CO Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CO facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. At what age does visual acuity typically reach adult levels (approximately 20/20) in normally developing children? → 5–6 years
2. What is the first step in CO risk assessment? → Identifying potential hazards and threats
3. Eccentric viewing training teaches patients with a central scotoma to: → Use an intact peripheral retinal area as the preferred retinal locus (PRL)
4. What role do standard operating procedures play in CO Patient Assessment & Evaluation? → Ensuring consistency and quality through documented instructions
5. The fovea centralis contains predominantly which type of photoreceptors? → Cones only
6. What is a risk matrix used for in CO practice? → Evaluating risks by plotting likelihood against impact severity
7. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of Horner’s syndrome? → Ptosis and miosis
8. Which finding during pediatric vision screening warrants immediate ophthalmology referral? → White pupillary reflex (leukocoria)
9. What is the function of the swinging flashlight test? → Identify RAPD
10. A keratometer (ophthalmometer) is used to measure which ocular parameter? → Corneal curvature/power
11. Which condition is NOT considered an amblyopia risk factor? → Bilateral symmetric myopia of equal magnitude
12. Which test assesses contrast sensitivity in visual function testing? → Pelli-Robson chart
13. Which low vision device uses a strong convex lens resting on reading material to magnify near objects? → Stand magnifier
14. The Frisby stereotest differs from polarized or anaglyphic stereotests because it: → Uses real depth without any glasses
15. The superior oblique muscle intorts and depresses the eye in which position of gaze? → Adduction
16. What is the primary ethical responsibility of an orthoptist during patient care? → Ensure patient confidentiality
17. Duane retraction syndrome Type I is characterized by which motility pattern? → Limitation of abduction with globe retraction on adduction
18. Which of the following best defines informed consent? → Patient's understanding and voluntary agreement to treatment
19. Bioptic telescopes are primarily prescribed to: → Allow patients with low vision to meet driving visual acuity requirements
20. How does professional liability insurance protect CO practitioners? → Covering financial losses from claims of negligence or errors
21. What is a needs assessment in CO Patient Assessment & Evaluation practice? → Identifying gaps between current conditions and desired outcomes
22. Which of the following is considered a clinical procedure in orthoptics? → Alternate cover test
23. The approximate best-corrected visual acuity of a healthy full-term neonate at birth is: → 20/400–20/600
24. What is the function of the superior oblique muscle in eye movement? → Depresses and intorts the eye
25. Why is accurate documentation important in CO? → It supports decision-making, compliance, and legal defensibility
26. Low vision is generally defined as best-corrected visual acuity of: → 20/70 or worse in the better eye
27. What is evidence-based practice in CO Infection Control & Prevention? → Integrating research evidence with expertise and client needs
28. What is the critical path in CO project scheduling? → The longest sequence of dependent tasks determining minimum duration
29. Cycloplegic refraction in children is critical for accurate measurement because it: → Paralyzes accommodation to reveal the full hyperopic error
30. Refractive amblyopia due to high bilateral hyperopia typically leads to which type of amblyopia? → Ametropic amblyopia