CMT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CMT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. How should medications be disposed of safely? → Follow facility protocol for medication disposal.
2. According to Standard Precautions, a CMT must wear gloves when performing which of these medication administration tasks? → Applying a topical antifungal cream to an area of non-intact skin.
3. A CMT drops a resident's medication, which is still sealed in its unit-dose packaging, onto the floor of the resident's room. What is the correct action? → Discard the medication according to facility policy and obtain a new dose.
4. Cough preparations containing less than 200 mg of codeine per 100 mL are classified as which schedule? → Schedule V
5. What does HIPAA stand for and why is it important in medication administration? → Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
6. Which group of side effects is characteristic of anticholinergic medications? → Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and blurred vision
7. Which of the following is a clinically significant drug-food interaction? → Taking warfarin while consuming large amounts of leafy green vegetables daily
8. When a patient refuses a scheduled controlled substance, the medication technician should: → Document the refusal in the MAR and notify the nurse
9. Nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in which type of container? → Original amber glass container
10. What is a 'black box warning' on a medication label? → The FDA's strongest warning about serious or life-threatening risks
11. What information should be included when reporting an adverse drug reaction? → Resident name, medication name and dose, time given, symptoms observed, and actions taken
12. Which of the following is NOT within the scope of practice for a Certified Medication Technician when administering medications? → Calculating and administering a dose of intravenous (IV) medication.
13. Where should light-sensitive medications be stored to prevent degradation? → In an opaque or dark container away from direct light
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the 'Six Rights' of Medication Administration? → Right Cost
15. What should you check before administering medication to ensure patient safety? → Both the patient's ID and the medication's details.
16. During the end-of-shift report, what is the most critical information for an outgoing CMT to communicate to the incoming CMT? → Any PRN medications that were administered and the resident's response.
17. What should be done if a medication error occurs? → Correct the error and report it immediately.
18. Benzodiazepines such as diazepam (Valium) are classified under which controlled substance schedule? → Schedule IV
19. Which medication class is most commonly associated with causing gastrointestinal upset as a side effect? → NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
20. Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance? → Oxycodone (OxyContin)
21. Why is it important to follow the prescribed dosage and schedule for medication administration? → To ensure proper therapeutic response.
22. Access to the controlled substance cabinet should be restricted to: → Only authorized personnel with proper credentials
23. Which of the following statements is the BEST example of objective documentation that a CMT should use in a resident's chart? → Resident ate 25% of his breakfast and stated, 'I have no appetite.'
24. What is the first step in safely administering oral medication? → Ensure the right medication is prepared.
25. The order is to administer 15 mL of a liquid medication. Which of the following is an equivalent measurement? → 1 tablespoon
26. What should be done if a medication error occurs? → Document and report the error immediately.
27. A CMT is reviewing a new order for a resident that reads 'Furosemide 20 mg PO b.i.d.'. What does the abbreviation 'PO' indicate? → By mouth
28. What is the definition of an adverse drug reaction (ADR)? → An unintended, harmful response to a medication given at a normal dose
29. A resident has a skin condition and is prescribed a topical cream. The order indicates the cream should be applied 'aa'. What does this abbreviation mean? → Of each
30. What is the primary purpose of requiring two authorized staff to verify controlled substance transactions? → To ensure accountability and reduce the risk of diversion or error