CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) & Core 2 (220-1102) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which of the following is an example of network segmentation?

Configuring DHCP to assign IP addresses
Using VLANs to separate departments in an organization (Correct answer)
Encrypting data during transmission
Applying a firewall to block unauthorized access

Correct answer: Using VLANs to separate departments in an organization

Network segmentation involves dividing a larger network into smaller, isolated segments to improve security and performance. Using VLANs to separate departments in an organization is a prime example, as it creates logical boundaries that restrict broadcast traffic and prevent unauthorized access between different departmental segments. This reduces the attack surface and enhances overall network manageability.

Question 2: What is the keyboard shortcut for launching Windows Task Manager?

Ctrl-Shift-Tab
Ctrl-Alt-Del (Correct answer)
F4 on boot
F8 on boot.

Correct answer: Ctrl-Alt-Del

The Ctrl-Alt-Del key combination is a classic Windows shortcut that brings up the Windows Security screen, which includes an option to launch the Task Manager. This combination is often used to access system functions when the system is unresponsive or to ensure security by interrupting other processes before logging in. Alternatively, Ctrl-Shift-Esc can directly open Task Manager.

Question 3: A user logs into their online banking portal. After entering their password correctly, the system sends a unique, one-time code to their smartphone via a text message, which they must also enter to gain access. This is an example of which security practice?

Data Encryption
Single Sign-On (SSO)
Multi-factor Authentication (MFA) (Correct answer)
Biometric Authentication

Correct answer: Multi-factor Authentication (MFA)

Multi-factor Authentication (MFA) is a security process that requires users to provide two or more different authentication factors to verify their identity. In this case, the factors are 'something you know' (the password) and 'something you have' (the smartphone receiving the code).

Question 4: What is the maximum number of active links supported in an 802.3ad LACP EtherChannel bundle?

4
32
8 (Correct answer)
16

Correct answer: 8

IEEE 802.3ad LACP supports up to 8 active links in a bundle, with up to 8 additional standby links ready to take over if an active link fails.

Question 5: A subnet mask of 255.255.252.0 is equivalent to which CIDR prefix notation?

/22 (Correct answer)
/24
/21
/23

Correct answer: /22

CIDR notation represents the number of leading '1's in the subnet mask's binary representation. 255.255.252.0 in binary is 11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000. Counting the number of '1's gives a total of 8 + 8 + 6 = 22. Therefore, the CIDR notation is /22.

Question 6: A technician helps a person access safe mode on their computer. The Windows operating system on the computer is an older version. To enter safe mode, what key should the user repeatedly press during the initial boot?

ESC
F12
F8 (Correct answer)
CTRL

Correct answer: F8

For older versions of Windows (like Windows 7 and earlier), repeatedly pressing the F8 key during the initial boot sequence would bring up the Advanced Boot Options menu. From this menu, users could select various startup modes, including Safe Mode, Safe Mode with Networking, and Safe Mode with Command Prompt. Safe Mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services, which is useful for troubleshooting system problems.

Question 7: A cryptographic hardware component capable of securely storing data such as passwords and keys is referred to by which of the following acronyms?

DLP
TPM (Correct answer)
DMZ
NAT

Correct answer: TPM

TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module. It is a specialized cryptographic hardware component, typically a microchip, that is designed to securely store sensitive data such as encryption keys, passwords, and digital certificates. TPMs provide hardware-level security for cryptographic operations and help protect against tampering, making them crucial for securing devices and data.

Question 8: Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista?

static
public (Correct answer)
private
libraries

Correct answer: public

In Windows Vista (and later versions), the 'Public' network location profile is designed for untrusted networks, such as those in coffee shops or airports. When set to 'Public,' network discovery is automatically disabled, and the firewall applies the most restrictive settings to protect the computer from potential threats on the network.

Question 9: Which Windows edition is the minimum required to join a computer to an Active Directory domain?

Windows Home
Windows Starter
Windows S Mode
Windows Pro (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Windows Pro

Windows Pro (and higher editions) support joining an Active Directory domain; Windows Home does not include this capability.

Question 10: What does the 'ipconfig /flushdns' command do on a Windows machine?

Clears the local DNS resolver cache (Correct answer)
Renews the DHCP IP address lease
Releases the current IP address
Resets all network adapters

Correct answer: Clears the local DNS resolver cache

The 'ipconfig /flushdns' command purges the local DNS cache, which can resolve name resolution issues caused by stale or incorrect cached DNS records.

Question 11: It takes an extremely long time for a user's computer to boot up. What can be done to help resolve the issue?

Disable unnecessary programs from startup. (Correct answer)
Update networking drivers.
Replace the network cable.
Disable Windows updates.

Correct answer: Disable unnecessary programs from startup.

A common cause of slow computer boot-up times is an excessive number of programs configured to launch automatically at startup. Disabling unnecessary programs from the startup sequence reduces the workload on the system during boot, allowing it to start up much faster.

Question 12: In software development, what is a 'library'?

A collection of pre-written reusable code (Correct answer)
A debugging tool
A storage location for source files
A type of version control system

Correct answer: A collection of pre-written reusable code

A library is a collection of pre-written functions and routines that developers can use to avoid rewriting common functionality.

Question 13: A technician wants to schedule a script to run automatically every night on a Windows machine. Which tool should be used?

Task Scheduler (Correct answer)
Event Viewer
Group Policy Editor
Services.msc

Correct answer: Task Scheduler

Task Scheduler allows administrators to create tasks that execute programs or scripts at specified times or in response to system events.

Question 14: A user receives a notification stating "Limited Connectivity" after connecting to a new wireless network. What could be the source of this issue?

There are too many applications open at one time.
The computer did not receive an IP address from the DHCP server after connecting to the network. (Correct answer)
The network service needs to be restarted.
The computer is missing its network interface card.

Correct answer: The computer did not receive an IP address from the DHCP server after connecting to the network.

A 'Limited Connectivity' notification typically means the device has connected to the network's physical layer (e.g., Wi-Fi signal) but failed to obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server. Without an IP address, the computer cannot properly communicate with other devices on the network or access the internet. This prevents full network functionality despite a successful wireless connection.

Question 15: A technician is troubleshooting a potentially faulty network interface card (NIC) on a workstation. To test if the NIC can successfully send and receive data without connecting to the live network, which tool should be used?

Toner probe
Punchdown tool
Loopback adapter (Correct answer)
Cable certifier

Correct answer: Loopback adapter

A loopback adapter is a special plug that connects the transmit (Tx) pins to the receive (Rx) pins on a network port. This allows the NIC to send a signal and immediately receive it back, creating a 'loop'. This test verifies the functionality of the port's internal circuitry without needing a connection to a switch or another device.

Question 16: What is the PRIMARY purpose of obtaining CompTIA certification in CompTIA Computing Technology Industry Association?

To guarantee employment in the field
To demonstrate verified competency and adherence to professional standards (Correct answer)
To satisfy a personal achievement goal
To bypass educational requirements

Correct answer: To demonstrate verified competency and adherence to professional standards

Professional certification demonstrates that an individual has met established competency standards through verified assessment. It provides assurance to employers, clients, and the public that the certified professional possesses the knowledge and skills required for competent practice.

Question 17: ASR was introduced by which operating system?

Windows XP (Correct answer)
Windows 7 Professional
Windows Vista
Windows 7 Home Edition

Correct answer: Windows XP

Automated System Recovery (ASR) was a feature introduced in Windows XP and Windows Server 2003. It was designed to help recover a system from a catastrophic failure by restoring the operating system to a previous state using a backup and an ASR floppy disk or file. ASR was later replaced by other recovery options in subsequent Windows versions.

Question 18: A small business owner wants to set up a guest Wi-Fi network. They are using older access points that do not support WPA2 or WPA3. The only available security options are WEP and WPA with TKIP. Which of the following is the MOST secure option available in this scenario?

WEP with a 128-bit key
WEP with a 64-bit key
WPA with TKIP (Correct answer)
Open network with MAC filtering

Correct answer: WPA with TKIP

While both are now considered insecure, WPA with TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is significantly more secure than WEP. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP and fixed several of its critical flaws, such as implementing a message integrity check and dynamically changing keys. WEP is fundamentally broken and easily cracked, regardless of key length.

Question 19: An attacker sends a fraudulent email that appears to be from a legitimate online retailer, complete with official logos and a link to a fake login page. The email asks the recipient to confirm their account details due to a supposed security breach. What type of attack is this?

Spyware
Brute-force
Phishing (Correct answer)
Denial-of-Service

Correct answer: Phishing

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack where an attacker masquerades as a trusted entity to trick a victim into opening an email, clicking a malicious link, and revealing sensitive information like login credentials.

Question 20: Which of the following is a key function of an operating system?

To provide a user interface for interaction with the computer (Correct answer)
To store files permanently
To execute programs automatically without user input
To control the internet connection speed

Correct answer: To provide a user interface for interaction with the computer

An operating system (OS) is the fundamental software that manages computer hardware and software resources. One of its key functions is to provide a user interface (UI), whether graphical or command-line, allowing users to interact with the computer, launch applications, manage files, and configure settings. Without an OS, a computer would be unable to perform any useful tasks or respond to user input.

Question 21: What is the function of a KVM switch in a hardware environment?

It amplifies video signals over long cable runs
It encrypts keyboard input to prevent keylogging
It converts keyboard signals from PS/2 to USB format
It allows one keyboard, video, and mouse to control multiple computers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It allows one keyboard, video, and mouse to control multiple computers

A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch lets a single set of peripherals control multiple computers by switching the connections between them.

Question 22: Linux command/utilities used to see and edit files?

sudo
netstat
ifconfig (Correct answer)
nslookup

Correct answer: ifconfig

The `ifconfig` command in Linux is primarily used to configure, view, and manage network interfaces. While it doesn't directly edit general text files, it allows users to "see" detailed information about network interfaces, including IP addresses, MAC addresses, and network statistics. This information is often derived from or related to network configuration files, making `ifconfig` a utility for inspecting system-level network data.

Question 23: What does a 80 PLUS Gold certification on a power supply indicate?

The PSU is at least 87% efficient at 20%, 92% at 50%, and 87% at 100% load (Correct answer)
The PSU uses gold-plated connectors for reliability
The PSU can deliver 80 watts of additional headroom above its rated wattage
The PSU has passed 80 hours of burn-in testing

Correct answer: The PSU is at least 87% efficient at 20%, 92% at 50%, and 87% at 100% load

80 PLUS Gold certification means the PSU achieves a minimum efficiency of 87%/92%/87% at 20%/50%/100% load on a 115V AC line.

Question 24: Choose the option that best illustrates key attributes cloud computing from the list below.

Virtualization, Abstraction, Mobility Pattern
Scalable, Shared, Metered Usage, Service, Virtualization (Correct answer)
CAPEX is upfront, No Multi-tenancy, Mix of Physical & Virtualized infrastructure
All of the above

Correct answer: Scalable, Shared, Metered Usage, Service, Virtualization

These attributes accurately define cloud computing. Cloud resources are scalable (can be easily adjusted), shared (multi-tenancy), metered (pay-as-you-go), delivered as a service (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS), and fundamentally built upon virtualization technology. This combination allows for flexible, cost-effective, and on-demand access to computing resources.

Question 25: Which approach is recommended for troubleshooting operating systems issues?

Wait for the problem to resolve itself
Rely solely on past experience
Replace all components simultaneously
Use systematic isolation and testing methods (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use systematic isolation and testing methods

Systematic isolation and testing methodically narrows down the root cause, making troubleshooting efficient and accurate.

Question 26: Which macOS utility provides a graphical view of running processes and system resource usage similar to Windows Task Manager?

Activity Monitor (Correct answer)
Disk Utility
Terminal
Console

Correct answer: Activity Monitor

Activity Monitor on macOS displays CPU, memory, energy, disk, and network usage for all running processes in real time.

Question 27: Which documentation is essential when working with operating systems in CompTIA?

Marketing materials
Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams (Correct answer)
Only verbal notes
General descriptions without specifics

Correct answer: Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams

Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams provide the accurate reference information needed for maintenance and troubleshooting.

Question 28: A cloud administrator needs to define and manage infrastructure using configuration files rather than manual processes. What practice does this describe?

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) (Correct answer)
Load balancing
Cloud bursting
Containerization

Correct answer: Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) involves managing and provisioning cloud infrastructure through machine-readable configuration files, enabling automation, consistency, and version control.

Question 29: Which command on a Windows system would release the current DHCP-assigned IP address?

ipconfig /displaydns
ipconfig /flushdns
ipconfig /release (Correct answer)
ipconfig /renew

Correct answer: ipconfig /release

'ipconfig /release' sends a DHCPRELEASE message to the server and removes the current IP address assignment from the interface.

Question 30: What does a switch primarily use to make forwarding decisions at OSI Layer 2?

VLAN IDs only
MAC addresses (Correct answer)
IP addresses
Port numbers

Correct answer: MAC addresses

Switches operate at the Data Link layer and use MAC address tables to forward frames to the correct port.

Question 31: A company stores customer credit card numbers in plain text in a database. Which security control is MOST needed?

Antivirus
Physical lock
Encryption (Correct answer)
Firewall

Correct answer: Encryption

Encryption converts sensitive data into an unreadable format, protecting it even if the database is compromised.

Question 32: Which macOS command-line tool is used to manage software packages installed via Homebrew?

brew (Correct answer)
yum
apt
pkg

Correct answer: brew

The 'brew' command is the Homebrew package manager's CLI tool used to install, update, and remove software packages on macOS.

Question 33: Which display technology produces pictures by passing light via liquid crystals?

LCD (Correct answer)
Pixels
LED
Plasma

Correct answer: LCD

Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) technology produces images by manipulating liquid crystals to block or allow light to pass through. These crystals are arranged in pixels, and when an electric current is applied, they change their orientation, controlling the amount of light that reaches the viewer. This process forms the images seen on LCD screens, which are common in monitors, televisions, and mobile devices.

Question 34: A small startup is looking for a word processing application with a very limited budget. They also require the ability to view and modify the application's source code to create a custom version for their specific needs. Which of the following software license types would be the MOST suitable choice?

Shareware
Proprietary
Open-source (Correct answer)
End-User License Agreement (EULA)

Correct answer: Open-source

Open-source software provides users with access to the source code, allowing them to view, modify, and distribute it. This fits the startup's requirement to create a custom version and is typically free of cost, addressing their budget constraints. Proprietary software's source code is not available, shareware is a trial-based proprietary model, and a EULA is the contract for using software, not the license type that allows for source code modification.

Question 35: A network administrator wants to ensure that a specific switch always becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10. Which STP parameter should be modified?

Increase the STP hello timer on that switch
Set all ports to PortFast mode on that switch
Lower the bridge priority value for VLAN 10 on that switch (Correct answer)
Increase the max-age timer on that switch

Correct answer: Lower the bridge priority value for VLAN 10 on that switch

Lowering the bridge priority (in increments of 4096) for a specific VLAN ensures that switch wins the root bridge election for that VLAN.

Question 36: Which command in Windows is used to check and repair file system errors on a drive?

format /q
sfc /scannow
diskpart
chkdsk /f (Correct answer)

Correct answer: chkdsk /f

The 'chkdsk /f' command scans the specified drive for file system errors and fixes them; /f is required to actually repair found errors.

Question 37: Which of the following allows a single physical switch port to carry traffic for multiple VLANs by adding a special tag to the Ethernet frames?

IEEE 802.1Q (Correct answer)
Port Security
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
Native VLAN

Correct answer: IEEE 802.1Q

The IEEE 802.1Q standard defines a system of VLAN tagging for Ethernet frames. When a port is configured as a trunk, it uses 802.1Q to insert a 4-byte tag into the frame header, which identifies the VLAN to which the frame belongs. This allows a single link to transport traffic for many different VLANs between switches or other network devices.

Question 38: Which wireless security protocol is recommended as the most secure option for protecting a home Wi-Fi network?

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)
WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)
WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup)
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)

WPA2 uses AES encryption and is significantly more secure than WEP and WPA, making it the recommended standard for home and small business wireless networks.

Question 39: Which foundational principle is MOST important for success in the CompTIA Computing Technology Industry Association profession?

Maximizing financial returns on every engagement
Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes (Correct answer)
Maintaining the minimum requirements for certification
Specializing in only one narrow area of practice

Correct answer: Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes

Success in any professional field requires a commitment to continuous learning to stay current, ethical practice to maintain trust and integrity, and a focus on quality outcomes that serve stakeholders and the public interest.

Question 40: Identify typical issues encountered by testers while performing mobile testing in Cloud Computing.

Issues with internet access, lock-in, and the subscription model (Correct answer)
None of the above
Expensive, time-zone differences, and a language barrier
Automation is image-based and time-consuming; there are blackouts; and the pay is low

Correct answer: Issues with internet access, lock-in, and the subscription model

When performing mobile testing in a cloud environment, common challenges include reliance on stable internet access, as connectivity issues can disrupt testing. 'Lock-in' refers to being tied to a specific cloud provider's ecosystem, making it difficult to switch. The subscription model, while offering flexibility, can also lead to unpredictable costs if not managed carefully.

Question 41: A customer complains that he is continuously receiving e-mail responses to things he never sent. What happened to his computer system?

He is a victim of shoulder surfing.
He is experiencing a zero-day attack.
His firewall has been misconfigured.
He is a victim of malware. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: He is a victim of malware.

Receiving email responses to messages you didn't send is a strong indicator that your email account or computer has been compromised by malware. This malware, often a bot or virus, can send spam or malicious emails from your account without your knowledge, leading to bounce-back messages or replies from recipients. This is a common symptom of a compromised system.

Question 42: What is the primary function of data encryption?

To prevent hardware failures and data loss.
To make data unreadable to unauthorized individuals. (Correct answer)
To verify the identity of a system user.
To guarantee data is always accessible to authorized users.

Correct answer: To make data unreadable to unauthorized individuals.

Encryption is the process of converting readable data (plaintext) into an unreadable format (ciphertext) using a code or key. Its main purpose is to protect the confidentiality of data by ensuring that only authorized parties with the correct key can decrypt and read it.

Question 43: What does MSDS/SDS documentation provide, and why is it important in IT?

Technical specifications for computer hardware components
Network topology and infrastructure diagrams
Software licensing and compliance documentation
Safety information about hazardous materials for proper handling and disposal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety information about hazardous materials for proper handling and disposal

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) / Safety Data Sheets (SDS) provide information about hazardous materials including proper handling, storage, disposal, and emergency procedures. In IT, this is relevant for toner cartridges, batteries, cleaning solvents, and CRT monitor components, which require proper disposal procedures.

Question 44: What does 'bandwidth' measure in a network context?

The delay between sending and receiving data
The number of devices on a network
The physical length of a network cable
The maximum data transfer rate of a connection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The maximum data transfer rate of a connection

Bandwidth refers to the maximum rate at which data can be transmitted over a network connection, typically measured in Mbps or Gbps.

Question 45: What is the most number of priorities that may be specified on a SCSI device whose ID is set by three jumpers?

7 (Correct answer)
0
18
5

Correct answer: 7

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) devices are assigned a unique ID for identification and priority on the bus. When an ID is set by three jumpers, each jumper represents a binary bit. Three bits allow for 2^3 = 8 possible combinations (0-7). However, SCSI ID 7 is typically reserved for the host adapter, leaving IDs 0 through 6 available for other devices, which totals 7 distinct priorities.

Question 46: What is the primary consideration when implementing changes to operating systems?

Vendor preference
Impact assessment and change management (Correct answer)
Speed of implementation
Personal convenience

Correct answer: Impact assessment and change management

Impact assessment and proper change management ensure that modifications do not introduce unexpected problems or service disruptions.

Question 47: A cloud computing service model that provides remote access to programs in exchange for a monthly or annual membership fee is known as:Correct answer: SaaS

DaaS
PaaS
SaaS (Correct answer)
IaaS

Correct answer: SaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model where applications are hosted by a vendor and made available to customers over the internet. Users typically access these programs via a web browser or client application, paying a recurring subscription fee for the service. This eliminates the need for users to install, maintain, or update the software themselves.

Question 48: A technician receives a 'Stop Error' (Blue Screen of Death) on a Windows machine. Which file should be analyzed first to identify the cause?

system.ini
pagefile.sys
Minidump (.dmp) file (Correct answer)
boot.ini

Correct answer: Minidump (.dmp) file

Minidump files (located in C:\Windows\Minidump) capture memory state at the time of a crash and are analyzed with tools like WinDbg to identify the cause.

Question 49: What is exFAT's other name?

NTFS5
FAT16
NTFS
FAT64 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FAT64

exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table) is a Microsoft file system optimized for flash memory devices like USB drives and SD cards. It is often referred to as FAT64 because it significantly extends the capabilities of the older FAT32 file system, primarily by supporting much larger file sizes and partition sizes, effectively utilizing 64-bit file size entries.

Question 50: Which cooling solution is BEST suited for extreme overclocking scenarios where air cooling is insufficient?

Custom open-loop liquid cooling system (Correct answer)
Larger heatsink with copper heatpipes
Additional case fans
All-in-one liquid cooler (AIO)

Correct answer: Custom open-loop liquid cooling system

Custom open-loop liquid cooling offers the highest thermal capacity and flexibility, allowing larger radiators and specialized coolants needed for extreme overclocking.

Question 51: Which concept refers to the ability of a system to continue operating even if one component fails?

Bandwidth
Interoperability
Scalability
Fault tolerance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fault tolerance

Fault tolerance is the capability of a system to keep functioning when one or more of its components fail.

Question 52: Which cable standard supports 10 Gbps over distances up to 55 meters using existing Cat6 cabling?

10GBASE-SR on Cat6
10GBASE-T on Cat6 (Correct answer)
10GBASE-T on Cat5e
10GBASE-T on Cat6a

Correct answer: 10GBASE-T on Cat6

10GBASE-T can run on Cat6 but is limited to 55 meters due to alien crosstalk; Cat6a extends this to 100 meters.

Question 53: Which of the following uses parallel communications?

Mouse
USB printer
External Storage Device (Correct answer)
Keyboard

Correct answer: External Storage Device

Parallel communication involves transmitting multiple bits of data simultaneously over several wires. Historically, many external storage devices, such as those using SCSI or older PATA (Parallel ATA) interfaces, relied on parallel communication for data transfer. While modern external storage predominantly uses serial interfaces, this category has a history of utilizing parallel communication.

Question 54: What is the purpose of a firewall in a network?

To filter and monitor incoming and outgoing network traffic (Correct answer)
To provide physical security for network devices
To optimize network performance
To assign IP addresses to devices

Correct answer: To filter and monitor incoming and outgoing network traffic

A firewall acts as a security barrier, controlling network traffic based on predefined security rules. Its primary purpose is to inspect incoming and outgoing data packets and decide whether to allow or block them, protecting a private network from unauthorized access and malicious threats from external networks. This filtering helps enforce security policies and prevent cyberattacks.

Question 55: A company uses multiple public cloud providers simultaneously to avoid vendor lock-in and optimize performance. What strategy is this?

Hybrid cloud
Cloud bursting
Community cloud
Multicloud (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Multicloud

A multicloud strategy involves using services from two or more public cloud providers to leverage best-of-breed features and avoid dependency on any single provider.

Question 56: A user receives an email appearing to be from their bank asking them to verify account details via a link. This is BEST described as:

Vishing
Phishing (Correct answer)
Spear phishing
Pharming

Correct answer: Phishing

Phishing uses deceptive emails that appear legitimate to trick users into revealing sensitive information.

Question 57: Which Agile concept refers to a fixed-length work period, typically one to four weeks?

Sprint (Correct answer)
Prototype
Waterfall
Kanban

Correct answer: Sprint

In Agile/Scrum methodology, a sprint is a fixed-length iteration during which a set of planned features is developed and tested.

Question 58: What is the primary purpose of the OSI model?

To manage wireless radio frequencies
To encrypt all network data
To provide a standardized framework for network communication (Correct answer)
To assign IP addresses to devices

Correct answer: To provide a standardized framework for network communication

The OSI model provides a seven-layer framework that standardizes how different network systems communicate with each other.

Question 59: Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system?

Type 2 hypervisor
Hosted hypervisor
Paravirtualization layer
Type 1 hypervisor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Type 1 hypervisor

A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor runs directly on hardware, offering better performance and isolation than Type 2 hypervisors that run on top of a host OS.

Question 60: Which Linux filesystem type is commonly used as the default for most modern Linux distributions?

ext4 (Correct answer)
FAT32
HFS+
NTFS

Correct answer: ext4

ext4 is the fourth extended filesystem and is the default filesystem for most mainstream Linux distributions due to its journaling, performance, and reliability.

Question 61: BGP is primarily used to exchange routing information between which entities?

Subnets within a single enterprise LAN
VLANs within a switched campus network
Wireless access points and their controllers
Autonomous systems operated by different organizations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Autonomous systems operated by different organizations

BGP exchanges routing information between autonomous systems (identified by AS numbers), making it the routing protocol that powers the global internet.

Question 62: Which RAID level provides disk striping with distributed parity and requires a minimum of three drives?

RAID 1
RAID 5 (Correct answer)
RAID 10
RAID 0

Correct answer: RAID 5

RAID 5 stripes data with distributed parity across at least three drives, providing fault tolerance for a single drive failure.

Question 63: A small business owner wants to set up a new office network. They need a central, powerful computer to store and manage shared files, user accounts, and applications for about 15 employee computers. Which computing concept does this scenario describe?

Cloud Computing
Standalone Computing
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) Network
Client-Server Model (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Client-Server Model

The client-server model is a structure that partitions tasks or workloads between the providers of a resource or service, called servers, and service requesters, called clients. In this scenario, the central computer acts as a server, and the employee computers are the clients. A peer-to-peer network lacks a central server, standalone computing involves isolated machines, and cloud computing would involve hosting these services on the internet rather than on a local, central computer.

Question 64: A technician needs to connect a computer to a network without Wi-Fi. Which component is required?

NIC (Network Interface Card) (Correct answer)
Sound card
Bluetooth adapter
Wireless adapter

Correct answer: NIC (Network Interface Card)

A NIC (Network Interface Card) provides the wired Ethernet port needed to connect a computer directly to a network via cable.

Question 65: In a relational database table for employees, each employee is assigned a unique 'EmployeeID' number that is never duplicated. What is the database term for this type of field?

Foreign Key
Schema
Primary Key (Correct answer)
Record

Correct answer: Primary Key

A Primary Key is a field in a database table that uniquely identifies each record or row. The 'EmployeeID' serves this purpose, as it provides a unique identifier for every employee, ensuring no two records are the same and that each can be reliably referenced.

Question 66: A user's laptop has a single, small, oval-shaped port that is used for charging, data transfer, and video output. The user can plug the cable in without worrying about its orientation. What type of port is this?

USB-C (Correct answer)
DisplayPort
Ethernet
USB-A

Correct answer: USB-C

USB-C is a modern, versatile, and reversible connector standard. It is known for its small, oval shape and its ability to handle power delivery, data transfer, and video output over a single cable.

Question 67: Which of the following is replacing the MBR in 64-bit versions of the Windows operating system?

DOS
EXFAT
GPT (Correct answer)
MBR

Correct answer: GPT

GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a newer standard for the layout of the partition table on a physical hard disk, replacing the older MBR (Master Boot Record) scheme. GPT offers several advantages, including support for larger disk sizes (over 2 TB), more partitions, and improved data integrity through redundancy. It is the standard partitioning scheme for 64-bit versions of Windows operating systems, especially when using UEFI firmware.

Question 68: When installing a CPU cooler with a backplate mounting system on an ATX motherboard, why should the motherboard be removed from the case?

Backplate coolers cannot be installed with the board in the case
To prevent static discharge from the case
To reset the BIOS by removing the CMOS battery simultaneously
To access the back of the motherboard for backplate installation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To access the back of the motherboard for backplate installation

Backplate mounting requires access to the rear of the motherboard, which is typically obstructed by the case unless the board is removed.

Question 69: What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

TCP is reliable and connection-oriented; UDP is faster but connectionless with no delivery guarantee (Correct answer)
TCP is faster; UDP is slower but more reliable
TCP is used for video streaming; UDP is used for file transfers
TCP and UDP are identical protocols with different port numbers

Correct answer: TCP is reliable and connection-oriented; UDP is faster but connectionless with no delivery guarantee

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is connection-oriented and provides reliable, ordered, error-checked delivery through acknowledgments and retransmission. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless and provides faster but unreliable delivery with no acknowledgments. TCP is used for HTTP/HTTPS, email, FTP. UDP is used for DNS, video streaming, VoIP.

Question 70: A network administrator is setting up a wireless network for a large corporation. The security policy requires that each user authenticates with their unique network credentials rather than using a shared password. Which of the following wireless security configurations should be implemented?

WPA2-PSK
WPA2-Enterprise (Correct answer)
WPA3-Personal
WEP

Correct answer: WPA2-Enterprise

WPA2-Enterprise mode uses the IEEE 802.1X standard to authenticate each user individually, typically against a RADIUS server. This method allows for unique credentials for every user, which is a requirement for robust corporate security. WPA2-PSK and WPA3-Personal use a Pre-Shared Key, where all users share the same password. WEP is an obsolete and insecure protocol.

Question 71: What is the main goal of a penetration test?

Monitor network traffic for intrusions
Install security software across the network
Simulate real-world attacks to identify vulnerabilities before malicious actors do (Correct answer)
Train employees on security awareness

Correct answer: Simulate real-world attacks to identify vulnerabilities before malicious actors do

A penetration test ethically simulates attacks on a system to discover exploitable vulnerabilities before real attackers find them.

Question 72: Your iPad has an application that ill not stop running. What feature/tool can you use to stop it?

time machine
forced kill
force quit (Correct answer)
replay attack

Correct answer: force quit

On Apple iOS devices (like an iPad), if an application becomes unresponsive or "will not stop running," users can perform a "force quit" to terminate it. This is typically done by swiping up from the bottom of the screen (or double-tapping the Home button on older devices) to bring up the App Switcher, then swiping the problematic app's preview card upwards to close it. This action forcibly ends the application's process.

Question 73: A security auditor notes that all switch ports in a company are active, even those in unused offices, and that services like HTTP are enabled on the switch's management interface. Which hardening principle has been primarily violated?

Implementing the principle of least privilege
Reducing the attack surface (Correct answer)
Defense in depth
Enforcing role-based access control

Correct answer: Reducing the attack surface

The attack surface is the total number of points or vectors through which an attacker can try to enter a system. By leaving unused ports active and unnecessary services running, the administrator has created more potential entry points for an attacker, thus failing to reduce the attack surface. [1, 2, 7]

Question 74: What situation is referred to by the phrase "brownout"?

Interference in the electromagnetic field
Power outage
Power spike
Voltage drop (temporary) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Voltage drop (temporary)

A brownout refers to a temporary drop in voltage in an electrical power supply. This reduction in power can cause electronic devices to malfunction, operate inefficiently, or even shut down unexpectedly, as they are not receiving sufficient power to operate correctly. It is less severe than a complete power outage.

Question 75: A technician is installing a new PCIe x16 graphics card but the slot cover screw is stripped. What is the safest immediate action?

Force-remove the screw with pliers without concern for damage
Skip securing the GPU with a screw since the slot holds it
Use a screw extractor tool or a rubber band to grip and remove the stripped screw (Correct answer)
Drill out the screw hole entirely

Correct answer: Use a screw extractor tool or a rubber band to grip and remove the stripped screw

A screw extractor or rubber band grip technique removes stripped screws safely without damaging the chassis or nearby components.

Question 76: What address should you use as the default gateway address when manually configuring TCP/IP settings on a PC in a SOHO network?

It should be left blank.
the internal address of the Internet router (Correct answer)
the IP address of that computer
the network address of the local LAN

Correct answer: the internal address of the Internet router

The default gateway is the IP address of the device that a computer uses to send traffic to destinations outside its local network. In a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) network, this is typically the internal IP address of the router that connects the local network to the Internet. Without a correctly configured default gateway, the PC cannot communicate with devices on other networks, including the Internet.

Question 77: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a software 'plug-in' or 'extension'?

A license upgrade for premium features
A backup copy of installed software
A standalone replacement for an existing application
Additional functionality added to an existing application (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Additional functionality added to an existing application

Plug-ins and extensions add specific features to an existing application without replacing it.

Question 78: Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a cloud-hosted application (SaaS) over a locally installed application?

It can be accessed from multiple devices with an internet connection. (Correct answer)
The user has full control over the application's source code.
Data is stored on the local device by default, enhancing control.
The application can be used without an internet connection.

Correct answer: It can be accessed from multiple devices with an internet connection.

Cloud-hosted applications, or Software as a Service (SaaS), are accessed via the internet. This allows users to log in and use the software from any compatible device (laptop, tablet, phone), offering greater flexibility and accessibility than locally installed software, which is tied to a specific machine.

Question 79: What does the principle of 'defense in depth' mean in cybersecurity?

Storing data in deeply nested directories
Layering multiple security controls so that if one fails, others still protect the system (Correct answer)
Performing deep packet inspection on all traffic
Using the deepest available encryption algorithm

Correct answer: Layering multiple security controls so that if one fails, others still protect the system

Defense in depth uses multiple overlapping security layers so an attacker must bypass each one to compromise the system.

Question 80: Which 802.11 amendment introduced Multi-User MIMO (MU-MIMO) allowing simultaneous transmission to multiple clients?

802.11g
802.11ac Wave 2 (Correct answer)
802.11a
802.11n

Correct answer: 802.11ac Wave 2

802.11ac Wave 2 introduced MU-MIMO, enabling an AP to transmit to multiple clients simultaneously rather than one at a time.

Question 81: What is the purpose of a default gateway on a host?

Assign IP addresses dynamically
Forward traffic destined for remote networks (Correct answer)
Filter incoming packets by port number
Resolve hostnames to IP addresses

Correct answer: Forward traffic destined for remote networks

The default gateway is the router interface a host uses to send packets to destinations outside its local subnet.

Question 82: Which of the following BEST describes a database schema?

The blueprint that defines the database's structure, including its tables, fields, and relationships. (Correct answer)
A single row of data containing all fields for one entry.
A compressed backup file of the database's data.
A software application used to query the database.

Correct answer: The blueprint that defines the database's structure, including its tables, fields, and relationships.

A database schema is the logical blueprint or framework of a database. [8, 12] It outlines the tables, the fields within those tables, the data types for each field, and the relationships between the tables, but does not contain the actual data itself. [11, 16]

Question 83: What kind of connector is often used to transfer electricity from a PC's power supply to an internal hard drive, CD or DVD drive?

USB 3.0
Molex (Correct answer)
USB-C
DB-9

Correct answer: Molex

A Molex connector is a legacy power connector commonly used in older PCs to supply 12V and 5V power to internal components. It was primarily utilized for IDE hard drives, CD/DVD drives, and some case fans before the widespread adoption of SATA power connectors. While less common in modern systems, it's still found in many existing computers and power supplies.

Question 84: A technician captures network traffic and notices that data is being transferred using port 443. Which OSI layer is associated with port numbers?

Data Link layer
Application layer
Transport layer (Correct answer)
Network layer

Correct answer: Transport layer

Port numbers are a Transport layer (Layer 4) concept used to identify specific processes or services on a host.

Question 85: A switch port is configured with 'switchport nonegotiate'. What does this command do?

Enables BPDU guard
Prevents the port from sending DTP frames to negotiate trunking (Correct answer)
Disables VTP on the port
Forces the port into access mode

Correct answer: Prevents the port from sending DTP frames to negotiate trunking

'switchport nonegotiate' disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) negotiation on the port, preventing automatic trunk formation — a recommended security hardening step.

Question 86: Which Windows tool allows a technician to view, start, stop, and configure background services?

msconfig
Task Manager
services.msc (Correct answer)
regedit

Correct answer: services.msc

The Services console (services.msc) provides full control over Windows services including start/stop, startup type configuration, and recovery options.

Question 87: A Layer 3 switch combines the functionality of which two devices?

Switch and router (Correct answer)
Bridge and hub
Repeater and switch
Hub and router

Correct answer: Switch and router

A Layer 3 switch combines the high-speed port density of a switch with the routing capability of a router for inter-VLAN routing.

Question 88: What is the administrative distance of a directly connected network interface?

0 (Correct answer)
5
110
1

Correct answer: 0

Directly connected routes have an administrative distance of 0, making them the most trusted route source since the router is physically part of that network.

Question 89: A user reports they cannot access the internet, but they can access local file shares. A technician checks the user's IP configuration and finds the IPv4 address is 169.254.100.5. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

The static IP address is misconfigured.
The computer failed to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. (Correct answer)
The default gateway is offline.
The computer has a duplicate IP address on the network.

Correct answer: The computer failed to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

The IP address 169.254.100.5 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. Windows and other operating systems assign these addresses when a device is configured for DHCP but cannot contact a DHCP server. This allows for local network communication but no internet access.

Question 90: Which mobile communications technology allows two portable devices to connect wirelessly at a range of roughly 2 inches, provides encryption, and is becoming a highly popular way of transmitting payments via a smartphone?

NFC (Correct answer)
Local area network
802.11 b
Bluetooth

Correct answer: NFC

Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that enables two devices to communicate when they are brought within a few centimeters (typically 2 inches) of each other. It provides secure, encrypted data exchange and is widely adopted for contactless payments, such as mobile wallets, and for quick pairing of devices. Its close-proximity requirement enhances security for transactions.

Question 91: Which layer of the OSI model converts data into a format suitable for transmission, including encryption and compression?

Application layer
Session layer
Presentation layer (Correct answer)
Transport layer

Correct answer: Presentation layer

The Presentation layer (Layer 6) handles data translation, encryption, and compression to ensure data is in a usable format.

Question 92: A company wants to ensure that a network device's operating system has not been tampered with during boot. Which feature provides this assurance?

BIOS password
NTP authentication
SNMP v3 encryption
Secure Boot / image signing verification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Secure Boot / image signing verification

Secure Boot and cryptographic image signing verify that the firmware/OS binary matches a trusted hash before execution.

Question 93: A user logs into their corporate portal by first entering a password. They are then required to approve a push notification sent to their company-issued smartphone. This process is an example of which security concept?

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) (Correct answer)
Biometrics
Single sign-on (SSO)
Role-based access control (RBAC)

Correct answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring two or more distinct verification methods. This scenario uses 'something you know' (the password) and 'something you have' (the smartphone), which is a classic implementation of MFA.

Question 94: What is the example of a teletypewriter terminal?

Storage devices
Output devices
Input devices
Input/output devices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Input/output devices

A teletypewriter terminal, often abbreviated as TTY, is a device equipped with a keyboard for entering text and a printer or screen for displaying output. This dual functionality means it can both receive input from a user and provide output back to the user. Therefore, it is classified as an input/output (I/O) device.

Question 95: Which Windows feature allows an administrator to run a command prompt with elevated privileges?

Run as administrator (Correct answer)
Windows Defender
User Account Control prompt
Task Scheduler

Correct answer: Run as administrator

Right-clicking and selecting 'Run as administrator' launches the application with elevated (administrator-level) privileges.

Question 96: Which cloud storage type is best suited for storing large amounts of unstructured data such as images, videos, and backups in a flat namespace?

Object storage (Correct answer)
Block storage
File storage
Archive storage

Correct answer: Object storage

Object storage stores data as discrete objects with metadata and unique identifiers in a flat namespace, making it ideal for large-scale unstructured data like media files and backups.

Question 97: Which BIOS feature, when enabled, allows the operating system to manage CPU power states and reduce power consumption at idle?

Secure Boot
CSM (Compatibility Support Module)
EIST / SpeedStep / Cool'n'Quiet (Correct answer)
XMP/EXPO profile

Correct answer: EIST / SpeedStep / Cool'n'Quiet

Intel EIST (SpeedStep) and AMD Cool'n'Quiet/CPB are CPU power management features that dynamically lower clock speed and voltage at idle to reduce power draw.

Question 98: What does the acronym BIOS stand for?

Basic Integrated Operating Software
Binary Input Output System
Basic Input/Output System (Correct answer)
Built-In Operating System

Correct answer: Basic Input/Output System

BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System, the firmware that initializes hardware during the boot process before handing control to the OS.

Question 99: A graphic designer has created a company logo that includes a transparent background. They need to save the file in a format that supports transparency and is suitable for use on a website. Which of the following file formats should they use?

.TXT
.JPG
.PNG (Correct answer)
.MP3

Correct answer: .PNG

The PNG (Portable Network Graphics) format is a raster graphics format that supports lossless data compression and, crucially, transparency, making it ideal for web graphics like logos. JPG does not support transparency. TXT is for plain text, and MP3 is an audio file format.

Question 100: A switch port connected to a host is placed in the err-disabled state. Which condition most likely caused this?

BPDU guard detected a BPDU on a PortFast-enabled port (Correct answer)
The host requested more than one IP address via DHCP
The host sent more than the allowed number of packets per second
The link speed was auto-negotiated to a lower value

Correct answer: BPDU guard detected a BPDU on a PortFast-enabled port

BPDU guard places a PortFast-enabled port into err-disabled state upon receiving any BPDU, indicating an unauthorized switch connection.

Question 101: What is a zero-day vulnerability?

A bug introduced on the first day of software development
A vulnerability that has been patched within zero days
A flaw that is unknown to the vendor and has no available patch (Correct answer)
A vulnerability that causes zero downtime

Correct answer: A flaw that is unknown to the vendor and has no available patch

A zero-day vulnerability is an unknown security flaw that vendors have had zero days to address, leaving systems exposed.

Question 102: An administrator wants to harden a wireless network against deauthentication frame attacks. Which feature should be enabled?

WEP with dynamic keys
Hidden SSID broadcasting
Management Frame Protection (802.11w) (Correct answer)
WPA2-Personal

Correct answer: Management Frame Protection (802.11w)

802.11w Management Frame Protection cryptographically protects management frames such as deauthentication and disassociation frames.

Question 103: How does the CompTIA body of knowledge relate to daily professional practice?

It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices (Correct answer)
It only applies during certification exams
It is theoretical and has limited practical application
It is relevant only for academic research

Correct answer: It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices

The body of knowledge provides the foundational framework of principles, standards, and best practices that professionals use to guide their daily decision-making, ensure consistent quality, and maintain alignment with industry standards.

Question 104: Which Linux command displays all currently running processes with details such as PID, CPU, and memory usage?

top -b -n1
ps aux (Correct answer)
netstat -an
ls -la

Correct answer: ps aux

The 'ps aux' command lists all running processes for all users along with their PID, CPU%, memory%, and command details.

Question 105: An administrator is configuring an 802.11n network and wants to double the effective data rate by using two adjacent 20 MHz channels together to form a single 40 MHz channel. What is this feature called?

Channel Bonding (Correct answer)
OFDMA
Beamforming
MU-MIMO

Correct answer: Channel Bonding

Channel bonding is a feature introduced in the 802.11n standard that allows two adjacent 20 MHz channels to be combined into a single 40 MHz channel. [7, 10, 16] This effectively doubles the channel width, which can lead to a significant increase in the physical data rate. [7, 10]

Question 106: A user's system freezes randomly and blue-screens. Memory diagnostics pass but the issue persists. What should the technician investigate NEXT?

Update the monitor's firmware
Reinstall the operating system immediately
Replace the keyboard and mouse
Check CPU temperature and thermal paste condition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check CPU temperature and thermal paste condition

After ruling out RAM, thermal throttling or CPU overheating due to dried thermal paste or a failing cooler is the next most common cause of random BSODs and freezes.

Question 107: Sally is at her business office in a remote part of town when a thunderstorm causes her laptop to lose Internet service. She uses satellite, so she might have to wait till the storm passes before getting online again. She asks you for a temporary solution because she just has her cell phone with her. What would you recommend?

Power off the satellite, wait 30 seconds, then power it back on.
Use the phone’s Bluetooth ability.
There is no temporary solution.
Use the phone’s tethering ability. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use the phone’s tethering ability.

Phone tethering allows a smartphone to share its cellular data connection with other devices, such as a laptop, via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. In a situation where the primary internet connection (satellite) is unavailable due to a storm, using the phone's tethering ability provides an immediate and temporary way for the laptop to get online using the phone's mobile data plan.

Question 108: What is the primary purpose of thermal paste applied between a CPU and its heatsink?

Fill microscopic air gaps to improve thermal conductivity (Correct answer)
Electrically insulate the CPU from the heatsink
Prevent electrostatic discharge
Permanently bond the heatsink to the CPU

Correct answer: Fill microscopic air gaps to improve thermal conductivity

Thermal paste fills microscopic surface imperfections between the CPU and heatsink to maximize heat transfer efficiency.

Question 109: In a relational database table for employees, what is the primary purpose of a 'EmployeeID' column that is designated as a primary key?

To link the employee table to an external spreadsheet.
To store the employee's full name for easy sorting.
To count the total number of records in the table.
To uniquely identify each employee record in the table. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To uniquely identify each employee record in the table.

A primary key is a column (or a set of columns) in a table whose main purpose is to uniquely identify each record in that table. [27, 7] An 'EmployeeID' is a perfect candidate for a primary key because each employee will have a unique ID, ensuring no two records are identical and allowing for reliable data retrieval and relationships.

Question 110: An employee receives a phone call from someone claiming to be IT support and asking for their password. What should the employee do?

Change the password and then tell the caller the new one
Ask the caller to email them first, then provide the password
Refuse to provide the password and report the call to security (Correct answer)
Provide the password since IT staff are trusted

Correct answer: Refuse to provide the password and report the call to security

Legitimate IT staff never ask for user passwords; this is likely a vishing (voice phishing) social engineering attempt.

Question 111: Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software but performs malicious actions when executed?

Trojan horse (Correct answer)
Rootkit
Adware
Worm

Correct answer: Trojan horse

A Trojan horse masquerades as legitimate or useful software while secretly executing malicious functions.

Question 112: A technician needs to check disk usage on a Linux system. Which command displays disk space usage for all mounted filesystems?

df -h (Correct answer)
lsblk -f
fdisk -l
du -sh

Correct answer: df -h

The 'df -h' command displays disk space usage for all mounted filesystems in human-readable format.

Question 113: You've just successfully removed all viruses from a computer system. The seventh and last step in CompTIA A+'s "Best Practice for Removing Malware" is ____, according to CompTIA A+ specifications.

Download latest virus definition files.
Quarantine the affected system.
Educate the end user. (Correct answer)
Disable system restore.

Correct answer: Educate the end user.

According to CompTIA A+'s 'Best Practice for Removing Malware,' educating the end user is the seventh and final step in the malware removal process. This crucial step aims to prevent future infections by informing users about safe computing practices, recognizing threats, and understanding the importance of security measures. It empowers users to be more vigilant and proactive in maintaining system security.

Question 114: What does NTFS offer over FAT32 that makes it preferred for modern Windows installations?

Compatibility with macOS
Faster read speeds on USB drives
Support for files larger than 4 GB (Correct answer)
Lower disk overhead

Correct answer: Support for files larger than 4 GB

NTFS supports individual file sizes greater than 4 GB, whereas FAT32 has a 4 GB per-file limit, making NTFS essential for modern workloads.

Question 115: What is the role of the root bridge in Spanning Tree Protocol?

It is the reference point from which all STP path costs are calculated (Correct answer)
It forwards all inter-VLAN traffic in the network
It blocks all redundant ports to prevent loops
It assigns VLAN IDs to all connected switches

Correct answer: It is the reference point from which all STP path costs are calculated

The root bridge serves as the logical center of the spanning tree; all other switches calculate port costs relative to the path to the root bridge.

Question 116: Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as virtual machines and storage, without managing the underlying hardware?

Function as a Service (FaaS)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) (Correct answer)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Correct answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

IaaS provides virtualized hardware resources (VMs, storage, networking) over the internet, letting users manage OS and applications while the provider handles physical infrastructure.

Question 117: A technician needs to determine the path packets take from a workstation to a remote server that is intermittently unreachable. Which command is MOST appropriate?

tracert / traceroute (Correct answer)
ping
arp -a
nslookup

Correct answer: tracert / traceroute

tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux/Mac) maps the hop-by-hop path to a destination, revealing where packet loss or high latency occurs.

Question 118: A company policy requires employees to create strong passwords for all their accounts. Which of the following passwords BEST adheres to the principles of creating a strong password?

Tr@vel2Fr@nce
BlueCar!Sun98Flower? (Correct answer)
Jsmith2026!
Password123

Correct answer: BlueCar!Sun98Flower?

A strong password should be long (12-16 characters or more is recommended), use a mix of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols, and avoid easily guessable information or common words. 'BlueCar!Sun98Flower?' is the longest, most complex, and most random of the choices.

Question 119: What is the purpose of thermal paste applied between a CPU and its heatsink?

It bonds the heatsink permanently to the CPU
It prevents static electricity from damaging the CPU
It acts as an electrical conductor to improve signal speed
It fills microscopic air gaps to improve thermal conductivity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It fills microscopic air gaps to improve thermal conductivity

Thermal paste fills microscopic surface imperfections between the CPU lid and heatsink, eliminating insulating air gaps and improving heat transfer.

Question 120: This protocol is frequently associated with Active Directory in a Windows system for central control of a user database. What is the name of this protocol?

Exchange
Domain Controller
Office 365
LDAP (Correct answer)

Correct answer: LDAP

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is an open, industry-standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services. It is commonly used by Microsoft's Active Directory to store and organize information about network resources, users, and computers. This enables central authentication, authorization, and management within a Windows system.

Question 121: Which of the following is a primary hardware component of a modern smartphone responsible for processing commands and running applications?

Accelerometer
Battery
SIM card
Processor (CPU) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Processor (CPU)

The processor, or CPU (Central Processing Unit), is the core component that acts as the 'brain' of the smartphone, executing commands and running the operating system and applications. The SIM card provides cellular connectivity, the accelerometer detects motion, and the battery provides power.

Question 122: In the context of operating systems, what is a 'kernel'?

A type of virtual machine
The OS installer program
The graphical user interface of the OS
The core component that manages hardware resources and system calls (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The core component that manages hardware resources and system calls

The kernel is the core of an operating system that directly manages hardware resources, handles system calls, and mediates communication between software and hardware.

Question 123: A user reports that their web browser redirects to unexpected websites and shows pop-up ads. What type of infection is most likely?

Adware or browser hijacker (PUP/malware) (Correct answer)
Ransomware
Rootkit
Logic bomb

Correct answer: Adware or browser hijacker (PUP/malware)

Browser redirects and unwanted pop-up ads are classic symptoms of adware or a browser hijacker — a type of potentially unwanted program (PUP) or malware that modifies browser settings, homepage, and search engine. Removal involves scanning with anti-malware tools, checking browser extensions, and resetting browser settings.

Question 124: A chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as ___________ in forensic processes.

Chain of custody (Correct answer)
Proxy list
Access log
Order of volatility

Correct answer: Chain of custody

In forensic processes, the 'chain of custody' is a chronological documentation of who has had possession of evidence, when, and for what purpose. This record is critical to ensure the integrity and admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings, proving that the evidence has not been tampered with or compromised.

Question 125: Which connector type is used to attach a SATA SSD to a motherboard for both power and data?

A single 15-pin SATA power connector handles both
A single M.2 slot handles both power and data
PCIe x4 slot with a separate Molex power connector
Separate 7-pin data and 15-pin power connectors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Separate 7-pin data and 15-pin power connectors

SATA SSDs use a 7-pin data connector and a separate 15-pin power connector, both of which must be connected.

Question 126: Which of the following cannot be utilized on an Apple device, allows you to increase the storage capacity of your cell phone?

Special Memory Unit (SMU)
SSD
USB card
microSD card (Correct answer)

Correct answer: microSD card

MicroSD cards are small, removable flash memory cards widely used to expand the storage capacity of many mobile devices, particularly Android smartphones and tablets. However, Apple's mobile devices, such as iPhones and iPads, do not feature microSD card slots, meaning their internal storage cannot be expanded using this method. This makes microSD cards a common storage expansion option that is specifically unavailable for Apple devices.

Question 127: In cloud computing, the process of combining computer resources and making them available for shared access by numerous clients is known as:

Measured service
On-demand self-service
Resource pooling (Correct answer)
Broad network access

Correct answer: Resource pooling

Resource pooling is a fundamental characteristic of cloud computing, as defined by NIST. It refers to the provider's ability to combine computing resources, such as processing power, storage, and network bandwidth, to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model. This allows for dynamic allocation and reallocation of resources based on demand, optimizing utilization and efficiency.

Question 128: Which of the following is an example of a high-level programming language?

Assembly
Machine code
Python (Correct answer)
Binary

Correct answer: Python

Python is a high-level programming language that abstracts hardware details, making it easier for humans to read and write.

Question 129: A company's financial records were secretly modified to show a lower profit, allowing an executive to purchase company stock at a reduced price. Which principle of the CIA triad was primarily violated?

Authorization
Confidentiality
Availability
Integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Integrity

Integrity ensures that data is accurate, consistent, and has not been tampered with by unauthorized parties. In this scenario, the unauthorized modification of financial records is a direct violation of data integrity.

Question 130: A network administrator is planning a wireless deployment for a hospital where medical devices use 2.4 GHz and must not be interfered with. Which standard should new client APs use to avoid co-channel issues?

Deploy 802.11ac APs using 5 GHz only (Correct answer)
Deploy 802.11n APs on 2.4 GHz with 40 MHz channels
Deploy 802.11b APs with low power
Deploy 802.11g APs on channel 6 only

Correct answer: Deploy 802.11ac APs using 5 GHz only

Using 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) exclusively on 5 GHz keeps new client traffic off the 2.4 GHz band used by medical devices.

Question 131: Which hardening technique involves replacing default credentials on network devices immediately after deployment?

Default credential remediation (Correct answer)
Patch management
Role-based access control
Credential rotation

Correct answer: Default credential remediation

Default credential remediation means changing manufacturer-set usernames and passwords before a device goes into production.

Question 132: A user is having problems with a frozen program and wants to terminate it. What is the location where the user can perform this action?

Task Manager (Correct answer)
Event Viewer
Services
Registry

Correct answer: Task Manager

The Task Manager is a utility in Windows that allows users to monitor system performance, view running processes, and manage applications. When a program freezes, the "Processes" or "Details" tab in Task Manager can be used to select the unresponsive application and forcibly terminate it using the "End task" button. This action stops the program's execution, freeing up system resources and allowing the user to restart it.

Question 133: A technician wants to look at the logs on his Android smartphone. What program could the technician use to look at these logs?

Xcode
AndroidLogApp
Logcat (Correct answer)
AndroidCode

Correct answer: Logcat

Logcat is a command-line tool that dumps a stream of system messages and logs from an Android device. It is an essential utility for developers and technicians to view diagnostic output, errors, and other system information for troubleshooting Android applications and the operating system itself.

Question 134: What component contributes to the separation of network traffic across virtual machines on the same physical host?

TPM
Virtual NIC (Correct answer)
Resource Pool
NIDS

Correct answer: Virtual NIC

A Virtual NIC (Network Interface Card) is a software-based network adapter assigned to each virtual machine. It allows the VM to connect to a virtual switch, which then handles the routing and separation of network traffic between different VMs on the same physical host. This ensures that each virtual machine has its own distinct network identity and can communicate independently without interfering with others.

Question 135: A mobile device mostly used to measure how many steps you have taken during the day?

Any mobile phone
My Fitness Pal
Gym Watch
Fitness Monitor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fitness Monitor

A fitness monitor, also known as a fitness tracker, is a wearable device specifically designed to track various physical activities and health metrics. Its primary function includes counting steps taken, measuring distance traveled, estimating calories burned, and often monitoring heart rate. These devices are optimized for activity tracking and provide detailed insights into a user's daily movement.

Question 136: Which cloud characteristic allows resources to be provisioned and released automatically based on demand without human intervention?

Resource pooling
Measured service
Rapid elasticity (Correct answer)
Broad network access

Correct answer: Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity allows cloud resources to scale up or down automatically and quickly in response to demand, often appearing unlimited to the consumer.

Question 137: Which of the following is an example of access control based on a user's job function?

Rule-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) (Correct answer)
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Correct answer: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

RBAC assigns permissions based on job roles, so all users in the same role receive the same access rights.

Question 138: A Windows application crashes with an error immediately after launching. What is the FIRST troubleshooting step?

Uninstall all recently installed programs
Restart the computer and try again without investigation
Immediately reinstall the application
Check Event Viewer logs for the specific error code and faulting module (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check Event Viewer logs for the specific error code and faulting module

Checking Event Viewer (System and Application logs) should be the first step — it logs application crashes with error codes, faulting modules, and exception codes that identify the root cause. This is more efficient than reinstalling the application without understanding why it crashed.

Question 139: What is the name of the area at the bottom of a Mac OS X screen where, by default, a bar of crucial icons appears?

driver
keychain
dock (Correct answer)
bootmgr

Correct answer: dock

The Dock is a prominent graphical user interface element found at the bottom of the screen in Mac OS X (now macOS). It serves as a launcher for applications, a repository for minimized windows, and a quick access point for frequently used files and folders.

Question 140: What does 'multitasking' mean in the context of an operating system?

Connecting to multiple networks at once
Running multiple monitors on one computer
Using multiple user accounts at the same time
Executing multiple processes or applications seemingly simultaneously (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Executing multiple processes or applications seemingly simultaneously

Multitasking is the OS capability to manage and run multiple processes concurrently by rapidly switching between them.

Question 141: Which connector type is used to provide supplemental power to high-end PCIe graphics cards?

Molex 4-pin connector
EPS 12V connector
SATA power connector
PCIe 6-pin or 8-pin connector (Correct answer)

Correct answer: PCIe 6-pin or 8-pin connector

High-end GPUs require supplemental power via dedicated PCIe 6-pin or 8-pin connectors from the power supply.

Question 142: Which application type is specifically designed to manage large collections of structured, organized data with query capabilities?

Spreadsheet
Word processor
Media player
Database management system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Database management system

Database management systems (DBMS) like Microsoft Access or MySQL store, retrieve, and manage structured data using queries.

Question 143: Development that happens on a large number of virtual machines and necessitates the use of resources (typically administration related) to keep up with.

External Cloud
emulation
Hybrid Cloud
VM Sprawl (Correct answer)

Correct answer: VM Sprawl

VM Sprawl, or Virtual Machine Sprawl, describes a situation where an organization accumulates a large number of virtual machines that are not properly managed, monitored, or decommissioned. This can lead to inefficient resource utilization, increased administrative overhead, and potential security vulnerabilities. It's a common challenge in environments with extensive virtualization deployments.

Question 144: What is the primary purpose of a honeynet?

Lure attackers into an isolated environment to study their techniques (Correct answer)
Encrypt data in transit between network segments
Balance load across multiple security appliances
Filter malicious traffic before it reaches production systems

Correct answer: Lure attackers into an isolated environment to study their techniques

A honeynet is a network of honeypots designed to attract attackers and gather intelligence on their tools and methods.

Question 145: In a campus network, which switch role is responsible for aggregating access-layer switches and connecting them to the core?

Access switch
Distribution switch (Correct answer)
Edge switch
Core switch

Correct answer: Distribution switch

The distribution layer switch aggregates traffic from multiple access switches and applies policies before forwarding to the core.

Question 146: When a user starts his computer web browser, he receives many pop-ups. What type of malicious software could it be?

Trojan horse
adware (Correct answer)
worm
first-day attack

Correct answer: adware

Adware is a type of malicious software designed to automatically display unwanted advertisements, often in the form of pop-up windows, banners, or in-text ads. The symptom of receiving many pop-ups when opening a web browser is a classic indication of an adware infection.

Question 147: A business is evaluating cloud providers and wants to ensure workloads can be moved between providers without significant rework. What term describes this ability?

Elasticity
Cloud bursting
Vendor lock-in avoidance / portability (Correct answer)
High availability

Correct answer: Vendor lock-in avoidance / portability

Cloud portability refers to the ability to move applications and data between different cloud providers with minimal effort, reducing dependency on a single vendor.

Question 148: A network protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates connections between applications on different devices is functioning at which OSI layer?

Session layer (Correct answer)
Application layer
Presentation layer
Transport layer

Correct answer: Session layer

The Session layer (Layer 5) manages the lifecycle of communication sessions between applications, including establishment, maintenance, and termination.

Question 149: Mark, a colleague at your company, approaches you and asks you to recommend a mobile device for reading books on the move. Which of the following devices would you recommend?

E-reader (Correct answer)
Smartphone
Tablet
Laptop

Correct answer: E-reader

An e-reader is a specialized mobile device designed primarily for reading digital books, magazines, and other text-based content. E-readers typically feature e-ink displays that mimic the appearance of printed paper, reducing eye strain and offering extended battery life compared to tablets or smartphones. This makes them the ideal recommendation for someone focused solely on reading on the go.

Question 150: Which RAID level provides disk striping with parity, requiring a minimum of 3 drives and tolerating one drive failure?

RAID 5 (Correct answer)
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 10

Correct answer: RAID 5

RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity across a minimum of 3 disks, allowing recovery from a single disk failure.

Question 151: Although a user has successfully set up dual displays on his computer, the mouse does not track correctly from one screen to the next. Describe the procedure for resolving this problem.

Screen personalization must be reset.
In Device Manager, the monitor must be set to dual screen setting.
The monitors must be realigned in Display Settings. (Correct answer)
A dual screen capable mouse must be installed.

Correct answer: The monitors must be realigned in Display Settings.

When using multiple monitors, the operating system needs to know their physical arrangement to correctly track mouse movement between screens. If the mouse doesn't transition smoothly, it indicates that the virtual alignment in the display settings (e.g., Windows Display Settings) does not match the actual physical setup of the monitors. Adjusting the monitor positions within these settings will resolve the issue, allowing for seamless mouse navigation.

Question 152: What is the fundamental principle behind operating systems in the CompTIA domain?

Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency (Correct answer)
Using the newest technology exclusively
Following a single vendor solution
Cost minimization at all costs

Correct answer: Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency

Effective technical design requires balancing performance requirements with reliability needs and operational efficiency.

Question 153: A user reports that Windows takes a very long time to boot. Which tool should a technician use to identify startup programs that are slowing down boot time?

System Configuration (msconfig)
Task Manager Startup tab (Correct answer)
Device Manager
Event Viewer

Correct answer: Task Manager Startup tab

The Startup tab in Task Manager shows which programs launch at startup and their startup impact, making it the most direct tool for diagnosing slow boot times.

Question 154: Adrian is a data scientist who spends a lot of time on his desktop computer playing around with large data file. Adrian hears a very loud clicking noise as he tries to pull up one particularly large file. What does this mean?

faulty hard drive cables
disconnected network connection
read/write head that needs cleaning
mechanical drive failure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: mechanical drive failure

A loud clicking noise emanating from a hard drive is a classic and critical symptom of an impending or active mechanical drive failure. This sound typically indicates that the read/write heads are failing to properly seek data tracks or have crashed onto the platters. Such a noise usually signifies that the hard drive is physically damaged and data loss is highly probable.

Question 155: A technician notices that CPU utilization on a core router spikes to 95% every day at 2:00 AM. What is the most likely cause?

Scheduled backup or routing table update (Correct answer)
Syslog server misconfiguration
SNMP trap storm
DDoS attack

Correct answer: Scheduled backup or routing table update

Scheduled tasks like backups, software updates, or routing protocol reconvergence commonly cause predictable CPU spikes at specific times.

Question 156: A technician needs to find which process is using a specific TCP port on a Windows machine. Which command is most helpful?

netstat -ano (Correct answer)
tracert
ipconfig /all
nslookup

Correct answer: netstat -ano

The 'netstat -ano' command lists active TCP/UDP connections with the local port, remote address, state, and the PID of the owning process.

Question 157: A user wants to create a budget spreadsheet with automatic calculations. Which type of productivity application is BEST suited for this task?

Presentation
Database
Spreadsheet (Correct answer)
Word processor

Correct answer: Spreadsheet

Spreadsheet applications like Microsoft Excel are designed for numerical data, formulas, and automatic calculations.

Question 158: A user's laptop shows 'No Boot Device Found.' What is the most likely cause?

The hard drive has failed or is not detected (Correct answer)
The Wi-Fi adapter is disabled
The RAM is faulty
The monitor cable is loose

Correct answer: The hard drive has failed or is not detected

A 'No Boot Device Found' error typically indicates the hard drive has failed or the BIOS cannot detect a bootable storage device.

Question 159: In Windows, which of the following is the file system of choice for CD media?

NTFS
EXFAT
CHOWN
CDFS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CDFS

CDFS (Compact Disc File System) is the standard file system specifically designed for CD-ROMs and other optical media. It defines how data is structured and stored on a compact disc, allowing operating systems to read and access files from these media. While other file systems might be used for data DVDs or Blu-rays, CDFS is the foundational choice for traditional CD media.

Question 160: During data encapsulation, what term describes the data unit at the Transport layer?

Packet
Segment (Correct answer)
Frame
Bit

Correct answer: Segment

At the Transport layer (Layer 4), the data unit is called a segment (for TCP) or datagram (for UDP).

Question 161: Which repair option keeps personal files and settings along with the default apps and those that you installed from the Windows Store?

reset
refresh (Correct answer)
system
upgrade

Correct answer: refresh

In Windows 8 and 10, the "Refresh your PC" option is a repair feature that reinstalls Windows while keeping your personal files, settings, and any apps installed from the Windows Store. It removes desktop applications that were not pre-installed or downloaded from the store, making it a less destructive option than a full reset or clean installation, ideal for troubleshooting system instability without losing personal data.

Question 162: What does the acronym 'API' stand for?

Active Protocol Interface
Applied Program Instruction
Application Programming Interface (Correct answer)
Automated Process Integration

Correct answer: Application Programming Interface

API stands for Application Programming Interface, which defines how software components communicate with each other.

Question 163: Which wireless standard operates exclusively in the 60 GHz band and is designed for short-range, high-bandwidth applications?

802.11ac
802.11ad (Correct answer)
802.11ax
802.11n

Correct answer: 802.11ad

802.11ad (WiGig) operates in the 60 GHz band, offering multi-gigabit speeds over very short distances (typically within a room).

Question 164: Which amendment to 802.11 defined Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms for wireless networks, prioritizing voice and video traffic?

802.11e (Correct answer)
802.11r
802.11i
802.11k

Correct answer: 802.11e

802.11e introduced WMM (Wi-Fi Multimedia), defining QoS categories to prioritize voice, video, best effort, and background traffic.

Question 165: What is the primary purpose of a Content Delivery Network (CDN) in cloud architecture?

To replicate databases across multiple availability zones
To manage container orchestration across cloud providers
To provide encrypted tunnels between cloud regions
To distribute content closer to end users via geographically dispersed edge servers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To distribute content closer to end users via geographically dispersed edge servers

A CDN caches and serves content from edge servers located geographically close to users, reducing latency and improving load times for web content and media.

Question 166: Which type of software is primarily used to browse the internet?

Spreadsheet software
Video editing software
Web browser (Correct answer)
Word processor

Correct answer: Web browser

A web browser is a software application specifically designed to access and display information on the World Wide Web. It allows users to navigate websites, view web pages, and interact with online content by interpreting HTML and other web technologies. Examples include Chrome, Firefox, and Safari, all serving the primary function of connecting users to the internet and rendering web content.

Question 167: Which of the following data types is MOST appropriate for storing a value like 'true' or 'false'?

Boolean (Correct answer)
String
Float
Integer

Correct answer: Boolean

A Boolean data type is specifically designed to represent one of two logical states: true or false. An integer is for whole numbers, a float is for decimal numbers, and a string is for a sequence of characters.

Question 168: To view logs on an iOS device, which of these programs is needed?

Xcode (Correct answer)
iOSLog
Logcat
iOSView

Correct answer: Xcode

Xcode is Apple's integrated development environment (IDE) for macOS, used for developing software for Apple platforms including iOS. It includes various tools for debugging and monitoring iOS devices, allowing developers and technicians to view device logs for troubleshooting and analysis.

Question 169: What is the channel width used by 802.11ac that enables it to achieve throughput exceeding 1 Gbps?

60 MHz
20 MHz
80 MHz and 160 MHz (Correct answer)
40 MHz

Correct answer: 80 MHz and 160 MHz

802.11ac supports 80 MHz and optional 160 MHz channel widths, which are key to achieving multi-gigabit theoretical throughput.

Question 170: What is the best practice for maintaining operating systems performance over time?

Outsource all maintenance
Wait for failures before acting
Upgrade all equipment annually
Implement scheduled preventive maintenance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Implement scheduled preventive maintenance

Scheduled preventive maintenance catches potential issues before they cause failures, maintaining reliability and extending equipment life.

Question 171: What program has taken the place of the xcopy command?

Clone
Copyall
Robocopy (Correct answer)
Copy

Correct answer: Robocopy

Robocopy (Robust File Copy) is a powerful command-line utility in Windows designed for robust and reliable copying of files and directories. It offers many advanced features not present in the older `xcopy` command, such as mirroring directories, resuming interrupted copies, and handling long path names. This makes it a superior and more efficient replacement for complex file copying tasks.

Question 172: A Linux administrator wants to view the last 50 lines of a log file in real time as new entries are written. Which command is most appropriate?

head -n 50 /var/log/syslog
cat /var/log/syslog
tail -f -n 50 /var/log/syslog (Correct answer)
less /var/log/syslog

Correct answer: tail -f -n 50 /var/log/syslog

The 'tail -f -n 50' command shows the last 50 lines and continues to display new lines as they are appended, making it ideal for live log monitoring.

Question 173: Which type of backup only copies data that has changed since the last full backup, resetting the archive bit?

Incremental backup (Correct answer)
Snapshot backup
Full backup
Differential backup

Correct answer: Incremental backup

An incremental backup captures only changes made since the last backup of any type and resets the archive bit after each run.

Question 174: What technique would you use to avoid eavesdropping if you were seated in a coffee shop with WiFi and wanted to utilize their WiFi to browse the Internet but were concerned about someone listening on this unsecured connection?

Bluetooth
WPA2
VPN (Correct answer)
WEP

Correct answer: VPN

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates a secure, encrypted tunnel for your internet traffic, routing it through a private server before it reaches the public internet. This encryption protects your data from eavesdropping, especially on unsecured public Wi-Fi networks like those in a coffee shop. By using a VPN, your online activities remain private and secure, preventing others from intercepting your communications.

Question 175: What is the primary purpose of a modem in a home network?

To increase network speed
To connect devices wirelessly
To route data between networks
To convert digital signals to analog and vice versa for internet access (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To convert digital signals to analog and vice versa for internet access

A modem (modulator-demodulator) is essential for connecting a home network to an Internet Service Provider (ISP). It converts the digital signals from your computer or router into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines, cable lines, or fiber optics, and vice versa. This modulation and demodulation process enables your home network to communicate with the internet.

Question 176: A workstation can ping its own IP address (loopback and NIC) but cannot ping any other device on the local subnet. The cable and switch port appear functional. What should be checked NEXT?

IP address and subnet mask for correct configuration (Correct answer)
Default gateway setting
Proxy settings in the browser
DNS server address

Correct answer: IP address and subnet mask for correct configuration

An incorrect IP address or subnet mask would prevent the workstation from communicating with other hosts on the local subnet even with a functional NIC and cable.

Question 177: A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and needs to connect a monitor that supports digital video output for high-definition display. Which of the following port types would be the MOST appropriate choice for this task?

RJ-45
PS/2
VGA
HDMI (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HDMI

HDMI (High-Definition Multimedia Interface) is a modern digital interface used to transmit high-definition audio and video signals. VGA is an older, analog video standard. RJ-45 is for Ethernet networking, and PS/2 is an outdated port for keyboards and mice.

Question 178: Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end encryption, data compression, and format translation?

Session
Application
Transport
Presentation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Presentation

The Presentation layer (Layer 6) handles data formatting, encryption/decryption, and compression so applications can communicate in a common format.

Question 179: What is the function of the pagefile.sys file in Windows?

Holds temporary internet files
Acts as virtual memory by storing data swapped out of RAM (Correct answer)
Caches Windows Update downloads
Stores system restore points

Correct answer: Acts as virtual memory by storing data swapped out of RAM

Pagefile.sys is Windows' paging file that stores memory pages swapped out of physical RAM, effectively extending available memory to the system.

Question 180: Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) metric describes the percentage of time a cloud service is operational and accessible?

RTO
MTBF
Uptime/Availability percentage (Correct answer)
RPO

Correct answer: Uptime/Availability percentage

Cloud SLAs define availability as the percentage of time the service is operational, commonly expressed as '99.9% uptime,' meaning no more than ~8.76 hours of downtime per year.

Question 181: An organization hosts its own cloud infrastructure exclusively for its use, managed either internally or by a third party. What type of cloud deployment is this?

Public cloud
Private cloud (Correct answer)
Hybrid cloud
Multicloud

Correct answer: Private cloud

A private cloud is operated solely for a single organization, providing greater control, security, and customization compared to public cloud.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) & Core 2 (220-1102)

CompTIA A+ certification validates the foundational skills necessary for an entry-level IT professional across a variety of devices and operating systems.

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