair strand should the cuts be made?
- Along the perimeter line to soften the blunt edge
- Along the mid-shaft to remove interior weight only
- Into the ends to create chunky, irregular texture (Correct answer)
- At the scalp to remove bulk from the roots
Correct answer: Into the ends to create chunky, irregular texture
Notching (chunking) cuts are made into the ends of the hair to create deliberate, irregular gaps that add texture and reduce the weight at the perimeter.
Question 60: What is a 'traveling guide' (also called a moving guide) used for in haircutting?
- It is used only for zero-elevation blunt perimeter cuts
- It moves with each new section, maintaining a consistent length progression for layers (Correct answer)
- It stays in one place and all hair is brought to that single reference point
- It is a guideline cut at the nape before any other sections are cut
Correct answer: It moves with each new section, maintaining a consistent length progression for layers
A traveling guide moves forward or upward with each new subsection, carrying the previously cut hair as the guide to create consistent, progressive layering.
Question 61: Which condition involves an abnormal thickening and yellowing of the nail plate?
- Melanonychia
- Onychorrhexis
- Onychophagy
- Onychauxis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Onychauxis
Onychauxis is the overgrowth and thickening of the nail plate, often with discoloration, caused by systemic issues or injury.
Question 62: Which chemical process permanently restructures the disulfide bonds in hair?
- Hair coloring
- Perming or relaxing (Correct answer)
- Clarifying
- Deep conditioning
Correct answer: Perming or relaxing
Perming and relaxing permanently break and re-form disulfide bonds in the hair's cortex to change its texture.
Question 63: Disinfectants don't affect bacteria while they're in the
- Mitosis stage
- Active stage
- Vegetative stage
- Spore-forming stage (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Spore-forming stage
Bacteria in the spore-forming stage, also known as the inactive or dormant stage, develop a protective outer shell that makes them highly resistant to disinfectants, heat, and other harsh conditions. Disinfectants are primarily effective against bacteria in their active, vegetative stage. Only sterilization, a higher level of infection control, can effectively destroy bacterial spores.
Question 64: Which layer of the hair is responsible for its strength and elasticity?
- Epicuticle
- Medulla
- Cortex (Correct answer)
- Cuticle
Correct answer: Cortex
The cortex contains the fibrous proteins and disulfide bonds that give hair its strength and elasticity.
Question 65: Which of the following is an example of a local infection?
- A cold virus affecting the respiratory system
- A staph infection confined to a small area on the skin (Correct answer)
- Sepsis entering the bloodstream
- The flu spreading throughout the body
Correct answer: A staph infection confined to a small area on the skin
A local infection is confined to a specific area of the body, such as a pimple or boil caused by Staphylococcus bacteria.
Question 66: Retinoids used in professional skincare are derivatives of which vitamin?
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin A (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Vitamin A
Retinoids are vitamin A derivatives that accelerate cell turnover, stimulate collagen synthesis, and reduce the appearance of fine lines and hyperpigmentation.
Question 67: A client with level 6 hair wants to achieve a pale, level 10 blonde. During the lightening process, her hair exposes strong orange and yellow tones. To neutralize the unwanted brassiness and achieve the target shade, which toner should be used?
- A toner with a violet base (Correct answer)
- A toner with a green base
- A toner with a blue base
- A toner with a red base
Correct answer: A toner with a violet base
According to the law of color, complementary colors neutralize each other. On the color wheel, violet is directly opposite yellow, and blue is opposite orange. Since the hair has both orange and yellow tones, but the goal is a pale blonde (level 10) where yellow is the predominant remaining pigment, a violet-based toner is essential to cancel out the yellow. While blue would address the orange, violet is the primary neutralizer for the yellow tones that are most visible at the higher levels of lightening.
Question 68: The hyponychium is located:
- Under the free edge where the nail plate separates from the skin (Correct answer)
- On top of the nail plate near the lunula
- At the base of the nail under the proximal fold
- Along the lateral nail folds on the sides
Correct answer: Under the free edge where the nail plate separates from the skin
The hyponychium is the thickened skin at the fingertip just beneath the free edge, forming a seal against bacteria.
Question 69: Maria and her client are having a consultation. She claims that her customer wants a "shag" haircut. <br> Which direction would Maria elevate the hair when trimming it, if at all?
- 90 degrees
- 45 degrees
- 0 degrees
- 180 degrees (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 180 degrees
A shag haircut is characterized by heavy layering and volume, often achieved by cutting the hair at extreme elevations. To create the maximum amount of layers and a soft, feathered look typical of a shag, hair is commonly elevated to 180 degrees, pulling it straight up from the head. This technique ensures that the shortest layers are at the top and gradually get longer towards the ends.
Question 70: The occipital bone of the skull forms which part of the head?
- Cheekbones
- Back and base of the skull (Correct answer)
- Forehead
- Temples
Correct answer: Back and base of the skull
The occipital bone forms the posterior and inferior portion of the cranium, including the foramen magnum.
Question 71: Which bone forms the upper jaw and is the largest bone of the face?
- Nasal bone
- Zygomatic bone
- Mandible
- Maxilla (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maxilla
The maxilla forms the upper jaw, the hard palate, and much of the floor and sides of the nasal cavity.
Question 72: Long, dark hair is referred to as
- Terminal (Correct answer)
- Supercilia
- Barba
- Vellus
Correct answer: Terminal
Terminal hair is the scientific term for the coarse, pigmented hair found on the scalp, eyebrows, eyelashes, and body after puberty. It is distinct from vellus hair, which is fine, short, and often unpigmented 'peach fuzz.' Understanding the different types of hair is crucial in cosmetology for various treatments and services.
Question 73: In __________, estheticians are known as beauticians.
- North America (Correct answer)
- South America
- Ireland
- Australia
Correct answer: North America
In North America, particularly in historical contexts and some current usage, the term 'beautician' was often used interchangeably with or as a broader category for professionals who provide various beauty services, including skin care. While 'esthetician' has become the more specific term for skin care specialists, 'beautician' still holds this association in certain North American contexts.
Question 74: A client asks about a hairline that grows in a circular pattern at the crown. This is called a:
- Cowlick
- Recession
- Widow's peak
- Whorl (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Whorl
A whorl is a growth pattern where hair radiates outward from a central point in a circular or spiral pattern.
Question 75: In gel nail application, what is the purpose of the inhibition layer left after curing?
- It is an uncured, sticky layer that allows additional product to bond (Correct answer)
- It protects the gel from UV exposure
- It contains pigment for color depth
- It prevents gel from lifting at the cuticle
Correct answer: It is an uncured, sticky layer that allows additional product to bond
The inhibition (tacky) layer is uncured gel that remains on the surface after curing, which is either wiped away or used to bond the next layer.
Question 76: Buff 'n' Shine or three-way buffing blocks work in which sequence for the best shine?
- Medium to fine to coarse grit
- Coarse to medium to fine grit (Correct answer)
- Fine to coarse to medium grit
- Fine to medium then back to fine
Correct answer: Coarse to medium to fine grit
Buffing progresses from coarse grit to remove ridges, medium to smooth, and fine to create a high-gloss shine.
Question 77: In the context of skin care services, what does the term 'emollient' mean?
- A product that reduces melanin production
- A formula that tightens and firms loose skin
- A substance that softens and smooths the skin by filling spaces between skin cells (Correct answer)
- An ingredient that removes surface dead skin cells
Correct answer: A substance that softens and smooths the skin by filling spaces between skin cells
Emollients fill in the gaps between skin cells in the stratum corneum, smoothing rough texture and improving the skin barrier's integrity.
Question 78: Which type of electrical current flows in only one direction and is used in galvanic treatments?
- Sinusoidal current
- Direct current (DC) (Correct answer)
- Alternating current (AC)
- Faradic current
Correct answer: Direct current (DC)
Direct current (DC) flows in one direction only, which is why it is used in galvanic facial treatments that rely on a consistent polarity.
Question 79: A common usage for dibutyl phthalate is as a _______.
- Coloring agent
- Paint thinner
- Sedative
- Plasticizer (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Plasticizer
Dibutyl phthalate (DBP) is primarily used as a plasticizer, a substance added to plastics to increase their flexibility, transparency, durability, and longevity. In cosmetology, it was historically used in nail polishes to prevent chipping and make them more pliable, though its use has decreased due to health concerns.
Question 80: A client accidentally gets a small cut during a manicure. What is the FIRST step the cosmetologist should take?
- Stop the service and put on gloves. (Correct answer)
- Clean the station with a disinfectant.
- Immediately apply a bandage to the cut.
- Dispose of all contaminated materials in a trash can.
Correct answer: Stop the service and put on gloves.
The immediate first step in a blood exposure incident is to stop the service and put on gloves to prevent any potential contact with bloodborne pathogens. Subsequent steps include cleaning the wound, applying antiseptic, covering the wound, and then disinfecting the station and properly disposing of contaminated materials.
Question 81: What type of melanin produces red and yellow pigment in hair?
- Eumelanin
- Pheomelanin (Correct answer)
- Carotene
- Neuromelanin
Correct answer: Pheomelanin
Pheomelanin produces the red, yellow, and orange tones found in naturally red and blonde hair.
Question 82: During the practical state board exam, an examiner marks a deduction for contaminating a clean implement. This most likely occurred because the candidate:
- Did not time the disinfection properly
- Used the wrong brand of disinfectant
- Held the implement incorrectly
- Touched the implement to an unsanitary surface after disinfection (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Touched the implement to an unsanitary surface after disinfection
Contamination occurs when a disinfected implement contacts an unsanitary surface (such as a countertop or the candidate's clothing), requiring it to be re-disinfected.
Question 83: What nail condition appears as white spots or streaks on the nail plate and is usually caused by minor trauma to the nail matrix?
- Leukonychia (Correct answer)
- Onychauxis
- Melanonychia
- Beau's lines
Correct answer: Leukonychia
Leukonychia (white spots) results from minor trauma or injury to the nail matrix that disrupts normal keratinization of the nail plate.
Question 84: Which disinfectant concentration of EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant is commonly required for non-porous implements in a cosmetology state board setting?
- 70% isopropyl alcohol
- Soap and water only
- EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant per manufacturer instructions (Correct answer)
- 10% bleach dilution
Correct answer: EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant per manufacturer instructions
Non-porous implements must be fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant used exactly according to the manufacturer's label instructions.
Question 85: A client's hair breaks during a strand test for a relaxer. What should the cosmetologist do?
- Proceed cautiously with a milder relaxer
- Dilute the relaxer with water before applying
- Apply a protein treatment and reschedule the service (Correct answer)
- Add more base cream and continue the application
Correct answer: Apply a protein treatment and reschedule the service
Hair breakage during a strand test indicates the hair is too compromised to safely receive a chemical relaxer; the service should be postponed.
Question 86: Which curing light wavelength is most effective for polymerizing gel nail products?
- UVC light at 200–280 nm
- Infrared (IR) light
- Visible blue light at 600–700 nm
- Ultraviolet (UV) / LED light at 365–405 nm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ultraviolet (UV) / LED light at 365–405 nm
Gel photoinitiators are activated by UV/LED light in the 365–405 nanometer range, triggering polymerization of the gel product.
Question 87: Which federal agency regulates the safety and efficacy of disinfectants used in salons?
- FDA
- OSHA
- EPA (Correct answer)
- CDC
Correct answer: EPA
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) registers and regulates disinfectant products to ensure they are safe and effective.
Question 88: Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is responsible for causing sunburn?
- Radio waves
- Visible light
- Ultraviolet rays (Correct answer)
- Infrared rays
Correct answer: Ultraviolet rays
Ultraviolet (UV) rays from the sun penetrate the skin and cause sunburn, premature aging, and increased risk of skin cancer.
Question 89: In a salon, where should used (contaminated) implements be placed immediately after use?
- In a closed container labeled for contaminated items (Correct answer)
- In a UV cabinet
- In a clean dry towel on the counter
- Back in the sanitizing jar with other implements
Correct answer: In a closed container labeled for contaminated items
Contaminated implements must be separated from clean ones immediately and placed in a clearly labeled closed container to prevent cross-contamination.
Question 90: Bacilli are bacteria that have a
- Rod shape (Correct answer)
- Curved shape
- Corkscrew shape
- Round shape
Correct answer: Rod shape
Bacilli are one of the three main classifications of bacteria based on their shape, characterized by their rod-like or cylindrical appearance. Other common shapes include cocci (round) and spirilla (spiral). Understanding bacterial shapes is fundamental in microbiology and cosmetology for identifying and controlling potential pathogens.
Question 91: What is the primary purpose of a neutralizer in a permanent wave service?
- To remove excess waving solution from the hair
- To soften and swell the hair cuticle
- To add moisture and condition the hair
- To stop the waving action and rebuild disulfide bonds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To stop the waving action and rebuild disulfide bonds
The neutralizer stops the chemical waving action and uses oxidation to rebuild the disulfide bonds in the new waved position.
Question 92: In a facial treatment for acne-prone skin, a cosmetologist uses a high-frequency machine with a glass electrode. What is the primary benefit of this current for this skin type?
- It cools and soothes inflamed skin.
- It has a germicidal and antiseptic effect. (Correct answer)
- It provides deep muscle stimulation.
- It infuses water-soluble products into the skin.
Correct answer: It has a germicidal and antiseptic effect.
High-frequency current, also known as Tesla current, creates ozone gas when the electrode is applied to the skin. Ozone has antiseptic and germicidal properties, which are highly beneficial for treating acne-prone skin by helping to kill bacteria and oxygenate the tissue.
Question 93: What does iontophoresis use galvanic current to accomplish during a facial service?
- Generate heat to open the pores manually
- Drive water-soluble ionic products deeper into the skin (Correct answer)
- Permanently remove unwanted facial hair
- Dry out and reduce oily skin secretions
Correct answer: Drive water-soluble ionic products deeper into the skin
Iontophoresis uses galvanic current to push water-soluble, ionically charged product molecules deeper into the skin than topical application alone can achieve.
Question 94: What does OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard require salon employees to do?
- Receive training on exposure risks and proper safety procedures (Correct answer)
- Sterilize all implements before every use
- Report every client incident to the state board
- Test all clients for bloodborne diseases before services
Correct answer: Receive training on exposure risks and proper safety procedures
OSHA requires employers to train employees on bloodborne pathogen risks, proper PPE use, exposure control plans, and post-exposure procedures.
Question 95: In Texas, a person must possess a high school diploma or an equivalent in order to have a cosmetology license.
- 10 Days
- GED (Correct answer)
- College
- None of the above
Correct answer: GED
To obtain a cosmetology license in Texas, a person must possess a high school diploma or its equivalent, which is a GED. This educational requirement ensures that applicants have a foundational level of academic achievement necessary for professional training and understanding complex concepts in cosmetology.
Question 96: Which type of UV/LED gel is applied directly to the natural nail to add color and shine without length extension?
- Sculpting gel
- Gel polish (Correct answer)
- Hard gel
- Builder gel
Correct answer: Gel polish
Gel polish (soak-off gel) is a thin, flexible product used for color application on natural nails without adding length.
Question 97: Which type of water hardness is caused by dissolved calcium and magnesium bicarbonates that can be removed by boiling?
- Permanent hardness
- Chemical hardness
- Temporary hardness (Correct answer)
- Mineral hardness
Correct answer: Temporary hardness
Temporary hardness is caused by calcium and magnesium bicarbonates, which precipitate out when water is boiled.
Question 98: A nail technician is performing a repair on a client's natural nail and wants a lightweight, flexible wrap that will become transparent when resin is applied. Which of the following materials, known for its tight weave and natural fibers, would be the most suitable choice?
- Fiberglass
- Silk (Correct answer)
- Paper
- Linen
Correct answer: Silk
Silk wraps are made from a thin, natural material with a tight weave. They are an excellent choice for a lightweight and natural-looking repair because they become transparent when wrap resin is applied. Linen is heavier and opaque, paper is not durable for professional repairs, and fiberglass is a synthetic material, not a natural fiber.
Question 99: Which haircolor level system ranges from 1 (darkest) to 10 (lightest)?
- Tone system
- Saturation system
- Lift system
- Depth system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Depth system
The depth system (also called level system) classifies hair from level 1 black to level 10 lightest blonde.
Question 100: Which acid is classified as an alpha hydroxy acid (AHA) and is commonly derived from milk?
- Lactic acid (Correct answer)
- Azelaic acid
- Salicylic acid
- Glycolic acid
Correct answer: Lactic acid
Lactic acid is an AHA naturally found in milk; it exfoliates the skin surface and is gentler than glycolic acid, making it suitable for sensitive skin.
Cosmetology State Board Exam
The state cosmetology board exam tests theory and practical knowledge for a cosmetology license.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds