CNA Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
- Giving residents antibiotics
- Opening windows daily
- Proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
- Wearing a gown for all care
Correct answer: Proper hand hygiene
Hand hygiene, either handwashing or alcohol-based hand rub, is the most effective way to break the chain of infection. Gowns are used only when contact with body fluids is expected, and CNAs never give medications.
Question 2: When washing hands, the CNA should rub with soap for at least:
- 5 seconds
- 10 seconds
- 2 minutes
- 20 seconds (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 20 seconds
CDC guidance is to scrub all surfaces of the hands with soap for at least 20 seconds, keeping fingertips pointed down and rinsing from wrist to fingertips. Shorter times do not reliably remove microorganisms.
Question 3: What is the proper order for removing PPE?
- Gown, mask, gloves
- Gloves, goggles, gown, mask (Correct answer)
- Goggles, mask, gloves, gown
- Mask, gown, gloves
Correct answer: Gloves, goggles, gown, mask
Gloves are the most contaminated, so they come off first, followed by goggles or face shield, then the gown, and finally the mask or respirator. Hand hygiene is performed after removing all PPE.
Question 4: Which observation should a CNA report to the nurse for a resident with a urinary catheter?
- Drainage bag hanging below the bladder
- Clear, pale yellow urine
- Tubing free of kinks
- Cloudy urine with an unusual odor (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cloudy urine with an unusual odor
Cloudy urine with a strong or unusual odor can signal a urinary tract infection, one of the most common catheter complications, so it must be reported to the nurse. Clear pale urine, a bag below bladder level and kink-free tubing are all normal, correct findings.
Question 5: Before giving any care, what must the CNA always do first?
- Raise the bed to its highest level
- Close the window blinds
- Identify the resident and explain the procedure (Correct answer)
- Put on sterile gloves
Correct answer: Identify the resident and explain the procedure
Correctly identifying the resident prevents care errors, and explaining the procedure respects the right to be informed and to refuse. Sterile gloves are not needed for routine care, and bed height is adjusted for the task, not maxed out.
Question 6: A family member asks to read their adult parent's medical chart. The CNA should:
- Refer them to the charge nurse (Correct answer)
- Hand over the chart, since they're family
- Say no one can ever see the chart
- Allow it while the resident sleeps
Correct answer: Refer them to the charge nurse
Access to medical records is protected by HIPAA and depends on the resident's consent or legal authority. The CNA cannot decide this alone, so the correct step is to refer the request to the charge nurse. Refusing outright is also wrong because authorized people can see the chart through the proper process.
Question 7: Which action protects a resident's privacy during personal care?
- Discussing the care with a roommate
- Telling visitors about the resident's condition
- Leaving the door open for safety
- Pulling the curtain and covering exposed areas (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pulling the curtain and covering exposed areas
Closing the curtain or door and draping the resident so only the area being cared for is exposed protects privacy and dignity, which are legal resident rights. Sharing health information with roommates or visitors violates confidentiality.
Question 8: A resident refuses to take a shower. The CNA should:
- Shower the resident anyway
- Respect the refusal and report it to the nurse (Correct answer)
- Skip it without telling anyone
- Remove a privilege until they agree
Correct answer: Respect the refusal and report it to the nurse
Residents have the right to refuse care. The CNA may gently ask why and offer an alternative, but must not force the resident. The refusal is reported to the nurse and documented. Withholding privileges is a form of abuse.
Question 9: Which sign of abuse must a CNA report?
- A resident who naps after lunch
- Unexplained bruises on the upper arms (Correct answer)
- A resident asking for a snack
- A resident who enjoys music
Correct answer: Unexplained bruises on the upper arms
Unexplained bruises, especially in a grip pattern on the upper arms, can indicate physical abuse. CNAs are mandated reporters and must report suspected abuse to the nurse immediately, even without proof.
Question 10: The best way to communicate with a resident who has a hearing impairment is to:
- Cover your mouth to reduce noise
- Speak only to their family
- Shout from across the room
- Face them and speak clearly at a normal pace (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Face them and speak clearly at a normal pace
Face the resident in good lighting, get their attention first, and speak clearly at a normal pace and slightly lower pitch. Shouting distorts speech, and covering your mouth prevents lip-reading.
Question 11: A resident with dementia becomes agitated during bathing. The best response is to:
- Finish quickly while holding them still
- Stop, stay calm, and try again later (Correct answer)
- Call security right away
- Tell them firmly to cooperate
Correct answer: Stop, stay calm, and try again later
With dementia, agitation is often triggered by fear or confusion. Staying calm, stopping the task, and reapproaching later usually works best. Restraining a resident or forcing care violates their rights and can cause injury.
Question 12: A resident suddenly has a drooping face and slurred speech. The CNA should:
- Report it to the nurse immediately (Correct answer)
- Offer a glass of water
- Help the resident lie down to rest
- Check again in 30 minutes
Correct answer: Report it to the nurse immediately
Facial drooping and slurred speech are warning signs of a stroke, and treatment is time-critical. The CNA stays with the resident and gets the nurse immediately. Giving fluids is dangerous because swallowing may be impaired.
Question 13: When using a gait belt to help a resident walk, the CNA should stand:
- On the stronger side, several feet away
- In front of the resident
- Slightly behind and to the weaker side (Correct answer)
- Directly behind at arm's length
Correct answer: Slightly behind and to the weaker side
Standing slightly behind the resident on the weaker side, holding the gait belt, lets the CNA support them and guide a controlled fall if they lose balance. Standing in front blocks their path, and standing far away gives no support.
Question 14: If a resident starts to fall while walking, the CNA should:
- Pull the resident back to standing
- Catch the resident under the arms
- Ease the resident gently to the floor (Correct answer)
- Let go and call for help
Correct answer: Ease the resident gently to the floor
The CNA should keep a wide base of support, pull the resident close, and ease them gently to the floor while protecting the head. Then stay with the resident, call for help, and do not move them until the nurse assesses them.
Question 15: During passive range-of-motion exercises, the CNA should support the limb:
- Only at the joint being moved
- Above and below the joint (Correct answer)
- At the far end only
- At the near end only
Correct answer: Above and below the joint
Supporting the limb above and below the joint stabilizes it and prevents strain or injury while it is moved gently through its range. Each movement is done slowly, without forcing, and stopped if the resident reports pain.
Question 16: Which position helps relieve lower-back pain in a bed-bound resident?
- Prone, arms overhead
- Supine, legs fully extended
- Semi-Fowler's, knees slightly raised (Correct answer)
- Trendelenburg, head lowered
Correct answer: Semi-Fowler's, knees slightly raised
Semi-Fowler's position with the knees slightly flexed reduces tension on the lower back muscles. Lying flat with legs fully extended increases lumbar strain, and Trendelenburg is not used for comfort positioning.
Question 17: A resident with a weak left side needs help dressing. Which arm goes into the shirt first?
- The right arm
- The left arm (Correct answer)
- Both at the same time
- Whichever the resident prefers
Correct answer: The left arm
Dress the weak (affected) side first and undress the strong side first. Putting the weak arm in first needs the least movement of the affected limb and lets the strong arm do the work of reaching.
Question 18: When making an occupied bed, the CNA should:
- Leave the bed in the highest position afterward
- Place dirty linen on the floor
- Keep one side rail up while working on the other side (Correct answer)
- Shake the linens to remove crumbs
Correct answer: Keep one side rail up while working on the other side
When making an occupied bed, raise the side rail on the side where you are not working to keep the resident safe. Never shake linens, which spreads microorganisms, never put soiled linen on the floor, and lower the bed when finished.
Question 19: A reddened area over the tailbone does NOT blanch when pressed. This indicates:
- Early bruising from a fall
- Skin tear from friction
- Normal response to repositioning
- Stage 1 pressure injury (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Stage 1 pressure injury
Intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence is the definition of a Stage 1 pressure injury. The CNA should relieve pressure from the area, avoid massaging it, and report it to the nurse right away.
Question 20: Which resident is at the highest risk for developing pressure injuries?
- A resident who walks daily
- A resident who sits in a chair for 15 minutes
- A bed-bound resident who is incontinent (Correct answer)
- A resident who feeds themself
Correct answer: A bed-bound resident who is incontinent
Immobility combined with moisture from incontinence greatly increases the risk of skin breakdown. These residents need repositioning at least every 2 hours and prompt incontinence care to keep the skin clean and dry.
Question 21: What is the normal adult resting pulse rate range?
- 60 to 100 beats per minute (Correct answer)
- 40 to 60 beats per minute
- 120 to 140 beats per minute
- 100 to 120 beats per minute
Correct answer: 60 to 100 beats per minute
A normal resting adult pulse is 60 to 100 beats per minute. A rate under 60 or over 100 should be reported to the nurse, along with any irregular rhythm.
Question 22: The correct way to measure an oral temperature after a resident drinks hot coffee is to:
- Add one degree to the reading
- Use the rectal route instead
- Wait 15 to 20 minutes first (Correct answer)
- Measure right away
Correct answer: Wait 15 to 20 minutes first
Eating, drinking, or smoking alters mouth temperature, so wait 15 to 20 minutes before taking an oral reading. Switching routes or adjusting the number is not an accepted practice.
Question 23: How should a CNA measure intake and output (I&O)?
- Estimate amounts by looking
- Measure in milliliters and record each amount (Correct answer)
- Record only solid food eaten
- Ask the resident at the end of the day
Correct answer: Measure in milliliters and record each amount
Intake and output must be measured accurately, usually in milliliters (mL), and recorded each time. The nurse uses these totals to judge fluid balance, so estimates or end-of-day recall are not acceptable.
Question 24: Which food is the safest choice for a resident with dysphagia on a pureed diet?
- Mixed nuts
- Smooth applesauce (Correct answer)
- Dry crackers
- Sliced raw carrots
Correct answer: Smooth applesauce
Residents with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) are at risk of choking and aspiration. Smooth applesauce fits a pureed diet. Nuts, crackers and raw vegetables are hard, dry or crumbly foods that pose a choking risk.
Question 25: After a resident finishes a meal, which detail should the CNA record?
- The percentage of food eaten (Correct answer)
- Which staff member delivered the tray
- The resident's opinion of the cook
- The color of the plate
Correct answer: The percentage of food eaten
CNAs record the percentage of each meal eaten so the nurse and dietitian can monitor nutrition and spot weight-loss risk. A noticeable drop in intake should also be reported to the nurse.
What is the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- floridasnursing.gov — Test delivery, exam format, retake policy, time limit · verified Oct 2026
- law.cornell.edu — Test delivery, retake policy · verified Oct 2026
- prometric.com — Fees, exam information · verified Oct 2026