CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which tube additive prevents glycolysis and preserves glucose levels in a specimen?

Sodium citrate
Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate (Correct answer)
EDTA
Sodium heparin

Correct answer: Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate

Sodium fluoride inhibits the enzyme enolase to stop glycolysis, while potassium oxalate acts as an anticoagulant, making this tube the standard choice for glucose testing.

Question 2: A 24-hour urine collection should be stored at which condition during the collection period?

Frozen at –20°C throughout collection
Warmed to body temperature
Room temperature with no preservative
Refrigerated at 2–8°C or with a specified preservative (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Refrigerated at 2–8°C or with a specified preservative

Refrigeration at 2–8°C or use of the appropriate chemical preservative prevents bacterial growth and analyte degradation during the full 24-hour collection period.

Question 3: Which of the following situations is an example of an adverse drug reaction (ADR) that a CMT must report immediately?

A resident's blood pressure decreases to normal range after taking an antihypertensive.
A resident develops a widespread rash and difficulty breathing after a new antibiotic dose. (Correct answer)
A resident reports feeling drowsy after taking a prescribed sleep aid.
A resident complains of a dry mouth after taking an antihistamine.

Correct answer: A resident develops a widespread rash and difficulty breathing after a new antibiotic dose.

A widespread rash and difficulty breathing are signs of a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis), which is a life-threatening adverse drug reaction (ADR) requiring immediate medical attention. Dry mouth and drowsiness are common, expected side effects of certain medications, and a decrease in blood pressure from an antihypertensive is the intended therapeutic effect.

Question 4: When performing a 12-lead ECG, where is lead V1 placed?

Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border (Correct answer)
Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

Correct answer: Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border

Lead V1 is placed at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.

Question 5: When performing a peak flow measurement, how many attempts should the patient perform and which result is recorded?

One attempt is sufficient
Three attempts; record the average
Two attempts; record the lowest value
Three attempts; record the highest value (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Three attempts; record the highest value

The patient performs three maximal efforts and the highest reading is recorded as the peak expiratory flow rate.

Question 6: A tourniquet should be applied no longer than how many minutes before venipuncture to prevent hemoconcentration?

1 minute (Correct answer)
5 minutes
30 seconds
2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 minute

A tourniquet left on longer than 1 minute causes hemoconcentration and falsely elevated results for proteins, enzymes, and cellular components.

Question 7: The term 'tachypnea' describes:

Slow breathing rate
Painful breathing
Cessation of breathing
Abnormally rapid breathing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Abnormally rapid breathing

Tachypnea means an abnormally rapid breathing rate, with 'tachy-' meaning fast and '-pnea' meaning breathing.

Question 8: When taking a blood pressure reading, the first Korotkoff sound heard represents:

Diastolic pressure
Systolic pressure (Correct answer)
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure

Correct answer: Systolic pressure

The first Korotkoff sound, a clear tapping noise, corresponds to the systolic blood pressure.

Question 9: A patient with dysphagia is to receive oral medications. Which modification is appropriate ONLY with a physician's order?

Offer medications one at a time
Provide a full glass of water with each tablet
Crush medications and mix with soft food (Correct answer)
Position the patient upright at 90 degrees

Correct answer: Crush medications and mix with soft food

Crushing medications requires a physician's or pharmacist's order because some medications are contraindicated for crushing (extended-release, enteric-coated).

Question 10: When using an AED, you should ensure which of the following before delivering a shock?

The patient is on a metal surface
All rescuers are clear of the patient (Correct answer)
CPR is ongoing during shock delivery
The patient's clothing is wet

Correct answer: All rescuers are clear of the patient

All personnel must stand clear of the patient before AED shock delivery to prevent accidental electrocution.

Question 11: Which site is most commonly used to assess pulse in an unresponsive adult?

Radial artery
Brachial artery
Carotid artery (Correct answer)
Femoral artery

Correct answer: Carotid artery

The carotid artery is used for pulse assessment in unresponsive adults because it is centrally located and easy to palpate.

Question 12: Which test is used to evaluate kidney function by measuring waste product filtration?

Prothrombin time
Serum creatinine and GFR (Correct answer)
Hemoglobin A1c
Liver function test

Correct answer: Serum creatinine and GFR

Serum creatinine and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) are primary indicators of kidney function.

Question 13: Insulin is classified as a:

Over-the-counter medication
Herbal supplement
High-alert medication (Correct answer)
Low-alert medication

Correct answer: High-alert medication

Insulin is classified as a high-alert medication by ISMP because errors in dosing can cause life-threatening hypoglycemia.

Question 14: State-designated mandatory reporting laws in healthcare primarily require providers to report:

All laboratory test results that fall outside normal reference ranges
Cases where a patient lacks adequate health insurance coverage
Any patient who refuses a recommended treatment or procedure
Communicable diseases and conditions specified on the state's reportable disease list (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Communicable diseases and conditions specified on the state's reportable disease list

Every U.S. state maintains a list of reportable communicable diseases (e.g., tuberculosis, hepatitis, STIs) that healthcare providers are legally required to report to public health authorities. Reporting is triggered by the specific diagnosis, not simply by an abnormal result, refusal of care, or insurance status.

Question 15: When applying a gait belt to assist a patient with ambulation, where should the belt be positioned?

Across the chest just below the armpits
Around the waist over clothing, snug enough to fit two fingers underneath (Correct answer)
Around the hips at the level of the greater trochanters
Directly on bare skin for a more secure grip

Correct answer: Around the waist over clothing, snug enough to fit two fingers underneath

The gait belt is placed around the waist over clothing with enough snugness to allow two fingers underneath. This positioning provides a secure, safe grip for the caregiver while protecting the patient's skin.

Question 16: Which medication class requires monitoring of blood potassium levels?

Acetaminophen
Topical antibiotics
Loop diuretics (Correct answer)
Antacids

Correct answer: Loop diuretics

Loop diuretics (furosemide, bumetanide) cause potassium excretion in the urine, requiring regular monitoring of serum potassium levels.

Question 17: Which needle gauge is most appropriate for a routine venipuncture in an adult with average veins?

14 gauge
21 gauge (Correct answer)
25 gauge
18 gauge

Correct answer: 21 gauge

A 21-gauge needle is the standard choice for routine adult venipuncture, balancing flow rate and patient comfort.

Question 18: Which organism is most commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections from improper catheter care?

Escherichia coli (Correct answer)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

Correct answer: Escherichia coli

E. coli is the most common cause of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs).

Question 19: Which vital sign measurement requires the use of a tympanic thermometer?

Axillary temperature
Ear (aural) temperature (Correct answer)
Rectal temperature
Oral temperature

Correct answer: Ear (aural) temperature

A tympanic thermometer measures temperature via infrared detection of heat from the tympanic membrane in the ear.

Question 20: When using a mechanical lift to transfer a patient, the most important safety step is:

Lifting the patient as high as possible for clearance
Checking the lift's weight capacity and sling condition before use (Correct answer)
Having only one person operate the lift
Completing the transfer as quickly as possible

Correct answer: Checking the lift's weight capacity and sling condition before use

Before any mechanical lift use, the weight capacity must be verified against the patient's weight, and the sling must be inspected for tears or wear.

Question 21: Under the False Claims Act, a medical technician who knowingly submits fraudulent billing claims to Medicare may face which penalty?

A verbal warning from their supervisor
Temporary suspension of CLIA certification
Mandatory additional training only
Civil monetary penalties and exclusion from federal health programs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Civil monetary penalties and exclusion from federal health programs

The False Claims Act imposes civil penalties of thousands of dollars per false claim and can result in exclusion from Medicare and Medicaid programs.

Question 22: Under HIPAA, a 'covered entity' includes which of the following?

A patient's family member
A health insurance plan (Correct answer)
A medical equipment manufacturer
A hospital visitor

Correct answer: A health insurance plan

HIPAA defines covered entities as health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers that transmit health information electronically.

Question 23: The maximum volume for a single subcutaneous injection in an adult is typically:

0.5 mL
3.0 mL
1.0-1.5 mL (Correct answer)
0.1 mL

Correct answer: 1.0-1.5 mL

The maximum volume for subcutaneous injection in adults is generally 1.0-1.5 mL to prevent tissue distension and discomfort.

Question 24: When a charting error is made in a paper medical record, the correct procedure is to:

Remove the page and rewrite it
Completely black out the error with marker
Use correction fluid to cover the error
Draw a single line through the error, write 'error,' initial, and date (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write 'error,' initial, and date

The correct method is to draw a single line through the error so it remains legible, then write 'error,' initial, and date the correction.

Question 25: When performing a capillary blood glucose test, which finger site is preferred for the puncture?

Lateral side of the fingertip (Correct answer)
Palm of the hand
Tip of the index finger, center
Base of the thumb

Correct answer: Lateral side of the fingertip

The lateral (side) aspect of the fingertip has fewer nerve endings and good capillary supply, reducing pain.

Question 26: A patient's record notes 'pallor.' This clinical sign indicates:

Redness and flushing of the skin
Abnormal paleness of the skin (Correct answer)
Yellowing of the skin
Bluish skin discoloration

Correct answer: Abnormal paleness of the skin

Pallor refers to an abnormal paleness of the skin, mucous membranes, or conjunctiva, often indicating anemia or poor perfusion.

Question 27: Which position should a patient be in for the most accurate blood pressure reading?

Sitting with back supported, feet flat (Correct answer)
Lying flat with legs elevated
Semi-Fowler's position
Standing with arms at sides

Correct answer: Sitting with back supported, feet flat

The patient should be seated with back supported and feet flat on the floor with the arm at heart level for accurate BP measurement.

Question 28: The recovery position is used for an unconscious patient who is breathing to:

Prevent aspiration of vomit and maintain airway patency (Correct answer)
Facilitate IV access
Reduce blood pressure
Improve cardiac output

Correct answer: Prevent aspiration of vomit and maintain airway patency

The recovery position (lateral decubitus) prevents airway obstruction and reduces aspiration risk in breathing unconscious patients.

Question 29: The abbreviation 'PRN' on a medication order means the drug should be given:

At bedtime only
Every four hours around the clock
As needed based on patient condition (Correct answer)
Every morning before meals

Correct answer: As needed based on patient condition

PRN stands for 'pro re nata,' a Latin phrase meaning 'as needed' based on the patient's condition.

Question 30: The medical term 'dyspnea' refers to:

Difficulty breathing (Correct answer)
Difficulty speaking
Difficulty swallowing
Difficulty urinating

Correct answer: Difficulty breathing

Dyspnea means difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, from the Greek 'dys' (difficult) and 'pnea' (breathing).

Question 31: A medical technician observes a patient in the 'supine' position. The patient is:

Lying face down
Lying on their side
Sitting upright at 90 degrees
Lying face up on their back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lying face up on their back

Supine position means lying flat on the back with the face upward, commonly used for many procedures.

Question 32: What type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels?

Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Striated voluntary muscle
Smooth muscle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Smooth muscle

Smooth muscle lines the walls of blood vessels and controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

Question 33: Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the point of attachment on the body?

Proximal (Correct answer)
Lateral
Inferior
Distal

Correct answer: Proximal

Proximal describes a position nearer to the point of origin or attachment, while distal is farther away.

Question 34: The medical prefix 'hypo-' means:

Below normal or deficient (Correct answer)
Above normal or excessive
Around or surrounding
Between or among

Correct answer: Below normal or deficient

The prefix 'hypo-' means below, under, or deficient, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypotension (low blood pressure).

Question 35: When completing a charting entry in a resident's medical record, which of the following is essential for the entry to be considered legally valid?

The entry must be reviewed by the facility administrator within 24 hours.
The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title. (Correct answer)
The entry must be written in blue ink only.
The entry must be co-signed by the supervising nurse.

Correct answer: The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title.

For a medical record entry to be legally sound, it must be clearly identifiable to the person who made it. This requires the date and time of the entry, as well as the full signature and professional title (e.g., J. Smith, CMT) of the individual. This ensures accountability and authenticity.

Question 36: A throat culture is primarily used to detect which pathogen?

Group A Streptococcus (Correct answer)
Candida albicans
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: Group A Streptococcus

Throat cultures are primarily performed to detect Group A Streptococcus (Strep pyogenes), the cause of strep throat.

Question 37: When collecting a blood specimen, which tube should be drawn first using the order of draw?

Lavender top (EDTA)
Green top (heparin)
Blood culture bottles (Correct answer)
Blue top (sodium citrate)

Correct answer: Blood culture bottles

Blood culture bottles are always drawn first to minimize contamination risk, followed by the standard order of draw.

Question 38: Standard precautions apply to which of the following?

Only patients in isolation rooms
Only surgical patients
Only patients with known infectious diseases
All patients regardless of diagnosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All patients regardless of diagnosis

Standard precautions are applied to all patients in all healthcare settings, regardless of known or suspected infection status.

Question 39: When monitoring a patient receiving a blood transfusion, the technician should watch for signs of transfusion reaction including:

Improved skin color only
Increased appetite and energy
Decreased heart rate and drowsiness
Fever, chills, urticaria, and back pain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fever, chills, urticaria, and back pain

Signs of transfusion reaction include fever, chills, hives (urticaria), back or flank pain, dyspnea, and hypotension.

Question 40: The process by which the body breaks down a drug into a less active or inactive form is known as:

Distribution
Excretion
Metabolism (Correct answer)
Absorption

Correct answer: Metabolism

Metabolism, also known as biotransformation, is the chemical alteration of a drug by the body. The liver is the primary site for drug metabolism. This process transforms the drug into metabolites that can be more easily eliminated from the body.

Question 41: Which documentation practice could lead to a malpractice claim?

Documenting vital signs immediately after taking them
Charting by exception without facility protocol (Correct answer)
Including the date and time on all entries
Using only approved abbreviations

Correct answer: Charting by exception without facility protocol

Charting by exception without an approved facility protocol can lead to malpractice claims because it may appear that assessments were not performed.

Question 42: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for:

Processing visual information
Regulating body temperature
Coordinating voluntary movement and balance (Correct answer)
Controlling heart rate

Correct answer: Coordinating voluntary movement and balance

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, maintains posture, and helps with balance and equilibrium.

Question 43: What is the correct sequence for applying a sterile dressing to a wound?

Place sterile pad, cleanse wound, apply tape
Secure with tape, cleanse wound, apply sterile pad
Cleanse wound, apply sterile pad, secure with tape (Correct answer)
Apply tape, place sterile pad, cleanse wound

Correct answer: Cleanse wound, apply sterile pad, secure with tape

The wound must be cleansed first, then the sterile pad is applied, and finally tape secures the dressing.

Question 44: A patient's oxygen saturation (SpO2) drops to 88%. The medical technician should first:

Document the finding and continue monitoring
Administer oxygen without an order
Reposition the patient and verify the reading, then notify the nurse or provider (Correct answer)
Wait 30 minutes and recheck

Correct answer: Reposition the patient and verify the reading, then notify the nurse or provider

First verify the reading by repositioning the probe and checking for signal quality, then promptly notify the nurse or provider for clinical assessment.

Question 45: An abnormally low platelet count is termed:

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia (Correct answer)
Neutropenia
Leukopenia

Correct answer: Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia refers to a platelet count below the normal range, typically under 150,000/μL.

Question 46: When performing a wound irrigation, which pressure range is considered therapeutic and safe?

30–50 psi
1–4 psi
4–15 psi (Correct answer)
15–30 psi

Correct answer: 4–15 psi

A pressure of 4–15 psi effectively removes debris without causing tissue trauma or driving bacteria deeper into the wound.

Question 47: When a CMT applies a medicated patch, the drug is absorbed through the skin to enter the bloodstream. To do this, the medication must pass through the epidermis and reach which underlying layer that contains blood vessels?

Subcutaneous tissue
Hypodermis
Stratum corneum
Dermis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dermis

The dermis is the layer of skin directly beneath the epidermis. It is rich in blood vessels, nerves, and glands. For a medication to have a systemic effect, it must be absorbed into the capillaries located within the dermis.

Question 48: Quality control (QC) samples in the clinical laboratory are used primarily to:

Calibrate new laboratory staff
Determine normal reference ranges for a population
Replace patient specimens when volume is insufficient
Monitor instrument and reagent performance to detect errors before patient results are reported (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor instrument and reagent performance to detect errors before patient results are reported

Running QC samples with known values allows the laboratory to detect systematic and random errors in the testing process before those errors affect patient results.

Question 49: What is the consequence of performing high-complexity testing without proper CLIA certification?

Temporary suspension of one employee's license
Civil and/or criminal penalties and loss of Medicare/Medicaid reimbursement (Correct answer)
Mandatory staff retraining only
A warning letter from the CDC

Correct answer: Civil and/or criminal penalties and loss of Medicare/Medicaid reimbursement

Performing testing beyond a lab's CLIA certification can result in civil penalties, criminal charges, and exclusion from federal reimbursement programs.

Question 50: For a chemical burn to the skin, the immediate treatment is to:

Apply butter or oil to soothe the area
Cover with a dry sterile dressing
Flush with large amounts of water for 15–20 minutes (Correct answer)
Apply a neutralizing agent directly

Correct answer: Flush with large amounts of water for 15–20 minutes

Flushing chemical burns with copious water for 15–20 minutes dilutes and removes the caustic agent.

Question 51: Which term means the study of the causes of disease?

Epidemiology
Pathology
Pharmacology
Etiology (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Etiology

Etiology refers to the study or science of the causes and origins of diseases.

Question 52: A patient's oxygen saturation drops to 88% on room air. The FIRST action should be to:

Document the reading and continue monitoring
Recheck the pulse oximeter on a different finger
Call a code blue immediately
Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the nurse or provider (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the nurse or provider

An SpO2 of 88% is below the normal threshold; apply oxygen immediately and notify nursing/provider for further assessment.

Question 53: A CMT measures a resident's vital signs and finds the following: Blood Pressure 150/95 mmHg, Pulse 105 bpm, Respirations 22 rpm, Temperature 98.9°F. The resident's baseline blood pressure is typically 120/80 mmHg. What is the most appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Document the vital signs and re-check them in four hours.
Ask the resident if they are feeling anxious or have been active.
Report the elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respirations to the supervising nurse. (Correct answer)
Administer the resident's scheduled blood pressure medication immediately.

Correct answer: Report the elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respirations to the supervising nurse.

The CMT's primary role in monitoring is to collect data and report abnormal findings to the licensed nurse. The blood pressure, pulse, and respiration rate are all elevated compared to a typical baseline. This requires the clinical judgment of a nurse to assess the situation and decide on the appropriate intervention. A CMT does not independently decide to administer medication outside of the prescribed schedule or simply wait to re-assess significant changes.

Question 54: Cultural competence in healthcare means:

Treating all patients exactly the same regardless of background
Only treating patients from the same cultural background
Ignoring cultural differences to avoid bias
Understanding and respecting diverse cultural beliefs and adapting care accordingly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Understanding and respecting diverse cultural beliefs and adapting care accordingly

Cultural competence involves understanding, respecting, and incorporating patients' cultural beliefs and practices into care delivery.

Question 55: Antibiotics should ideally be administered:

Only on an empty stomach regardless of type
Only when the patient feels unwell
All at once in the morning for convenience
At evenly spaced intervals to maintain consistent blood levels (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At evenly spaced intervals to maintain consistent blood levels

Antibiotics should be given at evenly spaced intervals (e.g., every 6 hours for QID) to maintain consistent therapeutic blood levels.

Question 56: The proper technique for oral suctioning includes:

Suctioning for at least 30 seconds at a time
Applying continuous suction while inserting the catheter
Inserting without suction and applying suction during withdrawal (Correct answer)
Using maximum suction pressure at all times

Correct answer: Inserting without suction and applying suction during withdrawal

The catheter should be inserted without suction applied and suction activated only during withdrawal to prevent tissue damage.

Question 57: When administering eye drops, the medication should be instilled into the:

Upper eyelid
Inner canthus
Center of the cornea
Lower conjunctival sac (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lower conjunctival sac

Eye drops are placed into the lower conjunctival sac (the pocket formed by gently pulling down the lower eyelid) to avoid direct corneal irritation.

Question 58: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean in medical terminology?

Within
Above normal or excessive (Correct answer)
Below normal
Around

Correct answer: Above normal or excessive

The prefix 'hyper-' means above normal, excessive, or beyond, as in hypertension (elevated blood pressure).

Question 59: Which artery is typically used for routine adult pulse assessment?

Dorsalis pedis
Femoral
Radial (Correct answer)
Popliteal

Correct answer: Radial

The radial artery at the wrist is the standard site for routine pulse assessment in adults.

Question 60: The chain of infection includes six links. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Antibiotic resistance (Correct answer)
Susceptible host
Portal of entry
Reservoir

Correct answer: Antibiotic resistance

Antibiotic resistance is not a link in the chain of infection. The six links are: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

Question 61: Which body plane divides the body into front and back portions?

Coronal (frontal) plane (Correct answer)
Transverse plane
Sagittal plane
Oblique plane

Correct answer: Coronal (frontal) plane

The coronal or frontal plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions.

Question 62: Pain is often referred to as which vital sign?

Fifth vital sign (Correct answer)
Third vital sign
Sixth vital sign
Fourth vital sign

Correct answer: Fifth vital sign

Pain is widely recognized as the fifth vital sign alongside temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

Question 63: The practice of reducing the number of microorganisms and preventing their spread is known as which of the following?

Medical asepsis (Correct answer)
Sterilization
Surgical asepsis
Disinfection

Correct answer: Medical asepsis

Medical asepsis, also known as the 'clean technique', involves practices that reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their transfer. This includes procedures like handwashing and cleaning the environment. Surgical asepsis ('sterile technique') aims to eliminate all microorganisms.

Question 64: What does a pulse oximeter measure?

Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (Correct answer)
Blood pressure
Carbon dioxide levels
Heart rate only

Correct answer: Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

A pulse oximeter uses light absorption to measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen (SpO2).

Question 65: Which of the following terms describes the process by which a drug is transported from the site of administration to the body's bloodstream?

Absorption (Correct answer)
Excretion
Distribution
Metabolism

Correct answer: Absorption

Pharmacokinetics involves four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption is the first step, where the medication moves from the administration site (e.g., the stomach after swallowing a pill, or muscle after an injection) into the circulatory system.

Question 66: What is the normal respiratory rate for a resting adult?

6–10 breaths/min
12–20 breaths/min (Correct answer)
22–28 breaths/min
30–36 breaths/min

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths/min

A normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute.

Question 67: Which electrolyte is most important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission?

Magnesium
Calcium (Correct answer)
Sodium
Potassium

Correct answer: Calcium

Calcium is essential for triggering muscle contraction and plays a role in neurotransmitter release at nerve synapses.

Question 68: How long should a standard surgical hand scrub last?

15-30 seconds
10-15 minutes
2-6 minutes (Correct answer)
1-2 minutes

Correct answer: 2-6 minutes

A surgical hand scrub should last 2-6 minutes depending on the product used and institutional protocol.

Question 69: A patient is described as 'diaphoretic.' This means the patient is:

Having difficulty swallowing
Experiencing chest pain
Confused and disoriented
Sweating profusely (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sweating profusely

Diaphoretic describes excessive sweating (diaphoresis), which may indicate shock, fever, or cardiac events.

Question 70: When administering a transdermal patch, which of the following actions is a critical step to ensure patient safety and proper medication effect?

Cutting the patch in half if the resident complains the dose is too strong.
Applying the patch to an area with extensive hair or broken skin.
Placing the new patch in the exact same spot as the previous one.
Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application.

To ensure proper tracking and administration, the CMT should always label the new transdermal patch with the date, time of application, and their initials. It is also crucial to remove the old patch before applying the new one and to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation. Patches should never be cut, and they should be applied to clean, dry, intact skin.

Question 71: A CMT makes an error while documenting in a resident's paper chart. What is the legally acceptable method for correcting this mistake?

Draw a single line through the error, write "error" above it, and add the CMT's initials and the date. (Correct answer)
Scribble over the incorrect entry until it is unreadable and write the correct information nearby.
Use correction fluid to cover the error completely and write the correct information over it.
Leave the error as is and add a correct entry on the next available line in the chart.

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write "error" above it, and add the CMT's initials and the date.

The correct and legal procedure for correcting an error in a paper medical record is to draw a single line through the incorrect entry so that it remains legible, then write "error" or "mistaken entry" nearby, and add the date, time, and initials of the person making the correction. This maintains the integrity of the legal document.

Question 72: Which injection route has the slowest absorption rate?

Intramuscular
Intravenous
Subcutaneous
Intradermal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intradermal

Intradermal injections are placed in the dermis, which has limited blood supply, resulting in the slowest absorption.

Question 73: Capillary refill time is assessed by pressing on a nail bed and should return to normal color within:

Less than 2 seconds (Correct answer)
3-5 seconds
10-15 seconds
5-10 seconds

Correct answer: Less than 2 seconds

Normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

Question 74: The anatomical plane that divides the body into left and right halves is the:

Coronal plane
Oblique plane
Transverse plane
Sagittal plane (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sagittal plane

The sagittal (midsagittal or median) plane divides the body into left and right portions.

Question 75: When performing wound care, the correct technique for cleaning a wound is:

Back and forth scrubbing across the wound
From the center of the wound outward (Correct answer)
Circular motion from outer edges to center
Random pattern to cover all areas

Correct answer: From the center of the wound outward

Wounds should be cleaned from the center (cleanest area) outward (least clean area) to prevent introducing bacteria.

Question 76: A resident has a physician's order for an oral tablet, but they are currently experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Withhold the medication and report the resident's symptoms to the nurse. (Correct answer)
Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce.
Wait 30 minutes and try to administer the medication again.
Administer the medication with a large glass of water to settle the stomach.

Correct answer: Withhold the medication and report the resident's symptoms to the nurse.

The oral route is contraindicated for a resident who is actively vomiting, as they will be unable to keep the medication down, leading to an incorrect or missed dose. The CMT's primary responsibility is to ensure safe medication administration. The most appropriate and safest action is to withhold the dose, document the reason, and immediately report the resident's condition to the supervising licensed nurse for further assessment and instructions.

Question 77: The term 'nosocomial infection' refers to:

A surgically implanted infection
A healthcare-associated infection (Correct answer)
An infection acquired in the community
A congenital infection

Correct answer: A healthcare-associated infection

Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in healthcare facilities, now more commonly called healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).

Question 78: The Heimlich maneuver delivers abdominal thrusts to relieve choking by:

Forcing air upward from the lungs to dislodge the obstruction (Correct answer)
Compressing the carotid arteries
Stimulating the gag reflex
Increasing stomach acid secretion

Correct answer: Forcing air upward from the lungs to dislodge the obstruction

Abdominal thrusts increase intrathoracic pressure, forcing residual air upward to expel the foreign body.

Question 79: Continuous cardiac monitoring is most important for patients receiving which type of medication?

Intravenous potassium (Correct answer)
Oral antibiotics
Oral acetaminophen
Topical antifungal cream

Correct answer: Intravenous potassium

IV potassium administration requires continuous cardiac monitoring because rapid infusion or high concentrations can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 80: When applying a medicated cream to a resident's skin, which of the following actions is a critical part of the correct procedure?

Wear gloves and apply a thin, even layer to clean, dry skin. (Correct answer)
Apply a thick layer to ensure maximum absorption.
Rub the cream vigorously into the skin until it disappears.
Apply the cream to broken skin to promote faster healing.

Correct answer: Wear gloves and apply a thin, even layer to clean, dry skin.

Proper procedure for applying topical medications like creams includes performing hand hygiene, wearing gloves to prevent contamination and self-exposure, ensuring the resident's skin is clean and dry, and applying a thin, even layer of the medication. Applying a thick layer can be wasteful and is not indicated unless specifically ordered. Vigorous rubbing can irritate the skin, and medication should not be applied to broken or irritated skin unless specifically directed by the physician's order.

Question 81: When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to an exam table, the medical technician should:

Stand behind the patient and lift from the waist
Lock the wheelchair, position it at 45°, and use proper body mechanics (Correct answer)
Ask the patient to jump across to the table
Have the patient stand and pivot without assistance

Correct answer: Lock the wheelchair, position it at 45°, and use proper body mechanics

Locking the wheelchair and positioning it at a 45-degree angle with proper body mechanics prevents injury to both patient and technician.

Question 82: The ethical principle of 'nonmaleficence' means:

Do no harm (Correct answer)
Telling the truth
Doing good for the patient
Treating all patients equally

Correct answer: Do no harm

Nonmaleficence is the principle of 'primum non nocere'—first, do no harm.

Question 83: A patient requires a nasogastric tube insertion. After insertion, what is the priority action before use?

Verify placement by checking gastric pH or X-ray (Correct answer)
Flush with 30 mL of water
Secure tube to nose with tape
Begin feeding immediately

Correct answer: Verify placement by checking gastric pH or X-ray

Confirming NG tube placement via gastric pH testing or chest X-ray is mandatory before any use to prevent aspiration.

Question 84: Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy requires regular monitoring of which lab test?

Serum creatinine
INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time) (Correct answer)
Complete blood count
Blood glucose

Correct answer: INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (International Normalized Ratio), with a typical therapeutic range of 2.0-3.0.

Question 85: A resident begins to experience shortness of breath, hives, and swelling of the lips shortly after receiving a new antibiotic. The CMT recognizes these signs are indicative of what type of medication action?

An anaphylactic reaction (Correct answer)
A synergistic effect
A therapeutic effect
An expected side effect

Correct answer: An anaphylactic reaction

The signs described—shortness of breath, hives (urticaria), and swelling (angioedema)—are classic symptoms of anaphylaxis, a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. This is an adverse drug reaction that requires immediate medical intervention. A therapeutic effect is the desired outcome, and an expected side effect is a known, non-allergic reaction that is generally less severe.

Question 86: During emergency triage using the START system, a patient who is breathing at 24 breaths/min with a radial pulse and follows commands is categorized as:

Black (deceased/unsalvageable)
Red (immediate)
Yellow (delayed) (Correct answer)
Green (minor)

Correct answer: Yellow (delayed)

In START triage, a patient who is breathing, has a radial pulse, and can follow commands but has injuries requiring care is classified as Yellow (delayed).

Question 87: The correct technique for counting respirations is to:

Count only during exhalation phases
Ask the patient to count each breath aloud
Count breaths without informing the patient to avoid conscious alteration (Correct answer)
Tell the patient to breathe normally and count

Correct answer: Count breaths without informing the patient to avoid conscious alteration

Respirations should be counted without the patient's knowledge because awareness can alter breathing pattern.

Question 88: A Certified Medical Technician (CMT) is preparing to administer a medication to a resident. The Medication Administration Record (MAR) says to give 'Lisinopril 10 mg by mouth once daily'. The medication package from the pharmacy is labeled 'Lisinopril 20 mg'. What is the MOST appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Use a pill-cutter to split the 20 mg tablet in half to provide the correct 10 mg dose.
Ask the resident if they normally take a 10 mg or 20 mg tablet.
Withhold the medication and report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse immediately. (Correct answer)
Administer the 20 mg tablet because it is the same medication.

Correct answer: Withhold the medication and report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse immediately.

The 'Six Rights of Medication Administration' include the Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, Right Patient, and Right Documentation. In this scenario, the dose on the pharmacy label (20 mg) does not match the dose on the MAR (10 mg). A CMT's scope of practice does not include altering medication dosages. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to stop the administration process and immediately report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse for clarification and resolution.

Question 89: A specimen is rejected by the laboratory if it is received with which condition?

The specimen was collected by venipuncture
The label matches the requisition exactly
The tube is unlabeled or mismatched with the requisition (Correct answer)
The specimen is slightly lipemic

Correct answer: The tube is unlabeled or mismatched with the requisition

An unlabeled or mislabeled specimen presents a serious patient safety risk and must be rejected per laboratory policy to prevent result reporting errors.

Question 90: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) protects healthcare workers by:

Setting patient care standards
Managing healthcare insurance programs
Licensing healthcare professionals
Establishing and enforcing workplace safety and health regulations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Establishing and enforcing workplace safety and health regulations

OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces workplace safety standards to protect employees from hazards, including those in healthcare settings.

Question 91: Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is REQUIRED when handling all patient specimens in the laboratory?

N95 respirator and full gown
Gloves only
Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection (Correct answer)
Surgical mask and goggles only

Correct answer: Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection

Standard precautions require gloves to protect hands from blood/body fluid contact, a lab coat to protect clothing and skin, and eye protection against splashes.

Question 92: A CMT is cleaning a resident's room after they have been discharged. The resident had a known infection with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which type of product is essential for cleaning the environmental surfaces?

A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent (Correct answer)
A quaternary ammonium compound
An ammonia-based cleaning solution
A standard alcohol-based sanitizer

Correct answer: A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent

Clostridioides difficile forms spores that are resistant to standard disinfectants, including alcohol-based hand rubs and some hospital-grade cleaners. Therefore, a sporicidal agent, such as a bleach-based disinfectant, is required to effectively kill the spores and decontaminate the environment.

Question 93: The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in which chamber of the heart?

Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Left atrium
Right atrium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right atrium

The SA node, the heart's natural pacemaker, is located in the upper wall of the right atrium.

Question 94: When applying a transdermal medication patch, what must the medical technician do before applying the new patch?

Remove the old patch and cleanse the skin before applying the new one (Correct answer)
Leave the old patch in place and apply the new one to the opposite site
Apply the new patch first, then remove the old one after 1 hour
Place the new patch over the old one for a smoother transition

Correct answer: Remove the old patch and cleanse the skin before applying the new one

The old patch must be removed and the skin cleansed to prevent overdose from residual medication before the new patch is applied.

Question 95: The medulla oblongata controls which vital functions?

Voluntary movement
Breathing and heart rate (Correct answer)
Vision and hearing
Memory and learning

Correct answer: Breathing and heart rate

The medulla oblongata regulates autonomic functions including respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.

Question 96: A patient with a chest tube should be monitored for:

Expected continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
The drainage system being elevated above the chest
Clamped chest tubes at all times
Tidaling (fluctuation) in the water seal chamber with respiration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tidaling (fluctuation) in the water seal chamber with respiration

Tidaling (fluid level rising with inspiration and falling with expiration) in the water seal chamber is a normal finding indicating the system is functioning properly.

Question 97: What should you do if a patient begins to show signs of distress during a procedure?

Immediately stop the procedure and call for assistance. (Correct answer)
Administer medication without consultation.
Ignore the signs as it might be temporary.
Continue the procedure and observe the patient.

Correct answer: Immediately stop the procedure and call for assistance.

Patient distress during a procedure can indicate a serious complication, an adverse reaction, or severe discomfort. Immediately stopping the procedure ensures the patient's safety and allows for a prompt assessment of their condition. Calling for assistance brings in additional medical expertise to manage the situation effectively.

Question 98: A fasting blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions indicates:

Prediabetes
Diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Hypoglycemia
Normal glucose metabolism

Correct answer: Diabetes mellitus

A fasting blood glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher on two occasions meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.

Question 99: During oxygen therapy via nasal cannula, what is the typical flow rate range?

1–6 L/min (Correct answer)
15–20 L/min
10–15 L/min
6–10 L/min

Correct answer: 1–6 L/min

Nasal cannula delivers oxygen at 1–6 L/min; higher flow rates are delivered via masks.

Question 100: When documenting vital signs, 'afebrile' indicates the patient:

Has no fever (Correct answer)
Has low blood pressure
Has a rapid pulse
Has an elevated temperature

Correct answer: Has no fever

Afebrile means without fever; the prefix 'a-' means without and 'febril' relates to fever.

Question 101: When administering an otic (ear) medication, the adult ear canal is straightened by pulling the pinna:

Up and back (Correct answer)
Straight outward
Down and back
Forward and down

Correct answer: Up and back

In adults, the ear canal is straightened by pulling the pinna (outer ear) up and back to facilitate medication delivery.

Question 102: A patient's chart shows 'NPO.' What does this mean for care planning?

Administer pain medication orally
Normal post-operative diet
Patient may have clear liquids only
Nothing by mouth — withhold all oral intake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nothing by mouth — withhold all oral intake

NPO stands for 'nil per os' (nothing by mouth) and means the patient must not eat or drink anything.

Question 103: OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to:

Provide only verbal safety training
Report only fatal workplace injuries
Develop and implement an Exposure Control Plan (Correct answer)
Allow employees to determine their own safety equipment

Correct answer: Develop and implement an Exposure Control Plan

OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates that employers maintain a written Exposure Control Plan and provide training, PPE, and post-exposure follow-up.

Question 104: What is the first step in preparing a patient for a blood pressure measurement?

Take the patient’s temperature first.
Ensure the patient is seated with their arm at heart level. (Correct answer)
Wrap the cuff around the patient’s leg.
Ask the patient to lay down.

Correct answer: Ensure the patient is seated with their arm at heart level.

Proper patient positioning is vital for obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading. The patient should be comfortably seated with their back supported, feet flat on the floor, and the arm being measured supported at heart level. This ensures that hydrostatic pressure does not artificially inflate or deflate the reading, leading to reliable results.

Question 105: When using a biohazard sharps container, it should be:

Emptied and autoclaved for reuse
Filled to the top before closing and discarding
Kept on the floor for easy access
Replaced when three-quarters (75%) full (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Replaced when three-quarters (75%) full

Sharps containers should be replaced at the fill line (typically 75%) to prevent overfilling and accidental needlestick injuries.

Question 106: On a urine dipstick, a positive nitrite result suggests the presence of:

Blood in the urine
Renal calculi
Gram-negative bacterial infection (Correct answer)
Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: Gram-negative bacterial infection

Many gram-negative bacteria convert urinary nitrates to nitrites via bacterial reductase, making a positive nitrite test an indicator of gram-negative urinary tract infection.

Question 107: The sublingual route of medication administration involves placing the medication:

Between the cheek and gum
On the skin surface
In the ear canal
Under the tongue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Under the tongue

Sublingual means 'under the tongue,' where the medication dissolves and is absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the oral mucosa.

Question 108: What should you do if you notice an error in the patient's medical records?

Ask the patient if they noticed any discrepancies.
Report the error to the appropriate personnel and correct the record. (Correct answer)
Delete the record and create a new one.
Ignore the error if it doesn't seem serious.

Correct answer: Report the error to the appropriate personnel and correct the record.

Medical records are critical for patient care, treatment decisions, and legal documentation. Errors can lead to incorrect diagnoses, inappropriate treatments, or adverse events. Therefore, any identified error must be promptly reported to the supervisor or designated personnel and corrected according to established protocols to maintain accuracy and patient safety.

Question 109: The purpose of a loading dose is to:

Gradually introduce a medication to minimize side effects
Replace a missed maintenance dose
Rapidly achieve therapeutic blood levels before switching to maintenance dosing (Correct answer)
Test for allergic reactions

Correct answer: Rapidly achieve therapeutic blood levels before switching to maintenance dosing

A loading dose is a higher initial dose that rapidly achieves therapeutic drug levels, followed by lower maintenance doses to sustain those levels.

Question 110: A patient is prescribed ear drops. Which technique should be used to straighten the ear canal in an adult?

Pull the pinna down and back
No manipulation needed
Pull the pinna forward
Pull the pinna up and back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pull the pinna up and back

In adults, pulling the pinna up and back straightens the ear canal, allowing the drops to reach the tympanic membrane.

Question 111: What is the correct temperature range for an autoclave used for standard sterilization?

150-160°C (302-320°F)
100-110°C (212-230°F)
121-134°C (250-273°F) (Correct answer)
180-200°C (356-392°F)

Correct answer: 121-134°C (250-273°F)

Autoclaves use pressurized steam at 121-134°C (250-273°F) to achieve sterilization.

Question 112: A resident who is alert and oriented refuses to take their prescribed blood pressure medication. What is the CMT's primary ethical and legal responsibility?

To inform the resident of the potential risks of not taking the medication and document the refusal. (Correct answer)
To crush the medication and mix it in their food to ensure they receive it.
To ask the resident's family to convince them to take the medication.
To tell the resident they cannot have their dinner until they take the medication.

Correct answer: To inform the resident of the potential risks of not taking the medication and document the refusal.

Competent adults have the right to make decisions about their own healthcare, which includes the right to refuse treatment or medication. This is a core component of patient autonomy and informed consent. The CMT's responsibility is to ensure the resident is informed, respect their decision, and properly document the refusal before notifying the supervising nurse.

Question 113: A medical technician is performing a rapid strep test. What type of diagnostic procedure is this considered?

Molecular diagnostics
Serology testing
Microbiology culture
Point-of-care testing (POCT) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Point-of-care testing (POCT)

A rapid strep test is a form of point-of-care testing (POCT). POCT is defined as medical diagnostic testing performed at or near the site of patient care, providing quick results that can be acted upon immediately.

Question 114: In an anaphylactic reaction, the medication of choice for initial emergency treatment is:

Albuterol inhaler
Epinephrine (auto-injector) (Correct answer)
Methylprednisolone
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Correct answer: Epinephrine (auto-injector)

Epinephrine (1:1000 IM) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid bronchodilation and vasopressor effects.

Question 115: Oxygen saturation (SpO2) measured by pulse oximetry is considered normal at what percentage?

85–89%
95–100% (Correct answer)
90–93%
78–84%

Correct answer: 95–100%

A normal SpO2 reading is 95–100%; values below 90% indicate hypoxemia requiring intervention.

Question 116: Which hormone is produced by the adrenal medulla during a stress response?

Epinephrine (Correct answer)
Cortisol
Insulin
Thyroxine

Correct answer: Epinephrine

Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released by the adrenal medulla as part of the fight-or-flight response.

Question 117: Nebulizer treatments deliver medication via:

Absorption through the nasal mucosa
Aerosolized mist inhaled into the respiratory tract (Correct answer)
Injection into the lungs
Oral tablets that dissolve quickly

Correct answer: Aerosolized mist inhaled into the respiratory tract

Nebulizers convert liquid medication into a fine aerosol mist that is inhaled deep into the lungs through a mouthpiece or mask.

Question 118: During a routine physical assessment, the medical technician notices that a patient's skin is cyanotic. This finding suggests:

Fever
Inadequate oxygenation (Correct answer)
Dehydration
Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: Inadequate oxygenation

Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by reduced oxygen levels in the blood.

Question 119: Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?

Kidney (Correct answer)
Spleen
Liver
Pancreas

Correct answer: Kidney

The kidneys filter blood, remove waste products, and produce urine as part of the renal system.

Question 120: What does the term 'NPO' mean in relation to diagnostic testing preparation?

No physical obstruction
Non-pathological observation
Nothing by mouth (Correct answer)
Normal pre-operative

Correct answer: Nothing by mouth

NPO (nil per os) means nothing by mouth and is required before many diagnostic procedures and surgeries.

Question 121: When collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen from a female patient, what is the correct order of steps?

Cleanse back to front, begin voiding, collect midstream
Void into cup, cleanse labia, continue voiding
Cleanse labia front to back, begin voiding, collect midstream (Correct answer)
Collect urine, then cleanse, then void remainder

Correct answer: Cleanse labia front to back, begin voiding, collect midstream

The labia must be cleansed front to back first, then the patient voids, and the midstream urine is collected into the sterile cup.

Question 122: What does 'endoscopy' refer to in medical terms?

A type of medical injection
A diagnostic imaging technique
A type of surgery
A procedure to visually examine internal organs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A procedure to visually examine internal organs

The term 'endoscopy' combines the prefix 'endo-,' meaning within, and '-scopy,' meaning to view or examine. It is a medical procedure that involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera (an endoscope) into the body through a natural opening or small incision to visually examine internal organs and structures. This allows for diagnosis, biopsy, and sometimes treatment without major surgery.

Question 123: When collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, which collection method is required to prevent contamination?

First-void specimen collected in any clean cup
Catheter bag drainage specimen
Midstream clean-catch technique (Correct answer)
Last-void specimen of the day

Correct answer: Midstream clean-catch technique

The midstream clean-catch technique flushes urethral contaminants with the initial urine stream before collecting the specimen, providing an accurate sample for culture. Catheter bag specimens and first-void samples are prone to colonization and contamination.

Question 124: What should a medical technician do if they accidentally stick themselves with a used needle?

Continue with the procedure, as it’s a common mistake.
Dispose of the needle and keep working.
Use the needle for another task.
Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention.

Accidentally sticking oneself with a used needle is a serious occupational hazard that carries a significant risk of transmitting bloodborne pathogens. The immediate and correct action is to report the incident to a supervisor and seek medical attention without delay. This allows for proper documentation, risk assessment, and timely initiation of post-exposure prophylaxis if necessary, protecting the healthcare worker's health.

Question 125: Which thermometer site provides the most accurate core body temperature?

Oral
Rectal (Correct answer)
Tympanic
Axillary

Correct answer: Rectal

Rectal temperature is the most accurate indicator of core body temperature.

Question 126: Which of the following is a critical step in preparing a 24-hour urine specimen container for a patient?

Instructing the patient to collect the very first morning void.
Labeling the container with only the patient's name.
Ensuring the container is filled to the very top.
Adding the required preservative to the container before collection begins. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Adding the required preservative to the container before collection begins.

For many 24-hour urine tests, a specific preservative is required to maintain the integrity of the analyte being measured. This preservative must be added to the collection container before the patient begins collecting the urine to ensure it mixes with the specimen from the start.

Question 127: Which type of precaution requires a negative-pressure isolation room?

Airborne precautions (Correct answer)
Standard precautions
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) to prevent transmission of airborne pathogens.

Question 128: Which blood cells are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen?

Platelets
Red blood cells (Correct answer)
Plasma cells
White blood cells

Correct answer: Red blood cells

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen for transport throughout the body.

Question 129: The medical term 'edema' refers to:

Hardening of tissue
Muscle wasting
Abnormal swelling caused by fluid accumulation (Correct answer)
Skin discoloration

Correct answer: Abnormal swelling caused by fluid accumulation

Edema is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in body tissues, causing visible swelling.

Question 130: A patient's blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg and they have a severe headache. The medical technician should:

Administer an antihypertensive from the unit's medication cart
Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider (Correct answer)
Document the finding and proceed with the scheduled procedure
Recheck the blood pressure in 30 minutes

Correct answer: Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider

A blood pressure of 180/110 with symptoms of severe headache is a hypertensive urgency requiring immediate reporting to the clinical team.

Question 131: A wound culture specimen should be collected from which area of the wound for the most accurate results?

Multiple swabs of all necrotic tissue
The wound edge or surrounding skin
The exudate on the wound surface before cleansing
The deepest cleanest tissue at the wound base after cleansing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The deepest cleanest tissue at the wound base after cleansing

Collecting from the deepest viable tissue after surface cleansing avoids surface contaminants and identifies the true causative organisms rather than colonizing bacteria.

Question 132: Which medical abbreviation indicates a medication should be taken twice daily?

TID
QID
BID (Correct answer)
QD

Correct answer: BID

BID stands for 'bis in die,' meaning twice daily; QD=once, TID=three times, QID=four times daily.

Question 133: The medical term for a rapid heart rate above 100 beats per minute is:

Bradycardia
Tachycardia (Correct answer)
Arrhythmia
Fibrillation

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia refers to a heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute in adults at rest.

Question 134: Which burn classification involves destruction of all skin layers including subcutaneous tissue?

Second-degree burn
Third-degree burn (Correct answer)
Superficial partial-thickness burn
First-degree burn

Correct answer: Third-degree burn

Third-degree (full-thickness) burns destroy the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, often appearing white, brown, or charred.

Question 135: Which of the following is the most common site for drawing blood from an adult patient?

The median cubital vein (Correct answer)
The femoral artery
The radial artery
The jugular vein

Correct answer: The median cubital vein

The median cubital vein, located in the antecubital fossa (inner elbow), is the most common site for drawing blood due to several factors. It is typically large, superficial, and well-anchored, making it easily accessible and less prone to rolling during venipuncture. This location also generally causes less discomfort for the patient compared to other potential sites.

Question 136: The Morse Fall Scale is used to assess a patient's:

Nutritional status
Cognitive function
Pain level
Risk of falling (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Risk of falling

The Morse Fall Scale is a validated tool that identifies patients at high risk for falls based on six criteria.

Question 137: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?

120–140 beats per minute
40–60 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute (Correct answer)
100–120 beats per minute

Correct answer: 60–100 beats per minute

A normal adult resting heart rate is 60–100 beats per minute.

Question 138: After centrifugation of a serum separator tube (SST), the specimen layers from bottom to top are:

Plasma → buffy coat → red blood cells
Serum → gel → red blood cells
Red blood cells → gel barrier → serum (Correct answer)
Serum → buffy coat → clot

Correct answer: Red blood cells → gel barrier → serum

Centrifugal force moves denser red blood cells to the bottom; the gel barrier migrates between cells and serum, leaving the lighter serum on top for testing.

Question 139: During CPR, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single adult rescuer is:

20:2
5:1
30:2 (Correct answer)
15:2

Correct answer: 30:2

Current AHA guidelines recommend a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR.

Question 140: How should you handle a patient's personal belongings during hospitalization?

Allow family members to take care of them.
Store the belongings in a secure location and inform the patient of the storage method. (Correct answer)
Allow patients to keep them with them at all times.
Dispose of any unneeded belongings.

Correct answer: Store the belongings in a secure location and inform the patient of the storage method.

Patients' personal belongings are valuable and important to them, and their loss can cause significant distress. Securely storing these items, documenting them, and informing the patient (or their family) of the storage method demonstrates respect for their property and prevents theft or misplacement. This also helps maintain a clear and safe patient environment.

Question 141: Which temperature range is required for the transport of most routine blood specimens to preserve analyte stability?

–20°C to –80°C (frozen)
37°C (body temperature)
Room temperature (20°C to 25°C) (Correct answer)
2°C to 8°C (refrigerated)

Correct answer: Room temperature (20°C to 25°C)

Most routine blood specimens are transported at room temperature (20–25°C) because refrigeration can cause cold agglutination or analyte precipitation that alters results.

Question 142: Protected health information (PHI) in electronic records must be safeguarded by:

Storing records on personal devices for convenience
Sharing passwords among team members for efficiency
Using automatic logoff, encryption, and unique user IDs (Correct answer)
Keeping screens visible so colleagues can assist

Correct answer: Using automatic logoff, encryption, and unique user IDs

HIPAA's Security Rule requires technical safeguards including automatic logoff, encryption, access controls, and unique user identification.

Question 143: A medical technician is preparing to draw blood for a complete blood count (CBC), a basic metabolic panel (BMP), and a prothrombin time (PT) test. What is the correct order of draw for these tests?

Light Blue, Lavender, Red/Gold
Red/Gold, Light Blue, Lavender
Lavender, Red/Gold, Light Blue
Light Blue, Red/Gold, Lavender (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Light Blue, Red/Gold, Lavender

The correct order of draw is critical to prevent cross-contamination of additives between tubes. For these tests, the light blue top tube (for PT, which requires a citrate additive) must be drawn first. Next is the red or gold top tube (for the BMP, a serum test). Finally, the lavender top tube (for the CBC, which requires an EDTA additive) is drawn.

Question 144: Which technique is used to confirm intravenous catheter placement in a vein before initiating an infusion?

Both A and B (Correct answer)
Observe for blood return upon aspiration
Check for skin blanching at the site
Flush with normal saline and watch for infiltration

Correct answer: Both A and B

Confirming IV placement involves both observing blood return on aspiration and flushing with saline to check for infiltration or resistance.

Question 145: A technician is instructed to obtain a sample for a Complete Metabolic Panel (CMP). Which of the following tests is included in a CMP?

Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) (Correct answer)
Hemoglobin A1c
White Blood Cell (WBC) count
Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Correct answer: Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

A Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) is a blood test that measures 14 different substances in the blood. It provides information about the body's metabolism, including the health of the kidneys and liver. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver function test that is a standard component of the CMP.

Question 146: When preparing a blood specimen for transport to a reference lab, which of the following is the most crucial piece of information to verify on the specimen label against the requisition form?

At least two unique patient identifiers. (Correct answer)
The name of the ordering physician.
The time of collection.
The type of insurance carrier.

Correct answer: At least two unique patient identifiers.

To prevent medical errors, it is a universal standard to use at least two unique patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth, or medical record number) to confirm a patient's identity. This must be verified on both the specimen label and the requisition form before transport.

Question 147: The trachea divides into two main branches called:

Alveoli
Pleura
Bronchioles
Bronchi (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bronchi

The trachea bifurcates at the carina into the right and left main bronchi, which enter each lung.

Question 148: Sharps containers should be replaced when they reach what fill level?

Half full
Completely full
Three-quarters full (Correct answer)
One-quarter full

Correct answer: Three-quarters full

Sharps containers should be replaced when they are three-quarters (75%) full to prevent overfilling and needlestick injuries.

Question 149: When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, the patient should:

Begin voiding, then collect the midstream portion (Correct answer)
Collect urine over a 24-hour period
Use a catheter for all specimens
Collect the first portion of urine

Correct answer: Begin voiding, then collect the midstream portion

A clean-catch midstream specimen requires the patient to begin voiding to flush urethral bacteria, then collect the middle portion.

Question 150: According to the CLSI order of draw, which tube should be collected FIRST when multiple tubes are needed?

SST (gold) tube
Blood culture bottles (Correct answer)
EDTA (lavender) tube
Sodium citrate (light blue) tube

Correct answer: Blood culture bottles

Blood culture bottles are drawn first to minimize the risk of contamination from skin flora and additives in other tubes.

Question 151: Which body system does the term 'renal' refer to?

Cardiovascular system
Urinary/kidney system (Correct answer)
Digestive system
Respiratory system

Correct answer: Urinary/kidney system

Renal pertains to the kidneys; renal failure means the kidneys are not functioning properly.

CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam

The Certified Medical Technician (CMT) exam validates competency in clinical procedures, patient care, pharmacology, medical terminology, infection control, and regulatory compliance for entry-level medical technicians.

150

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds