CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) protects healthcare workers by:

Setting patient care standards
Managing healthcare insurance programs
Establishing and enforcing workplace safety and health regulations (Correct answer)
Licensing healthcare professionals

Correct answer: Establishing and enforcing workplace safety and health regulations

OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces workplace safety standards to protect employees from hazards, including those in healthcare settings.

Question 2: What is the correct sequence for applying a sterile dressing to a wound?

Place sterile pad, cleanse wound, apply tape
Cleanse wound, apply sterile pad, secure with tape (Correct answer)
Apply tape, place sterile pad, cleanse wound
Secure with tape, cleanse wound, apply sterile pad

Correct answer: Cleanse wound, apply sterile pad, secure with tape

The wound must be cleansed first, then the sterile pad is applied, and finally tape secures the dressing.

Question 3: A fasting blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions indicates:

Prediabetes
Normal glucose metabolism
Hypoglycemia
Diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diabetes mellitus

A fasting blood glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher on two occasions meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.

Question 4: In an anaphylactic reaction, the medication of choice for initial emergency treatment is:

Methylprednisolone
Albuterol inhaler
Epinephrine (auto-injector) (Correct answer)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Correct answer: Epinephrine (auto-injector)

Epinephrine (1:1000 IM) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid bronchodilation and vasopressor effects.

Question 5: When taking a blood pressure reading, the first Korotkoff sound heard represents:

Pulse pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Systolic pressure (Correct answer)
Diastolic pressure

Correct answer: Systolic pressure

The first Korotkoff sound, a clear tapping noise, corresponds to the systolic blood pressure.

Question 6: Pain is often referred to as which vital sign?

Fourth vital sign
Sixth vital sign
Fifth vital sign (Correct answer)
Third vital sign

Correct answer: Fifth vital sign

Pain is widely recognized as the fifth vital sign alongside temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

Question 7: When using a mechanical lift to transfer a patient, the most important safety step is:

Lifting the patient as high as possible for clearance
Completing the transfer as quickly as possible
Having only one person operate the lift
Checking the lift's weight capacity and sling condition before use (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Checking the lift's weight capacity and sling condition before use

Before any mechanical lift use, the weight capacity must be verified against the patient's weight, and the sling must be inspected for tears or wear.

Question 8: Which evacuated tube color is used for coagulation studies such as PT and PTT?

Green
Red
Lavender
Light blue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Light blue

Light blue (sodium citrate) tubes are used for coagulation studies because citrate binds calcium to prevent clotting while preserving clotting factor activity.

Question 9: The term 'nosocomial infection' refers to:

A congenital infection
An infection acquired in the community
A healthcare-associated infection (Correct answer)
A surgically implanted infection

Correct answer: A healthcare-associated infection

Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in healthcare facilities, now more commonly called healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).

Question 10: A resident is prescribed a sublingual medication. What is the correct instruction for the Certified Medical Technician (CMT) to provide to the resident?

Swallow the medication whole with a full glass of water.
Chew the medication thoroughly before swallowing.
Place the medication between your cheek and gum.
Place the medication under your tongue and allow it to dissolve. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place the medication under your tongue and allow it to dissolve.

The sublingual route involves placing medication under the tongue to be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes. This route bypasses the digestive system for rapid effect. Placing it between the cheek and gum is the buccal route, while swallowing is the oral route.

Question 11: The process by which the body breaks down a drug into a less active or inactive form is known as:

Excretion
Metabolism (Correct answer)
Absorption
Distribution

Correct answer: Metabolism

Metabolism, also known as biotransformation, is the chemical alteration of a drug by the body. The liver is the primary site for drug metabolism. This process transforms the drug into metabolites that can be more easily eliminated from the body.

Question 12: Which test is used to evaluate kidney function by measuring waste product filtration?

Prothrombin time
Hemoglobin A1c
Serum creatinine and GFR (Correct answer)
Liver function test

Correct answer: Serum creatinine and GFR

Serum creatinine and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) are primary indicators of kidney function.

Question 13: The Joint Commission's primary role in healthcare is:

Managing hospital finances
Accrediting healthcare organizations based on quality and safety standards (Correct answer)
Setting insurance reimbursement rates
Training healthcare workers

Correct answer: Accrediting healthcare organizations based on quality and safety standards

The Joint Commission evaluates and accredits healthcare organizations, ensuring they meet established quality and safety standards.

Question 14: What does the term 'NPO' mean in relation to diagnostic testing preparation?

No physical obstruction
Nothing by mouth (Correct answer)
Normal pre-operative
Non-pathological observation

Correct answer: Nothing by mouth

NPO (nil per os) means nothing by mouth and is required before many diagnostic procedures and surgeries.

Question 15: The term 'proximal' means:

Closer to the trunk or point of origin (Correct answer)
Away from the midline
Farther from the trunk
Toward the midline

Correct answer: Closer to the trunk or point of origin

Proximal means closer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

Question 16: What should healthcare providers do if they suspect a patient is being abused?

Discuss the situation with the patient's family.
Dismiss the concern until further evidence is found.
Report the suspected abuse to the authorities. (Correct answer)
Confront the patient about the abuse.

Correct answer: Report the suspected abuse to the authorities.

Healthcare providers are legally and ethically mandated reporters of suspected abuse, especially concerning vulnerable populations such as children, the elderly, or individuals with disabilities. If abuse is suspected, the correct action is to report it immediately to the appropriate authorities, such as child protective services or adult protective services. This ensures the patient's safety and initiates an official investigation to prevent further harm.

Question 17: A resident tells the CMT, "My stomach feels like it's on fire." Which of the following is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this statement in the medical record?

Resident states, "My stomach feels like it's on fire." (Correct answer)
Resident has severe heartburn.
Resident is complaining of gastrointestinal distress.
Resident appears to be in significant pain from their stomach.

Correct answer: Resident states, "My stomach feels like it's on fire."

When documenting subjective information, it is best practice to use the resident's exact words in quotation marks. This avoids interpretation and provides the most accurate account of the resident's complaint. The other options are interpretations or generalizations of what the resident said.

Question 18: What is the primary purpose of medical ethics in healthcare?

To minimize medical errors.
To increase healthcare profitability.
To guarantee patient satisfaction.
To ensure safe and ethical patient care. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure safe and ethical patient care.

The primary purpose of medical ethics in healthcare is to establish a framework of moral principles and values that guide healthcare professionals' decisions and actions. These principles, such as autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, ensure that patient care is delivered safely, respectfully, and with integrity. Adhering to medical ethics builds trust and upholds the highest standards of professional conduct.

Question 19: The combining form 'hepat/o' refers to which organ?

Liver (Correct answer)
Lung
Kidney
Heart

Correct answer: Liver

Hepat/o is the combining form for liver, as in hepatitis (liver inflammation) and hepatomegaly (liver enlargement).

Question 20: Protected health information (PHI) in electronic records must be safeguarded by:

Using automatic logoff, encryption, and unique user IDs (Correct answer)
Sharing passwords among team members for efficiency
Keeping screens visible so colleagues can assist
Storing records on personal devices for convenience

Correct answer: Using automatic logoff, encryption, and unique user IDs

HIPAA's Security Rule requires technical safeguards including automatic logoff, encryption, access controls, and unique user identification.

Question 21: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean in medical terminology?

Above normal or excessive (Correct answer)
Around
Within
Below normal

Correct answer: Above normal or excessive

The prefix 'hyper-' means above normal, excessive, or beyond, as in hypertension (elevated blood pressure).

Question 22: An adverse effect of opioid analgesics that requires monitoring is:

Hyperglycemia
Respiratory depression (Correct answer)
Tachycardia
Hypertension

Correct answer: Respiratory depression

Respiratory depression is the most dangerous adverse effect of opioid medications and requires ongoing monitoring of respiratory rate and depth.

Question 23: The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Inflammation of
Surgical removal of (Correct answer)
Disease of
Examination of

Correct answer: Surgical removal of

The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix).

Question 24: When performing a 12-lead ECG, which electrode placement is used for lead V4?

4th intercostal space, left sternal border
4th intercostal space, right sternal border
5th intercostal space, left anterior axillary line
5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line

V4 is placed at the 5th intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.

Question 25: A resident who is alert and oriented refuses to take their prescribed blood pressure medication. What is the CMT's primary ethical and legal responsibility?

To crush the medication and mix it in their food to ensure they receive it.
To ask the resident's family to convince them to take the medication.
To tell the resident they cannot have their dinner until they take the medication.
To inform the resident of the potential risks of not taking the medication and document the refusal. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To inform the resident of the potential risks of not taking the medication and document the refusal.

Competent adults have the right to make decisions about their own healthcare, which includes the right to refuse treatment or medication. This is a core component of patient autonomy and informed consent. The CMT's responsibility is to ensure the resident is informed, respect their decision, and properly document the refusal before notifying the supervising nurse.

Question 26: A CMT is cleaning a resident's room after they have been discharged. The resident had a known infection with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which type of product is essential for cleaning the environmental surfaces?

A standard alcohol-based sanitizer
An ammonia-based cleaning solution
A quaternary ammonium compound
A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent

Clostridioides difficile forms spores that are resistant to standard disinfectants, including alcohol-based hand rubs and some hospital-grade cleaners. Therefore, a sporicidal agent, such as a bleach-based disinfectant, is required to effectively kill the spores and decontaminate the environment.

Question 27: Continuous cardiac monitoring is most important for patients receiving which type of medication?

Intravenous potassium (Correct answer)
Oral acetaminophen
Topical antifungal cream
Oral antibiotics

Correct answer: Intravenous potassium

IV potassium administration requires continuous cardiac monitoring because rapid infusion or high concentrations can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 28: The sublingual route of medication administration involves placing the medication:

Under the tongue (Correct answer)
Between the cheek and gum
In the ear canal
On the skin surface

Correct answer: Under the tongue

Sublingual means 'under the tongue,' where the medication dissolves and is absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the oral mucosa.

Question 29: The Patient's Bill of Rights includes the right to:

Override medical orders
Free healthcare services
Choose their own treatment and refuse care (Correct answer)
Unlimited hospital stay

Correct answer: Choose their own treatment and refuse care

The Patient's Bill of Rights guarantees patients the right to participate in treatment decisions, including the right to refuse treatment.

Question 30: A specimen is rejected by the laboratory if it is received with which condition?

The label matches the requisition exactly
The specimen was collected by venipuncture
The specimen is slightly lipemic
The tube is unlabeled or mismatched with the requisition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The tube is unlabeled or mismatched with the requisition

An unlabeled or mislabeled specimen presents a serious patient safety risk and must be rejected per laboratory policy to prevent result reporting errors.

Question 31: Which of the following is an approved abbreviation for 'every day' in medical documentation?

Daily (Correct answer)
ED
QD
q.d.

Correct answer: Daily

The word 'daily' is the approved term. 'QD' and 'q.d.' are on The Joint Commission's Do Not Use list due to confusion with 'QID' and 'QOD.'

Question 32: Capillary refill time is assessed by pressing on a nail bed and should return to normal color within:

5-10 seconds
3-5 seconds
10-15 seconds
Less than 2 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Less than 2 seconds

Normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

Question 33: The Heimlich maneuver delivers abdominal thrusts to relieve choking by:

Forcing air upward from the lungs to dislodge the obstruction (Correct answer)
Increasing stomach acid secretion
Compressing the carotid arteries
Stimulating the gag reflex

Correct answer: Forcing air upward from the lungs to dislodge the obstruction

Abdominal thrusts increase intrathoracic pressure, forcing residual air upward to expel the foreign body.

Question 34: Which of the following medical terms means rapid heart rate?

Arrhythmia
Bradycardia
Cardiomegaly
Tachycardia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia combines 'tachy-' (fast) with 'cardia' (heart), meaning a heart rate faster than normal (typically above 100 bpm in adults). Bradycardia is the opposite — a slow heart rate.

Question 35: What is the primary purpose of patient charting in medical procedures?

To track the financial costs of the procedure.
To create a history for insurance purposes.
To document patient observations, procedures, and outcomes. (Correct answer)
To maintain a record of all medical supplies used.

Correct answer: To document patient observations, procedures, and outcomes.

Patient charting is the systematic documentation of a patient's medical history, observations, procedures performed, and outcomes of care. Its primary purpose is to create a comprehensive, legal record that ensures continuity of care and effective communication among healthcare providers. Accurate charting is essential for tracking patient progress, making informed treatment decisions, and serving as a legal reference.

Question 36: Which needle gauge is most appropriate for a routine venipuncture in an adult with average veins?

18 gauge
25 gauge
14 gauge
21 gauge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 21 gauge

A 21-gauge needle is the standard choice for routine adult venipuncture, balancing flow rate and patient comfort.

Question 37: When performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer, the CMT should rub their hands together until when?

The hands feel completely dry (Correct answer)
The foam has disappeared
For at least 10 seconds
A sticky feeling develops

Correct answer: The hands feel completely dry

According to the CDC, when using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer, you should apply the product to the palm of one hand and rub your hands together, covering all surfaces of your hands and fingers, until your hands are dry. This typically takes about 20 seconds and ensures the sanitizer has had enough contact time to be effective.

Question 38: When auscultating blood pressure, the first sound heard as the cuff deflates represents the:

Diastolic pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Systolic pressure (Correct answer)
Pulse pressure

Correct answer: Systolic pressure

The first Korotkoff sound heard during BP auscultation corresponds to systolic pressure.

Question 39: Which blood cells are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen?

Plasma cells
White blood cells
Platelets
Red blood cells (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Red blood cells

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen for transport throughout the body.

Question 40: Oxygen saturation (SpO2) measured by pulse oximetry is considered normal at what percentage?

95–100% (Correct answer)
85–89%
90–93%
78–84%

Correct answer: 95–100%

A normal SpO2 reading is 95–100%; values below 90% indicate hypoxemia requiring intervention.

Question 41: A patient's blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg and they have a severe headache. The medical technician should:

Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider (Correct answer)
Recheck the blood pressure in 30 minutes
Administer an antihypertensive from the unit's medication cart
Document the finding and proceed with the scheduled procedure

Correct answer: Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider

A blood pressure of 180/110 with symptoms of severe headache is a hypertensive urgency requiring immediate reporting to the clinical team.

Question 42: The medulla oblongata controls which vital functions?

Memory and learning
Breathing and heart rate (Correct answer)
Voluntary movement
Vision and hearing

Correct answer: Breathing and heart rate

The medulla oblongata regulates autonomic functions including respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.

Question 43: When applying a bandage to an extremity, which direction should wrapping proceed?

Proximal to distal
Direction does not matter
Distal to proximal (Correct answer)
Only in a circular pattern

Correct answer: Distal to proximal

Bandages should be wrapped from distal to proximal (away from the heart toward the heart) to promote venous return.

Question 44: Which of the following is an unacceptable practice when documenting in a medical record due to the high risk of medication errors?

Using the abbreviation "U" for "unit" when documenting an insulin dose. (Correct answer)
Using military time (e.g., 14:00) for entries.
Documenting "0.5 mg" instead of ".5 mg".
Writing out "international unit" instead of using an abbreviation.

Correct answer: Using the abbreviation "U" for "unit" when documenting an insulin dose.

The abbreviation "U" for unit is on The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list because it can easily be mistaken for a "0" (zero), the number "4", or "cc", leading to a significant overdose. The other options represent safe documentation practices.

Question 45: What does the abbreviation 'SOB' stand for in medical charting?

Signs of bleeding
Status of bowels
Shortness of breath (Correct answer)
Sudden onset of bruising

Correct answer: Shortness of breath

SOB is a commonly used medical abbreviation for shortness of breath.

Question 46: When administering a transdermal patch, which of the following actions is a critical step to ensure patient safety and proper medication effect?

Placing the new patch in the exact same spot as the previous one.
Cutting the patch in half if the resident complains the dose is too strong.
Applying the patch to an area with extensive hair or broken skin.
Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application.

To ensure proper tracking and administration, the CMT should always label the new transdermal patch with the date, time of application, and their initials. It is also crucial to remove the old patch before applying the new one and to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation. Patches should never be cut, and they should be applied to clean, dry, intact skin.

Question 47: The normal range for adult oral temperature is:

101.0-103.0°F (38.3-39.4°C)
97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C) (Correct answer)
95.0-96.8°F (35.0-36.0°C)
99.5-101.0°F (37.5-38.3°C)

Correct answer: 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C)

Normal adult oral temperature ranges from 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C), with 98.6°F (37.0°C) being the commonly cited average.

Question 48: Which artery is typically used for routine adult pulse assessment?

Radial (Correct answer)
Dorsalis pedis
Femoral
Popliteal

Correct answer: Radial

The radial artery at the wrist is the standard site for routine pulse assessment in adults.

Question 49: What is the medical term for inflammation of the liver?

Cirrhosis
Hepatitis (Correct answer)
Cholecystitis
Hepatoma

Correct answer: Hepatitis

The medical term for inflammation of the liver is 'hepatitis.' This word is formed from 'hepato-,' referring to the liver, and the suffix '-itis,' which universally denotes inflammation in medical terminology. Hepatitis can be caused by various factors, including viral infections, alcohol abuse, or autoimmune conditions.

Question 50: A patient is found unresponsive in their room. After calling for help, what is the NEXT immediate action according to basic life support guidelines?

Open the airway and check for normal breathing (Correct answer)
Check for a pulse for at least 10 seconds before acting
Retrieve the AED before doing anything else
Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute

Correct answer: Open the airway and check for normal breathing

After activating the emergency response system, the next step is to open the airway (head-tilt chin-lift) and check for normal breathing. This assessment determines whether CPR or rescue breathing is needed before initiating compressions.

Question 51: Which of the following situations is an example of an adverse drug reaction (ADR) that a CMT must report immediately?

A resident complains of a dry mouth after taking an antihistamine.
A resident's blood pressure decreases to normal range after taking an antihypertensive.
A resident reports feeling drowsy after taking a prescribed sleep aid.
A resident develops a widespread rash and difficulty breathing after a new antibiotic dose. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A resident develops a widespread rash and difficulty breathing after a new antibiotic dose.

A widespread rash and difficulty breathing are signs of a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis), which is a life-threatening adverse drug reaction (ADR) requiring immediate medical attention. Dry mouth and drowsiness are common, expected side effects of certain medications, and a decrease in blood pressure from an antihypertensive is the intended therapeutic effect.

Question 52: What does a pulse oximeter measure?

Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (Correct answer)
Carbon dioxide levels
Blood pressure
Heart rate only

Correct answer: Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

A pulse oximeter uses light absorption to measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen (SpO2).

Question 53: Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is REQUIRED when handling all patient specimens in the laboratory?

N95 respirator and full gown
Surgical mask and goggles only
Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection (Correct answer)
Gloves only

Correct answer: Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection

Standard precautions require gloves to protect hands from blood/body fluid contact, a lab coat to protect clothing and skin, and eye protection against splashes.

Question 54: Which position should a patient be in for the most accurate blood pressure reading?

Sitting with back supported, feet flat (Correct answer)
Lying flat with legs elevated
Standing with arms at sides
Semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: Sitting with back supported, feet flat

The patient should be seated with back supported and feet flat on the floor with the arm at heart level for accurate BP measurement.

Question 55: When transferring a patient from bed to wheelchair, the wheelchair should be positioned:

At a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side (Correct answer)
Directly at the foot of the bed
Perpendicular to the bed on either side
At least 6 feet from the bed

Correct answer: At a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side

The wheelchair should be placed at a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side to allow the patient to bear weight and pivot on their stronger leg.

Question 56: Standard precautions apply to which of the following?

All patients regardless of diagnosis (Correct answer)
Only patients with known infectious diseases
Only surgical patients
Only patients in isolation rooms

Correct answer: All patients regardless of diagnosis

Standard precautions are applied to all patients in all healthcare settings, regardless of known or suspected infection status.

Question 57: What is 'anemia'?

High white blood cell count
Low blood pressure
Low red blood cell count (Correct answer)
High blood sugar levels

Correct answer: Low red blood cell count

Anemia is a medical condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood. Red blood cells are responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. A low count leads to reduced oxygen delivery, causing symptoms like fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.

Question 58: What does 'endoscopy' refer to in medical terms?

A procedure to visually examine internal organs (Correct answer)
A diagnostic imaging technique
A type of medical injection
A type of surgery

Correct answer: A procedure to visually examine internal organs

The term 'endoscopy' combines the prefix 'endo-,' meaning within, and '-scopy,' meaning to view or examine. It is a medical procedure that involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera (an endoscope) into the body through a natural opening or small incision to visually examine internal organs and structures. This allows for diagnosis, biopsy, and sometimes treatment without major surgery.

Question 59: A resident is using an inhaler for asthma. The medication needs to reach the smallest air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs. What are these structures called?

Trachea
Larynx
Alveoli (Correct answer)
Bronchi

Correct answer: Alveoli

The alveoli are the tiny, numerous air sacs at the end of the respiratory tract where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the bloodstream takes place.

Question 60: What is the term used for a condition where the body is unable to produce enough insulin?

Hyperthyroidism
Celiac disease
Chronic fatigue syndrome
Diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diabetes mellitus

Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels, resulting from either insufficient insulin production or the body's inability to effectively use the insulin it produces. Insulin is a crucial hormone that regulates glucose uptake by cells, and its deficiency or resistance leads to the hallmark symptoms of this condition. Other options like hyperthyroidism, celiac disease, and chronic fatigue syndrome are distinct medical conditions unrelated to insulin production.

Question 61: Before performing any procedure, informed consent requires the patient to understand:

The nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the procedure (Correct answer)
The cost of the procedure only
The technician's credentials and experience
Only the benefits of the procedure

Correct answer: The nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the procedure

Informed consent requires that the patient understands the procedure, its risks, benefits, and available alternatives before agreeing.

Question 62: A patient arrives at the clinic for a scheduled glucose tolerance test. The technician performs a point-of-care fasting glucose test, which reads 135 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Repeat the point-of-care test on the other hand.
Cancel the test and inform the patient to reschedule.
Notify the ordering physician of the fasting glucose result before proceeding. (Correct answer)
Administer the glucose beverage and proceed with the test.

Correct answer: Notify the ordering physician of the fasting glucose result before proceeding.

A fasting glucose level of 135 mg/dL is above the normal range. Standard protocol for a glucose tolerance test requires notifying the physician if the initial fasting glucose is elevated, as proceeding with the high-sugar beverage could be unsafe for the patient. The physician will then decide whether to continue with the test.

Question 63: Which universal sign indicates that a conscious patient is choking?

Placing hand on the chest
Shaking the head
Clutching the throat with both hands (Correct answer)
Pointing to the mouth

Correct answer: Clutching the throat with both hands

The universal choking sign is clutching the throat with one or both hands.

Question 64: During CPR, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single adult rescuer is:

20:2
30:2 (Correct answer)
15:2
5:1

Correct answer: 30:2

Current AHA guidelines recommend a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR.

Question 65: Which of the following is a critical step in preparing a 24-hour urine specimen container for a patient?

Ensuring the container is filled to the very top.
Instructing the patient to collect the very first morning void.
Labeling the container with only the patient's name.
Adding the required preservative to the container before collection begins. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Adding the required preservative to the container before collection begins.

For many 24-hour urine tests, a specific preservative is required to maintain the integrity of the analyte being measured. This preservative must be added to the collection container before the patient begins collecting the urine to ensure it mixes with the specimen from the start.

Question 66: Which of the following actions violates HIPAA patient privacy regulations?

Faxing records to a specialist with the patient's written authorization
Discussing a patient's diagnosis in a crowded elevator (Correct answer)
Sharing patient information with the treating physician
Accessing only the records needed for your assigned patient care

Correct answer: Discussing a patient's diagnosis in a crowded elevator

Discussing identifiable patient information in a public area where others can overhear is a HIPAA privacy violation.

Question 67: Which specimen tube color is used for a complete blood count (CBC)?

Lavender/purple top (Correct answer)
Green top
Red top
Blue top

Correct answer: Lavender/purple top

Lavender (purple) top tubes contain EDTA anticoagulant, which is required for CBC testing.

Question 68: Which needle gauge is MOST appropriate for a routine venipuncture on an adult patient with normal veins?

25-gauge
21-gauge (Correct answer)
18-gauge
30-gauge

Correct answer: 21-gauge

A 21-gauge needle is standard for routine adult venipuncture, balancing flow rate and patient comfort.

Question 69: A CMT makes an error while documenting in a resident's paper chart. What is the legally acceptable method for correcting this mistake?

Scribble over the incorrect entry until it is unreadable and write the correct information nearby.
Leave the error as is and add a correct entry on the next available line in the chart.
Use correction fluid to cover the error completely and write the correct information over it.
Draw a single line through the error, write "error" above it, and add the CMT's initials and the date. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write "error" above it, and add the CMT's initials and the date.

The correct and legal procedure for correcting an error in a paper medical record is to draw a single line through the incorrect entry so that it remains legible, then write "error" or "mistaken entry" nearby, and add the date, time, and initials of the person making the correction. This maintains the integrity of the legal document.

Question 70: Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy requires regular monitoring of which lab test?

Blood glucose
INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time) (Correct answer)
Complete blood count
Serum creatinine

Correct answer: INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (International Normalized Ratio), with a typical therapeutic range of 2.0-3.0.

Question 71: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?

100–120 beats per minute
40–60 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute (Correct answer)
120–140 beats per minute

Correct answer: 60–100 beats per minute

A normal adult resting heart rate is 60–100 beats per minute.

Question 72: The preferred method for collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis and culture is:

Catheterized specimen via suprapubic tap
Midstream clean-catch (Correct answer)
24-hour collection
First-morning random void

Correct answer: Midstream clean-catch

A midstream clean-catch specimen minimizes contamination from urethral flora by discarding the initial urine stream before collecting the mid-portion.

Question 73: The practice of reducing the number of microorganisms and preventing their spread is known as which of the following?

Sterilization
Medical asepsis (Correct answer)
Disinfection
Surgical asepsis

Correct answer: Medical asepsis

Medical asepsis, also known as the 'clean technique', involves practices that reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their transfer. This includes procedures like handwashing and cleaning the environment. Surgical asepsis ('sterile technique') aims to eliminate all microorganisms.

Question 74: When preparing a blood specimen for transport to a reference lab, which of the following is the most crucial piece of information to verify on the specimen label against the requisition form?

At least two unique patient identifiers. (Correct answer)
The time of collection.
The type of insurance carrier.
The name of the ordering physician.

Correct answer: At least two unique patient identifiers.

To prevent medical errors, it is a universal standard to use at least two unique patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth, or medical record number) to confirm a patient's identity. This must be verified on both the specimen label and the requisition form before transport.

Question 75: The 'five rights' of medication administration include all of the following EXCEPT:

Right diagnosis (Correct answer)
Right patient
Right dose
Right route

Correct answer: Right diagnosis

The five rights are: right patient, drug, dose, route, and time — 'right diagnosis' is not one of the five rights.

Question 76: State-designated mandatory reporting laws in healthcare primarily require providers to report:

Communicable diseases and conditions specified on the state's reportable disease list (Correct answer)
Any patient who refuses a recommended treatment or procedure
Cases where a patient lacks adequate health insurance coverage
All laboratory test results that fall outside normal reference ranges

Correct answer: Communicable diseases and conditions specified on the state's reportable disease list

Every U.S. state maintains a list of reportable communicable diseases (e.g., tuberculosis, hepatitis, STIs) that healthcare providers are legally required to report to public health authorities. Reporting is triggered by the specific diagnosis, not simply by an abnormal result, refusal of care, or insurance status.

Question 77: A diabetic patient reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and confused during a procedure. The BEST initial intervention is to:

Offer oral glucose (juice or glucose tablets) if the patient is conscious (Correct answer)
Administer insulin immediately
Call a code and wait for the response team
Complete the procedure and then address the patient's symptoms

Correct answer: Offer oral glucose (juice or glucose tablets) if the patient is conscious

Shakiness, diaphoresis, and confusion in a diabetic patient indicate hypoglycemia; oral glucose is the first-line treatment for a conscious patient.

Question 78: The term 'drug interaction' refers to:

The effect one drug has on the action of another drug when taken concurrently (Correct answer)
The manufacturing process of combining drugs
A medication's expiration date
A patient's allergic response to a drug

Correct answer: The effect one drug has on the action of another drug when taken concurrently

Drug interactions occur when one medication alters the effect of another, potentially increasing toxicity or decreasing efficacy.

Question 79: When completing a charting entry in a resident's medical record, which of the following is essential for the entry to be considered legally valid?

The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title. (Correct answer)
The entry must be reviewed by the facility administrator within 24 hours.
The entry must be written in blue ink only.
The entry must be co-signed by the supervising nurse.

Correct answer: The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title.

For a medical record entry to be legally sound, it must be clearly identifiable to the person who made it. This requires the date and time of the entry, as well as the full signature and professional title (e.g., J. Smith, CMT) of the individual. This ensures accountability and authenticity.

Question 80: Which federal agency has primary regulatory authority over in vitro diagnostic devices and reagents used in medical laboratory testing?

Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (Correct answer)
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Correct answer: Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The FDA regulates medical devices, including in vitro diagnostic (IVD) devices and reagents, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The CDC provides guidance, OSHA governs workplace safety, and CMS administers CLIA certification — but device approval falls under the FDA.

Question 81: Which medication requires checking an apical pulse for a full minute before administration?

Lisinopril
Digoxin (Correct answer)
Metformin
Aspirin

Correct answer: Digoxin

Digoxin requires a full 60-second apical pulse check; the medication should be held if the heart rate is below 60 bpm.

Question 82: A technician is instructed to obtain a sample for a Complete Metabolic Panel (CMP). Which of the following tests is included in a CMP?

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) (Correct answer)
White Blood Cell (WBC) count
Hemoglobin A1c

Correct answer: Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

A Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) is a blood test that measures 14 different substances in the blood. It provides information about the body's metabolism, including the health of the kidneys and liver. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver function test that is a standard component of the CMP.

Question 83: Which technique is used to collect a throat culture for Group A Streptococcus?

Swab the inner cheeks and gumline
Insert the swab into the nasopharynx
Swab the tonsils and posterior pharynx while avoiding the tongue and teeth (Correct answer)
Swab the anterior nares bilaterally

Correct answer: Swab the tonsils and posterior pharynx while avoiding the tongue and teeth

Group A Strep colonizes the tonsils and posterior pharynx; swabbing there while avoiding contamination from saliva on the tongue and teeth yields the most accurate specimen.

Question 84: The medical term for a rapid heart rate above 100 beats per minute is:

Tachycardia (Correct answer)
Arrhythmia
Fibrillation
Bradycardia

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia refers to a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute in adults at rest.

Question 85: Which term describes a condition of insufficient oxygen reaching body tissues?

Hyperoxia
Hypoxia (Correct answer)
Tachypnea
Apnea

Correct answer: Hypoxia

Hypoxia means deficient ('hypo-') oxygen ('-oxia') in the tissues. It differs from apnea (no breathing) and tachypnea (rapid breathing), which describe breathing patterns rather than tissue oxygenation.

Question 86: A CMT is administering several medications to a resident and understands that most of them will be filtered out of the bloodstream and excreted. Which organ is the primary site for filtering blood and eliminating most drugs from the body?

Spleen
Kidneys (Correct answer)
Liver
Bladder

Correct answer: Kidneys

The kidneys are the main organs of the urinary system that filter waste products, excess water, and drugs from the blood to create urine. Proper kidney function is crucial for drug clearance.

Question 87: The Z-track technique for intramuscular injection is used to:

Speed up medication absorption
Reduce the pain of injection
Prevent medication from leaking back through the needle track (Correct answer)
Allow for larger volumes of medication

Correct answer: Prevent medication from leaking back through the needle track

The Z-track method displaces the skin and subcutaneous tissue before injection, creating a zigzag path that seals the medication in the muscle.

Question 88: What is the correct positioning for a patient undergoing a lumbar puncture?

Sitting upright with legs dangling.
Lying on their back with knees to the chest.
Lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest. (Correct answer)
Standing with hands on the hips.

Correct answer: Lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest.

For a lumbar puncture, the correct positioning is lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest, often referred to as the fetal position. This specific posture helps to maximize the space between the vertebrae in the lumbar region. Widening these intervertebral spaces makes it easier and safer for the healthcare provider to insert the needle into the subarachnoid space, facilitating the procedure.

Question 89: After a resident refuses their scheduled blood pressure medication, and the charge nurse has been notified, what is the CMT's primary documentation responsibility?

Document the refusal on the MAR, note the reason for refusal if given, and record that the nurse was notified. (Correct answer)
Leave the medication administration record (MAR) blank for that time slot.
Chart the medication as 'held' without providing any additional context or reason.
Persuade the resident to take the medication and then chart it as given.

Correct answer: Document the refusal on the MAR, note the reason for refusal if given, and record that the nurse was notified.

Proper documentation of a medication refusal is critical. The CMT must record that the dose was not taken, the reason for the refusal, and the actions taken (such as notifying the nurse). This creates a clear and legal record of the event and the follow-up.

Question 90: A patient has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. This is documented as:

Apnea
Tachypnea (Correct answer)
Bradypnea
Hyperpnea

Correct answer: Tachypnea

Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute in adults.

Question 91: A patient refusing a prescribed treatment has the right to do so under which ethical/legal principle?

Justice
Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Patient autonomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient autonomy

Patient autonomy gives competent adults the legal and ethical right to refuse any medical treatment or procedure.

Question 92: A medical technician is performing a rapid strep test. What type of diagnostic procedure is this considered?

Molecular diagnostics
Point-of-care testing (POCT) (Correct answer)
Microbiology culture
Serology testing

Correct answer: Point-of-care testing (POCT)

A rapid strep test is a form of point-of-care testing (POCT). POCT is defined as medical diagnostic testing performed at or near the site of patient care, providing quick results that can be acted upon immediately.

Question 93: What type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels?

Smooth muscle (Correct answer)
Skeletal muscle
Striated voluntary muscle
Cardiac muscle

Correct answer: Smooth muscle

Smooth muscle lines the walls of blood vessels and controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

Question 94: Quality control (QC) samples in the clinical laboratory are used primarily to:

Determine normal reference ranges for a population
Replace patient specimens when volume is insufficient
Calibrate new laboratory staff
Monitor instrument and reagent performance to detect errors before patient results are reported (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor instrument and reagent performance to detect errors before patient results are reported

Running QC samples with known values allows the laboratory to detect systematic and random errors in the testing process before those errors affect patient results.

Question 95: A patient requires a nasogastric tube insertion. After insertion, what is the priority action before use?

Flush with 30 mL of water
Begin feeding immediately
Secure tube to nose with tape
Verify placement by checking gastric pH or X-ray (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verify placement by checking gastric pH or X-ray

Confirming NG tube placement via gastric pH testing or chest X-ray is mandatory before any use to prevent aspiration.

Question 96: During emergency triage using the START system, a patient who is breathing at 24 breaths/min with a radial pulse and follows commands is categorized as:

Yellow (delayed) (Correct answer)
Black (deceased/unsalvageable)
Red (immediate)
Green (minor)

Correct answer: Yellow (delayed)

In START triage, a patient who is breathing, has a radial pulse, and can follow commands but has injuries requiring care is classified as Yellow (delayed).

Question 97: A medical technician's 'scope of practice' is most authoritatively defined by:

Internal policies written by the facility's human resources department
The number of years of hands-on experience the technician has accumulated
The personal clinical judgment of the supervising physician on any given shift
State statutes, administrative regulations, and the standards set by the relevant certification body (Correct answer)

Correct answer: State statutes, administrative regulations, and the standards set by the relevant certification body

Scope of practice is legally established through state law and administrative regulations, and further delineated by credentialing and certification organizations. While facility policies and physician direction operate within that framework, they cannot legally expand beyond what state law and certification standards permit.

Question 98: Which site is most commonly used to assess pulse in an unresponsive adult?

Brachial artery
Carotid artery (Correct answer)
Radial artery
Femoral artery

Correct answer: Carotid artery

The carotid artery is used for pulse assessment in unresponsive adults because it is centrally located and easy to palpate.

Question 99: Which of the following is a sign of orthostatic hypotension?

Elevated pulse rate when lying down
Blood pressure rise of 20 mmHg upon standing
Dizziness and drop in BP of ≥20 mmHg systolic upon standing (Correct answer)
Decreased SpO2 during ambulation

Correct answer: Dizziness and drop in BP of ≥20 mmHg systolic upon standing

Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing.

Question 100: For an adult in cardiac arrest, chest compressions should be performed at a depth of:

At least 2 inches (5 cm) (Correct answer)
0.5–1 inch
1–1.5 inches
3–4 inches

Correct answer: At least 2 inches (5 cm)

AHA guidelines specify compressions of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches for adults.

Question 101: A CMT accidentally sustains a needlestick injury with a used lancet after performing a blood glucose check. What is the immediate, priority action the CMT should take?

Immediately report the incident to the supervisor.
Apply a sterile bandage and continue with duties.
Squeeze the puncture site to encourage bleeding.
Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water.

The immediate priority after a needlestick or sharps injury is to clean the exposed area. The CDC recommends washing the wound with soap and water. After cleaning the wound, the incident should be reported immediately to a supervisor to ensure proper follow-up and post-exposure prophylaxis can be initiated if necessary.

Question 102: Which of the following is the correct chain of survival sequence for cardiac arrest?

Early recognition → CPR → Defibrillation → Advanced care → Post-arrest care (Correct answer)
CPR → Call 911 → AED → Hospital
AED → CPR → 911 → Transport
Call 911 → AED → CPR → Advanced care

Correct answer: Early recognition → CPR → Defibrillation → Advanced care → Post-arrest care

The AHA Chain of Survival includes: early recognition and call for help, CPR, defibrillation, advanced care, and post-cardiac-arrest care.

Question 103: What is the primary purpose of a patient care plan?

To provide individualized, coordinated care based on the patient's specific needs (Correct answer)
To assign tasks to specific healthcare workers
To satisfy insurance billing requirements
To document the patient's financial information

Correct answer: To provide individualized, coordinated care based on the patient's specific needs

A care plan outlines individualized goals and interventions based on the patient's specific conditions, needs, and preferences.

Question 104: When monitoring a patient on telemetry, which ECG rhythm requires immediate intervention?

Normal sinus rhythm
Sinus bradycardia at 55 bpm in a sleeping patient
Sinus arrhythmia
Ventricular fibrillation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal rhythm with no organized cardiac activity, requiring immediate defibrillation.

Question 105: When using a biohazard sharps container, it should be:

Emptied and autoclaved for reuse
Filled to the top before closing and discarding
Replaced when three-quarters (75%) full (Correct answer)
Kept on the floor for easy access

Correct answer: Replaced when three-quarters (75%) full

Sharps containers should be replaced at the fill line (typically 75%) to prevent overfilling and accidental needlestick injuries.

Question 106: Which medical term refers to the surgical removal of the appendix?

Appendectomy (Correct answer)
Gastrectomy
Lobectomy
Cholecystectomy

Correct answer: Appendectomy

The medical term 'appendectomy' refers to the surgical removal of the appendix. It is composed of 'append-' (referring to the appendix) and '-ectomy' (a suffix meaning surgical removal). This procedure is commonly performed to treat appendicitis, which is the inflammation of the appendix.

Question 107: The preferred site for checking a pulse in an unresponsive adult patient is the:

Carotid artery (Correct answer)
Brachial artery
Radial artery
Femoral artery

Correct answer: Carotid artery

The carotid artery in the neck is the preferred pulse check site for unresponsive adults because it is large, central, and accessible.

Question 108: An abnormally low platelet count is termed:

Anemia
Neutropenia
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia refers to a platelet count below the normal range, typically under 150,000/μL.

Question 109: When performing a 12-lead ECG, where is lead V1 placed?

Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border (Correct answer)
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
Second intercostal space, right sternal border

Correct answer: Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border

Lead V1 is placed at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.

Question 110: What is the key ethical principle behind patient confidentiality?

The obligation to report injuries.
The need for transparency.
The right to privacy. (Correct answer)
The principle of autonomy.

Correct answer: The right to privacy.

The key ethical principle behind patient confidentiality is the patient's fundamental right to privacy. This principle ensures that personal health information shared with healthcare providers remains protected and is not disclosed without explicit consent. Upholding confidentiality fosters trust between patients and providers, encouraging open communication essential for effective and honest medical care.

Question 111: The acronym RACE in fire safety stands for:

Run, Alert, Close, Escape
Respond, Assess, Control, Eliminate
Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate (Correct answer)
Remove, Activate, Call, Exit

Correct answer: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate

RACE stands for Rescue (remove patients from danger), Alarm (pull fire alarm), Contain (close doors to contain fire and smoke), Extinguish/Evacuate.

Question 112: Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?

Liver
Kidney (Correct answer)
Spleen
Pancreas

Correct answer: Kidney

The kidneys filter blood, remove waste products, and produce urine as part of the renal system.

Question 113: A Certified Medical Technician (CMT) is preparing to assist a resident with a dressing change for a wound with a large amount of drainage. According to Standard Precautions, which combination of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is MOST appropriate for the CMT to wear?

Gloves and gown (Correct answer)
Gown and mask only
Gloves and face shield
Gloves only

Correct answer: Gloves and gown

Standard Precautions require wearing gloves when contact with blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin is possible. A gown is necessary to protect skin and clothing from splashes or sprays of body fluids, which is likely with a heavily draining wound. A mask and face shield would be needed if splashes to the face were anticipated, but gloves and a gown are the most essential items in this scenario.

Question 114: The term 'bilateral' means:

Above and below
On one side
Front and back
On both sides (Correct answer)

Correct answer: On both sides

Bilateral means pertaining to or affecting both sides, from 'bi-' (two) and 'lateral' (side).

Question 115: What should a medical technician do if they accidentally stick themselves with a used needle?

Continue with the procedure, as it’s a common mistake.
Dispose of the needle and keep working.
Use the needle for another task.
Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention.

Accidentally sticking oneself with a used needle is a serious occupational hazard that carries a significant risk of transmitting bloodborne pathogens. The immediate and correct action is to report the incident to a supervisor and seek medical attention without delay. This allows for proper documentation, risk assessment, and timely initiation of post-exposure prophylaxis if necessary, protecting the healthcare worker's health.

Question 116: A resident with asthma is due for their medication administered via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction is essential for the CMT to give the resident to ensure the medication is delivered effectively?

"It is not necessary to wait between puffs if a second dose is ordered."
"Hold your breath for 1-2 seconds after inhaling the medication."
"Inhale as quickly as you can after pressing the canister."
"Shake the inhaler well before use and take a slow, deep breath as you press the canister." (Correct answer)

Correct answer: "Shake the inhaler well before use and take a slow, deep breath as you press the canister."

For effective medication delivery from an MDI, the canister must be shaken well to mix the medication and propellant. The resident should then inhale slowly and deeply at the same time the canister is pressed to draw the medication deep into the lungs. Holding the breath for about 10 seconds after inhalation allows the medication to settle in the airways. Inhaling too quickly can cause the medication to deposit in the mouth or throat. If a second puff is needed, the resident should wait 20-30 seconds between puffs of the same medication.

Question 117: Which of the following is the most common site for drawing blood from an adult patient?

The femoral artery
The radial artery
The median cubital vein (Correct answer)
The jugular vein

Correct answer: The median cubital vein

The median cubital vein, located in the antecubital fossa (inner elbow), is the most common site for drawing blood due to several factors. It is typically large, superficial, and well-anchored, making it easily accessible and less prone to rolling during venipuncture. This location also generally causes less discomfort for the patient compared to other potential sites.

Question 118: The trachea divides into two main branches called:

Bronchioles
Bronchi (Correct answer)
Pleura
Alveoli

Correct answer: Bronchi

The trachea bifurcates at the carina into the right and left main bronchi, which enter each lung.

Question 119: What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

Producing red blood cells
Regulating body temperature
Filtering fluid and supporting immune function (Correct answer)
Transporting oxygen to tissues

Correct answer: Filtering fluid and supporting immune function

The lymphatic system returns excess interstitial fluid to the blood, filters pathogens, and houses immune cells.

Question 120: The medical abbreviation 'PRN' means:

Before surgery
As needed (Correct answer)
Every hour
After meals

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata) is a Latin abbreviation meaning 'as the situation demands' or 'as needed.'

Question 121: A medical technician is preparing to draw blood for a complete blood count (CBC), a basic metabolic panel (BMP), and a prothrombin time (PT) test. What is the correct order of draw for these tests?

Light Blue, Lavender, Red/Gold
Lavender, Red/Gold, Light Blue
Red/Gold, Light Blue, Lavender
Light Blue, Red/Gold, Lavender (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Light Blue, Red/Gold, Lavender

The correct order of draw is critical to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes. For these tests, the light blue top tube (for PT, which requires a citrate additive) must be drawn first. Next is the red or gold top tube (for the BMP, a serum test). Finally, the lavender top tube (for the CBC, which requires an EDTA additive) is drawn.

Question 122: Which level of disinfection is required for semicritical medical devices that contact mucous membranes?

Sterilization
Low-level disinfection
High-level disinfection (Correct answer)
Intermediate-level disinfection

Correct answer: High-level disinfection

Semicritical items that contact mucous membranes require high-level disinfection, which kills all microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores.

Question 123: When collecting a blood specimen, which tube should be drawn first using the order of draw?

Lavender top (EDTA)
Blood culture bottles (Correct answer)
Blue top (sodium citrate)
Green top (heparin)

Correct answer: Blood culture bottles

Blood culture bottles are always drawn first to minimize contamination risk, followed by the standard order of draw.

Question 124: Which tool uses a 0–10 numeric scale to assess a patient's pain level?

FLACC Scale
Wong-Baker FACES Scale
Glasgow Coma Scale
Numeric Rating Scale (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Numeric Rating Scale

The Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) asks patients to rate pain from 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst imaginable pain).

Question 125: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Standard precautions only
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room (Correct answer)
Droplet precautions with a surgical mask

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room

Active TB is transmitted via airborne particles requiring a negative-pressure isolation room and N95 respirator use.

Question 126: Which of the following is considered a non-sterile procedure?

Wound dressing change
Blood pressure measurement (Correct answer)
Catheter insertion
Intravenous catheter placement

Correct answer: Blood pressure measurement

A non-sterile procedure is one that does not require the use of sterile instruments or a sterile field because it does not involve breaking the skin or entering a normally sterile body cavity. Blood pressure measurement is a routine vital sign assessment performed externally on intact skin. In contrast, catheter insertion, wound dressing changes, and IV catheter placement are invasive procedures that require strict sterile technique to prevent infection.

Question 127: What color bag is used for disposing of regulated medical waste (biohazardous materials)?

Clear
Blue
Red (Correct answer)
Black

Correct answer: Red

Red bags marked with the biohazard symbol are used for regulated medical waste disposal.

Question 128: Which hormone is produced by the adrenal medulla during a stress response?

Insulin
Thyroxine
Cortisol
Epinephrine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epinephrine

Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released by the adrenal medulla as part of the fight-or-flight response.

Question 129: When providing rescue breaths during CPR, each breath should be delivered over:

3–4 seconds
1 second with visible chest rise (Correct answer)
5 seconds slowly
0.5 seconds forcefully

Correct answer: 1 second with visible chest rise

Each rescue breath should be delivered over 1 second and produce visible chest rise to avoid gastric inflation.

Question 130: A medication that is administered by placing it between the resident's cheek and gum is delivered via which route?

Oral
Sublingual
Topical
Buccal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Buccal

The buccal route of administration involves placing a medication in the buccal pouch, which is the area between the cheek and the gum. The medication dissolves and is absorbed through the mucous membranes directly into the bloodstream. This is different from the sublingual route (under the tongue) and the oral route (swallowed).

Question 131: The chain of infection includes six links. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Susceptible host
Antibiotic resistance (Correct answer)
Portal of entry
Reservoir

Correct answer: Antibiotic resistance

Antibiotic resistance is not a link in the chain of infection. The six links are: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

Question 132: Which type of fire extinguisher is appropriate for an electrical fire in a medical laboratory?

Class D (dry powder)
Class A (water)
Class C (CO2 or dry chemical) (Correct answer)
Class B (foam)

Correct answer: Class C (CO2 or dry chemical)

Class C extinguishers use non-conductive agents like CO2 or dry chemical and are required for electrical fires.

Question 133: Which class of medications is commonly used to lower blood pressure by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors?

Beta-blockers (Correct answer)
Calcium channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics

Correct answer: Beta-blockers

Beta-blockers reduce blood pressure and heart rate by blocking the effects of epinephrine on beta-adrenergic receptors.

Question 134: What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate at rest?

12-20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
30-40 breaths per minute
22-30 breaths per minute
8-10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12-20 breaths per minute

The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Question 135: When performing venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied how far above the intended site?

10-12 inches
1-2 inches
3-4 inches (Correct answer)
6-8 inches

Correct answer: 3-4 inches

The tourniquet should be placed 3-4 inches (7-10 cm) above the intended venipuncture site.

Question 136: A sputum specimen for culture should ideally be collected:

At bedtime following oral hygiene
First thing in the morning before eating or brushing teeth (Correct answer)
After vigorous exercise
After a full meal to maximize secretions

Correct answer: First thing in the morning before eating or brushing teeth

First-morning sputum contains the highest concentration of overnight accumulated secretions from the lower respiratory tract, improving diagnostic yield.

Question 137: Which temperature range is required for the transport of most routine blood specimens to preserve analyte stability?

–20°C to –80°C (frozen)
Room temperature (20°C to 25°C) (Correct answer)
37°C (body temperature)
2°C to 8°C (refrigerated)

Correct answer: Room temperature (20°C to 25°C)

Most routine blood specimens are transported at room temperature (20–25°C) because refrigeration can cause cold agglutination or analyte precipitation that alters results.

Question 138: The central nervous system (CNS) is the primary control center for the body. A medication that is classified as a 'CNS depressant' will primarily affect which two anatomical structures?

Peripheral nerves and ganglia
Stomach and intestines
Heart and lungs
Brain and spinal cord (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Brain and spinal cord

The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. These two structures work together to process information and coordinate all bodily functions.

Question 139: Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood through the aorta to the rest of the body?

Right ventricle
Left ventricle (Correct answer)
Right atrium
Left atrium

Correct answer: Left ventricle

The left ventricle is the most muscular chamber of the heart. It receives oxygen-rich blood from the left atrium and pumps it into the aorta, the body's largest artery, to be distributed systemically.

Question 140: The combining form 'hepato-' refers to which organ?

Liver (Correct answer)
Spleen
Kidney
Heart

Correct answer: Liver

The combining form 'hepato-' derives from the Greek word for liver. It appears in terms like hepatitis (liver inflammation) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).

Question 141: The purpose of a loading dose is to:

Replace a missed maintenance dose
Rapidly achieve therapeutic blood levels before switching to maintenance dosing (Correct answer)
Gradually introduce a medication to minimize side effects
Test for allergic reactions

Correct answer: Rapidly achieve therapeutic blood levels before switching to maintenance dosing

A loading dose is a higher initial dose that rapidly achieves therapeutic drug levels, followed by lower maintenance doses to sustain those levels.

Question 142: A patient receiving an IV infusion develops redness, swelling, and coolness at the insertion site. This most likely indicates:

Air embolism
Thrombosis
Infiltration (extravasation) (Correct answer)
Phlebitis

Correct answer: Infiltration (extravasation)

Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, causing swelling and coolness at the site.

Question 143: Transdermal medication patches work by:

Delivering medication through intact skin into systemic circulation over time (Correct answer)
Numbing only the skin surface
Absorbing toxins from the skin
Injecting medication through the skin with microneedles

Correct answer: Delivering medication through intact skin into systemic circulation over time

Transdermal patches deliver medication through the intact skin at a controlled rate for systemic absorption over hours or days.

Question 144: Nitroglycerin is primarily used to treat:

Hypertension
Bacterial infections
Diabetes
Angina pectoris (chest pain) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Angina pectoris (chest pain)

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator primarily used to relieve angina pectoris by dilating coronary arteries and reducing cardiac workload.

Question 145: A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed amoxicillin. The medical technician reviewing the order should:

Administer the medication since it is a physician order
Document the allergy and administer with epinephrine on standby
Withhold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider (Correct answer)
Check if the patient has ever tolerated amoxicillin before administering

Correct answer: Withhold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider

Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic; a known penicillin allergy requires withholding the drug and alerting the prescriber.

Question 146: Chain of custody documentation for a laboratory specimen is MOST important when:

The specimen is being tested for routine CBC
The specimen will be tested for forensic, legal, or drug screening purposes (Correct answer)
The specimen was collected early in the morning
The patient has a difficult venipuncture site

Correct answer: The specimen will be tested for forensic, legal, or drug screening purposes

Chain of custody documentation provides a legal record of who collected, handled, and tested the specimen, which is essential for forensic and drug testing results to be admissible in legal proceedings.

Question 147: The single most effective method for preventing the spread of infection in healthcare settings is:

Wearing gloves at all times
Wearing N95 respirators
Using antibiotics prophylactically
Hand hygiene (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hand hygiene

Hand hygiene, including handwashing and alcohol-based hand sanitizer use, is the most effective infection prevention measure.

Question 148: A confused elderly patient is attempting to climb out of bed. The safest immediate intervention is to:

Leave briefly to get restraints from the supply room
Raise all four side rails and walk away
Apply a physical restraint immediately
Stay with the patient, use calm verbal redirection, and call for help (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stay with the patient, use calm verbal redirection, and call for help

Staying with the patient and using calm redirection while calling for help is the safest intervention before any restrictive measures.

Question 149: What should be checked before administering medication using the 'Five Rights'?

Right drug, right dose, right nurse, right route, right time
Right patient, right cost, right dose, right route, right pharmacy
Right patient, right drug, right doctor, right route, right time
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

The Five Rights of medication administration are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time.

Question 150: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

Processing visual information
Regulating body temperature
Coordinating voluntary movement and balance (Correct answer)
Controlling heart rate

Correct answer: Coordinating voluntary movement and balance

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, maintains posture, and helps with balance and equilibrium.

Question 151: Which medication class requires monitoring of blood potassium levels?

Antacids
Loop diuretics (Correct answer)
Topical antibiotics
Acetaminophen

Correct answer: Loop diuretics

Loop diuretics (furosemide, bumetanide) cause potassium excretion in the urine, requiring regular monitoring of serum potassium levels.

CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam

The Certified Medical Technician (CMT) exam validates competency in clinical procedures, patient care, pharmacology, medical terminology, infection control, and regulatory compliance for entry-level medical technicians.

150

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. We have not yet matched this exam's facts to an official source, so confirm fees, dates and rules with the exam body. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy