Comprehensive Knowledge Exam (CKE) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A normal pulse oximetry (SpO₂) reading for a healthy adult at sea level is:

85–90%
90–94%
80–95%
95–100% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 95–100%

A SpO₂ of 95–100% indicates adequate oxygen saturation; readings below 95% warrant further clinical evaluation.

Question 2: Which principle requires that documentation accurately reflect the actual care provided without exaggeration or omission?

Timeliness
Accuracy (Correct answer)
Legibility
Brevity

Correct answer: Accuracy

Accuracy in documentation means that records must truthfully reflect the care provided, without adding, omitting, or altering facts.

Question 3: What is first-pass metabolism?

The initial absorption of a drug through the skin
The reduction of drug concentration as it passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation (Correct answer)
The elimination of a drug through the kidneys
The first dose of a medication given to a patient

Correct answer: The reduction of drug concentration as it passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation

First-pass metabolism is the reduction in drug bioavailability that occurs when an orally administered drug is metabolized by the liver before entering systemic circulation.

Question 4: What is the primary route of transmission for tuberculosis (TB)?

Inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei (Correct answer)
Contact with infected wounds
Ingestion of contaminated food
Blood-to-blood contact

Correct answer: Inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei

Tuberculosis is transmitted through inhalation of tiny airborne droplet nuclei expelled when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or speaks.

Question 5: Which type of PPE is required for airborne precautions?

Gloves and gown
N95 respirator (Correct answer)
Face shield only
Surgical mask

Correct answer: N95 respirator

An N95 respirator is required for airborne precautions because it filters out small airborne particles that surgical masks cannot.

Question 6: What is the generic name of a drug?

The street name used by patients
The official non-proprietary name of a drug (Correct answer)
The brand name given by the manufacturer
The chemical formula of the compound

Correct answer: The official non-proprietary name of a drug

The generic name is the official, non-proprietary name of a drug that is not owned by any manufacturer and is universally recognized.

Question 7: Which term describes the front surface of the body?

Lateral
Posterior
Medial
Anterior (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anterior

Anterior refers to the front surface of the body, opposite to the posterior (back).

Question 8: Which document authorizes the release of a patient's medical records to a third party?

Advance directive
Release of Information authorization form (Correct answer)
Insurance pre-authorization form
HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices

Correct answer: Release of Information authorization form

A Release of Information authorization form is required by HIPAA before disclosing protected health information to a third party.

Question 9: What is the purpose of malpractice insurance for healthcare providers?

To fund patient compensation programs
To pay for continuing education
To protect providers financially against negligence claims (Correct answer)
To cover the cost of hospital supplies

Correct answer: To protect providers financially against negligence claims

Malpractice insurance protects healthcare providers from financial liability in cases where they are sued for negligence or errors.

Question 10: What is the correct way to correct an error in a paper medical record?

Use correction fluid to cover the error
Draw a single line through the error, note the correction, and initial it (Correct answer)
Delete the entry entirely and rewrite it
Erase the error and write the correct information

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, note the correction, and initial it

Errors in paper records must be corrected by drawing a single line through the mistake, writing the correction, dating it, and initialing it to maintain the integrity of the record.

Question 11: What does ICD-10 coding classify?

Laboratory reference ranges
Medications and drug interactions
Diagnoses and health conditions for billing and records (Correct answer)
Healthcare provider credentials

Correct answer: Diagnoses and health conditions for billing and records

ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th edition) is used to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and health conditions for billing and epidemiological purposes.

Question 12: Which section of the medical record contains the physician's working explanation of a patient's condition?

Nursing assessment
Consent forms
Discharge summary
Diagnosis and problem list (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diagnosis and problem list

The diagnosis and problem list contains the physician's working diagnosis or list of identified patient health problems.

Question 13: Which ethical principle requires healthcare providers to act in the best interest of the patient?

Non-maleficence
Beneficence (Correct answer)
Justice
Autonomy

Correct answer: Beneficence

Beneficence is the ethical principle that obligates healthcare providers to act in the best interest of patients.

Question 14: What is the single most effective method for preventing the spread of infection in healthcare settings?

Hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Isolating all patients
Using N95 respirators
Wearing gloves at all times

Correct answer: Hand hygiene

Hand hygiene—proper handwashing or use of alcohol-based hand sanitizer—is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections.

Question 15: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute in a resting adult is classified as:

Apnea
Tachypnea (Correct answer)
Bradypnea
Eupnea

Correct answer: Tachypnea

Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute at rest; it may indicate respiratory distress, fever, anxiety, or metabolic acidosis.

Question 16: What does the WHO '5 Moments for Hand Hygiene' initiative address?

Five types of hand hygiene products
Five daily shift change reminders
Five specific moments when hand hygiene is critical in patient care (Correct answer)
Five steps in proper handwashing technique

Correct answer: Five specific moments when hand hygiene is critical in patient care

The WHO's 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene identifies five critical times hand hygiene must be performed during patient care to prevent infection.

Question 17: What does 'bilateral' mean in medical terminology?

On both sides (Correct answer)
Behind the organ
On one side
Front-facing

Correct answer: On both sides

Bilateral means pertaining to or affecting both sides, such as bilateral pneumonia.

Question 18: EMTALA requires emergency departments to do which of the following?

Notify insurance before treating patients
Provide emergency screening and stabilization regardless of ability to pay (Correct answer)
Discharge patients within 24 hours
Charge all patients the same rate

Correct answer: Provide emergency screening and stabilization regardless of ability to pay

EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act) requires hospitals to screen and stabilize any patient presenting to an ED regardless of payment ability.

Question 19: What does the prefix 'hyper-' mean?

Above normal (Correct answer)
Below normal
Without
Within normal

Correct answer: Above normal

The prefix 'hyper-' means above or excessive, as seen in hypertension (high blood pressure).

Question 20: Which abbreviation refers to a patient's chief complaint?

HPI
ROS
CC (Correct answer)
PMH

Correct answer: CC

CC stands for Chief Complaint, which is the primary reason a patient seeks medical care.

Question 21: What does sterilization mean in infection control?

Killing all microorganisms including spores (Correct answer)
Removing visible dirt from a surface
Washing with soap and water
Reducing microbial count to a safe level

Correct answer: Killing all microorganisms including spores

Sterilization destroys all forms of microbial life, including spores, and is required for instruments that enter sterile body tissues.

Question 22: Which element is considered part of the subjective section of a SOAP note?

Lab results
Physical exam findings
Vital signs
Chief complaint in the patient's own words (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chief complaint in the patient's own words

The subjective section of a SOAP note includes information provided by the patient, such as their chief complaint and symptoms.

Question 23: What does the abbreviation 'SOB' mean in medical records?

State of Being
Signs of Bleeding
Shortness of Breath (Correct answer)
Source of Blood

Correct answer: Shortness of Breath

SOB stands for Shortness of Breath and is a commonly documented symptom in patient charts.

Question 24: What does 'PRN' mean in medication orders?

Prescribed Regularly Nightly
Patient Requires Nourishment
As needed (Correct answer)
Per Routine Notification

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (from Latin 'Pro Re Nata') means 'as needed,' indicating a medication should be given only when a specific condition arises.

Question 25: The suffix '-ectomy' refers to which type of procedure?

Surgical removal (Correct answer)
Visual examination
Incision into
Inflammation of

Correct answer: Surgical removal

The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal, such as appendectomy (removal of the appendix).

Question 26: What is phonetic alphabet word for U?

Umbrella
Universe
Unicorn
Uniform (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Uniform

In the NATO phonetic alphabet, which is used for clear communication, the word assigned to the letter 'U' is "Uniform." This system helps avoid confusion when spelling out words, especially over radio or in noisy environments, by associating each letter with a distinct word.

Question 27: What does the legal concept 'if it wasn't documented, it wasn't done' mean in healthcare?

Care not recorded in the medical record is considered legally as if it did not occur (Correct answer)
Providers can skip documentation for minor procedures
Undocumented care is billed at a lower rate
Documentation is only required for surgical procedures

Correct answer: Care not recorded in the medical record is considered legally as if it did not occur

In healthcare and law, undocumented care may be considered non-existent, making thorough documentation essential for legal protection and continuity.

Question 28: What does the prefix 'tachy-' mean?

Absent
Normal
Slow
Fast (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fast

The prefix 'tachy-' means fast or rapid, as in tachycardia (rapid heart rate).

Question 29: What does the 'Five Rights' of medication administration include?

Right patient, right diagnosis, right allergy, right nurse, right room
Right order, right dose, right nurse, right lab, right chart
Right drug, right color, right size, right time, right storage
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time

The Five Rights of medication administration are: right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time.

Question 30: What is the purpose of an antidote?

To increase drug half-life
To enhance the effects of a drug
To prevent drug absorption
To counteract the toxic effects of a poison or drug overdose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To counteract the toxic effects of a poison or drug overdose

An antidote is a substance that counteracts the toxic or harmful effects of a poison or drug overdose.

Question 31: What is the normal respiratory rate range for a resting adult?

20–28 breaths per minute
10–14 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
8–12 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute; rates outside this range suggest bradypnea or tachypnea.

Question 32: According to current guidelines, a blood pressure reading is classified as normal when systolic is:

Less than 140 mmHg and diastolic less than 90 mmHg
Less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than 80 mmHg (Correct answer)
130–139 mmHg and diastolic 80–89 mmHg
120–129 mmHg with diastolic less than 80 mmHg

Correct answer: Less than 120 mmHg and diastolic less than 80 mmHg

The American Heart Association classifies normal blood pressure as systolic below 120 mmHg and diastolic below 80 mmHg.

Question 33: What are the advantages of planning?

1) Decreased employee morale. 2) Fragmented efforts. 3) Ineffective leadership. 4) Reduced accountability. 5) Increased uncertainty.
1) Increased employee turnover. 2) Higher operational costs. 3) Confusion in roles and responsibilities. 4) Delayed decision-making. 5) Reduced communication.
1) It helps in achieving objectives. 2) Better utilization of resources. 3) Economy in operation. 4) Effective control. 5) Coordination. (Correct answer)
1) Less focus on goals. 2) Inefficient use of time. 3) Increased risk of failure. 4) Poor resource allocation. 5) Lack of direction.

Correct answer: 1) It helps in achieving objectives. 2) Better utilization of resources. 3) Economy in operation. 4) Effective control. 5) Coordination.

Planning is a fundamental management function that offers several advantages. It helps in achieving objectives by setting a clear roadmap, ensures better utilization of resources by allocating them strategically, promotes economy in operation by minimizing waste, enables effective control through established benchmarks, and fosters coordination among different parts of the organization.

Question 34: How do you handle a situation where you are asked to work on a project outside your area of expertise?

Accept the project without asking for help, to prove your capabilities.
Communicate your concerns to your supervisor, seek guidance, and collaborate with others who have the relevant expertise. (Correct answer)
Refuse the project outright, as it's not your area of expertise.
Ignore the request and continue with your current tasks.

Correct answer: Communicate your concerns to your supervisor, seek guidance, and collaborate with others who have the relevant expertise.

When faced with a project outside one's expertise, the most professional and effective approach is to communicate concerns to a supervisor. Seeking guidance and collaborating with others who possess the relevant expertise ensures the project is handled competently and provides an opportunity for learning. This demonstrates responsibility, teamwork, and a proactive attitude towards challenges.

Question 35: What is the purpose of a HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices?

To obtain surgical consent
To authorize billing
To inform patients how their health information may be used (Correct answer)
To document allergies

Correct answer: To inform patients how their health information may be used

A HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices explains to patients how their protected health information (PHI) may be used and shared.

Question 36: To what does the term “hypochondriac” refer?

A person who often complains of an ailment.
Having insuffi cient cartilage in the knees.
The region of abdomen inferior to the ribs. (Correct answer)
A condition of having too few chondria.

Correct answer: The region of abdomen inferior to the ribs.

In anatomical terminology, the term 'hypochondriac' refers to one of the nine regions used to divide the abdomen. Specifically, the left and right hypochondriac regions are located on either side of the epigastric region, situated inferior to the ribs and costal cartilages. This term literally means 'under the cartilage,' accurately describing its position beneath the lower ribs.

Question 37: What is the legal term for unauthorized touching of a patient without consent?

Fraud
Negligence
Slander
Battery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Battery

Battery in a healthcare context is the intentional unauthorized touching of a patient, even if no harm results.

Question 38: What does the root word 'renal' relate to?

Liver
Brain
Lungs
Kidneys (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Kidneys

The root word 'renal' pertains to the kidneys, used in terms like renal failure.

Question 39: Which of the stated relationships is correct?

The shoulder is distal to the carpals
The eye is medial to the eyebrows
The phalanges are proximal to the metacarpals
The heart is inferior to the clavicle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The heart is inferior to the clavicle

Anatomical terms describe relative positions in the body. The heart is located in the thoracic cavity, which is below the clavicle (collarbone), making it inferior to the clavicle. Other options are incorrect: the shoulder is proximal to the carpals, phalanges are distal to metacarpals, and the eye is lateral to the bridge of the nose, not medial to the eyebrows.

Question 40: Which of the following is an example of patient abandonment?

Ending a shift and passing care to a colleague
Referring a patient to a specialist
Transferring a patient to another facility with proper notice
Discharging a patient without adequate follow-up planning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Discharging a patient without adequate follow-up planning

Patient abandonment occurs when a provider unilaterally ends the care relationship without ensuring adequate follow-up.

Question 41: Pain is frequently called the 'fifth vital sign.' Which scale is most widely used for adults to self-report pain intensity?

COMFORT behavioral scale
FACES pain scale
Numeric Rating Scale (0–10) (Correct answer)
FLACC behavioral scale

Correct answer: Numeric Rating Scale (0–10)

The Numeric Rating Scale (0–10) is the most commonly used self-report tool for adults because it is simple, quick, and easily communicated.

Question 42: What is a drug's half-life?

The time it takes for a drug to start working
How long the drug stays on pharmacy shelves
The time required for the drug concentration in the blood to decrease by half (Correct answer)
The duration of the drug's side effects

Correct answer: The time required for the drug concentration in the blood to decrease by half

A drug's half-life is the time it takes for its plasma concentration to reduce by 50%, which determines dosing frequency.

Question 43: Which of the following is the best definition of physiology?

The microscopic study of tissues and cells
The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment.
All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the body’s cells.
The study of how the body works. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The study of how the body works.

Physiology is the scientific study of how living organisms and their parts function. It investigates the mechanical, physical, and biochemical processes that occur within the body to maintain life. This definition encompasses the dynamic workings of organs, systems, and cells, distinguishing it from anatomy (the study of structure) or specific chemical reactions.

Question 44: What does 'NPO' mean in clinical settings?

Normal Pain Onset
Nothing by Mouth (Correct answer)
Neurological Pain Observation
New Patient Order

Correct answer: Nothing by Mouth

NPO comes from the Latin 'Nil Per Os,' meaning nothing by mouth, typically ordered before surgery.

Question 45: Hypotension in adults is generally defined as a systolic blood pressure below:

90 mmHg (Correct answer)
120 mmHg
140 mmHg
100 mmHg

Correct answer: 90 mmHg

Hypotension is typically defined as systolic BP below 90 mmHg, though clinical context and the patient's baseline must also be considered.

Question 46: What is an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?

An unintended harmful response to a drug given at normal doses (Correct answer)
A patient's refusal to take medication
An expected response to the correct dose of a medication
A missed dose of medication

Correct answer: An unintended harmful response to a drug given at normal doses

An adverse drug reaction is an unintended, harmful response that occurs at normal therapeutic doses of a medication.

Question 47: A patient's right to make decisions about their own healthcare is called what?

Justice
Fidelity
Veracity
Autonomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Autonomy

Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects a patient's right to make informed decisions about their own care.

Question 48: What does the ethical principle of veracity require of healthcare providers?

Telling patients the truth (Correct answer)
Acting in patients' best interests
Keeping patient secrets
Treating patients equally

Correct answer: Telling patients the truth

Veracity is the ethical principle that requires healthcare providers to be truthful and honest with patients.

Question 49: Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?

Liver (Correct answer)
Stomach
Lungs
Kidneys

Correct answer: Liver

The liver is the primary site of drug metabolism, where enzymes chemically alter drugs to prepare them for excretion.

Question 50: What does the term 'late entry' mean in medical documentation?

Entries made after a patient is discharged
An entry added after a scheduled documentation deadline
Documentation entered after the event occurred but still necessary for accurate records (Correct answer)
Any note written after midnight

Correct answer: Documentation entered after the event occurred but still necessary for accurate records

A late entry is documentation added after the event it describes, which must be clearly labeled as a late entry with the date and time it was added.

Question 51: What is drug tolerance?

An allergic reaction to a medication
The maximum dose a patient can safely receive
A patient's refusal to take medication
A reduction in response to a drug after repeated use, requiring higher doses for the same effect (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A reduction in response to a drug after repeated use, requiring higher doses for the same effect

Drug tolerance is a decreased response to a drug after repeated exposure, so progressively larger doses are needed to achieve the same effect.

Question 52: Which isolation category is used for patients with MRSA skin infections?

Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions
Contact precautions (Correct answer)
Standard precautions only

Correct answer: Contact precautions

Contact precautions are used for MRSA because it spreads through direct or indirect contact with the patient or contaminated surfaces.

Question 53: Which organization publishes the National Patient Safety Goals in the US?

FDA
OSHA
The Joint Commission (Correct answer)
CDC

Correct answer: The Joint Commission

The Joint Commission publishes annual National Patient Safety Goals to help accredited organizations address specific areas of concern.

Question 54: What does SOAP stand for in clinical documentation?

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (Correct answer)
Signs, Orders, Analysis, Progress
Symptoms, Observations, Actions, Plan
Summary, Observations, Advice, Procedure

Correct answer: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan—a structured method for documenting patient encounters.

Question 55: The suffix '-scopy' refers to which procedure?

Measurement of
Surgical removal
Recording of
Visual examination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Visual examination

The suffix '-scopy' means visual examination using an instrument, as in colonoscopy.

Question 56: What is informed consent?

A patient's agreement to treatment after receiving complete information (Correct answer)
A physician's order to begin treatment
A legal document releasing the hospital from liability
Consent given by a family member on the patient's behalf

Correct answer: A patient's agreement to treatment after receiving complete information

Informed consent is a patient's voluntary agreement to treatment after being fully informed of risks, benefits, and alternatives.

Question 57: What is the standard minimum retention period for adult patient medical records under most US state laws?

25 years
5 years
10 years (Correct answer)
1 year

Correct answer: 10 years

Most US states require adult patient medical records to be retained for a minimum of 10 years, though requirements vary by state.

Question 58: The prefix 'osteo-' refers to which body structure?

Skin
Bone (Correct answer)
Nerve
Muscle

Correct answer: Bone

The prefix 'osteo-' refers to bone, as seen in osteoporosis and osteomyelitis.

Question 59: Which of the following must be kept confidential under HIPAA?

General wellness information
Public health statistics without identifiers
Patient's treatment plan and medical history (Correct answer)
Anonymized research data

Correct answer: Patient's treatment plan and medical history

HIPAA protects all individually identifiable health information, including treatment plans and medical histories, known as PHI.

Question 60: An adult patient has a temperature of 104°F (40°C). What is the most appropriate priority action?

Notify the nurse or physician and initiate cooling measures as ordered (Correct answer)
Recheck the temperature in 4 hours per protocol
Apply a warm blanket to prevent shivering
Offer hot fluids to promote perspiration

Correct answer: Notify the nurse or physician and initiate cooling measures as ordered

A temperature of 104°F indicates high-grade fever requiring prompt notification and active cooling measures to prevent febrile seizures or organ damage.

Question 61: The root word 'gastr-' refers to which organ?

Stomach (Correct answer)
Kidney
Intestine
Gallbladder

Correct answer: Stomach

The root word 'gastr-' refers to the stomach, as used in gastritis and gastroenterology.

Question 62: What does the term 'bioavailability' refer to?

The total number of doses in a prescription
How quickly a drug is manufactured
The fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form (Correct answer)
How long a drug stays on pharmacy shelves

Correct answer: The fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation in active form

Bioavailability is the proportion of a drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged, active form.

Question 63: What is the function of CPT codes in healthcare documentation?

Track medication dosages
Classify patient diagnoses
Describe and bill for medical procedures and services (Correct answer)
Record patient allergies

Correct answer: Describe and bill for medical procedures and services

CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes describe and report medical procedures and services for billing and statistical purposes.

Question 64: What is the difference between an EHR and a PHR?

EHR is used only in hospitals; PHR is used in clinics
EHR is maintained by providers; PHR is maintained by patients (Correct answer)
PHR is the legal medical record; EHR is for billing
PHR is more detailed than an EHR

Correct answer: EHR is maintained by providers; PHR is maintained by patients

An EHR is maintained by healthcare providers, while a PHR (Personal Health Record) is maintained and controlled by the patient.

Question 65: What does the prefix 'brady-' mean in medical terminology?

Fast
Slow (Correct answer)
Small
Large

Correct answer: Slow

The prefix 'brady-' means slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate).

Question 66: What does 'do no harm' represent in medical ethics?

Autonomy
Non-maleficence (Correct answer)
Beneficence
Justice

Correct answer: Non-maleficence

Non-maleficence is the principle meaning 'do no harm,' obligating providers to avoid causing unnecessary harm.

Question 67: What does the diastolic number in a blood pressure reading represent?

The pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts
The pressure in the venous system returning to the heart
The average of the peak and resting pressures
The pressure in the arteries between heartbeats when the heart is at rest (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The pressure in the arteries between heartbeats when the heart is at rest

Diastolic pressure is the pressure remaining in the arteries when the heart muscle relaxes between beats.

Question 68: What is an addendum in clinical documentation?

Additional information added to a previously completed note (Correct answer)
A correction that erases a prior entry
A mandatory physician signature
A patient complaint form

Correct answer: Additional information added to a previously completed note

An addendum is additional information appended to a previously completed documentation entry to supplement or clarify it without altering the original.

Question 69: Which type of medical record format uses separate sections for each discipline?

Source-oriented record (Correct answer)
Integrated record
SOAP format
Problem-oriented record

Correct answer: Source-oriented record

A source-oriented record organizes documentation by discipline, with separate sections for nursing, physician, and therapy notes.

Question 70: The suffix '-itis' indicates which condition?

Inflammation (Correct answer)
Pain
Rupture
Tumor

Correct answer: Inflammation

The suffix '-itis' means inflammation, as in appendicitis (inflammation of the appendix).

Question 71: Which of the following is a 'never event' in US healthcare?

Patient fall without injury
Delayed lab result
Medication delayed by one hour
Wrong-site surgery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wrong-site surgery

Wrong-site surgery is a 'never event'—a serious, preventable adverse event that should never occur in a properly managed healthcare facility.

Question 72: Which ethical principle means treating all patients fairly and equitably?

Fidelity
Justice (Correct answer)
Autonomy
Beneficence

Correct answer: Justice

Justice is the ethical principle that requires fair and equitable distribution of healthcare resources and treatment.

Question 73: Standard precautions apply to which of the following?

All patients regardless of infection status (Correct answer)
Only blood and body fluids
Only patients with known infections
Only surgical patients

Correct answer: All patients regardless of infection status

Standard precautions apply to all patients, regardless of diagnosis, treating all blood, body fluids, and secretions as potentially infectious.

Question 74: What is a discharge summary?

A document summarizing the course of a patient's hospital stay at discharge (Correct answer)
An insurance denial explanation
A note written at admission outlining the care plan
A financial summary sent to the patient

Correct answer: A document summarizing the course of a patient's hospital stay at discharge

A discharge summary is a clinical document that summarizes the patient's hospital course, diagnoses, treatments, and follow-up instructions at the time of discharge.

Question 75: What is management?

The practice of enforcing strict rules and regulations within an organization.
The art and science of getting the objectives of the organization accomplished through and with people. (Correct answer)
The process of creating financial reports for a company.
The ability to make quick decisions without consulting others.

Correct answer: The art and science of getting the objectives of the organization accomplished through and with people.

Management is defined as the art and science of coordinating and overseeing the activities of others to achieve organizational objectives. It involves planning, organizing, leading, and controlling resources, particularly human resources, to effectively meet the goals of an organization.

Question 76: What does the abbreviation 'PRN' mean?

Per Routine Need
As Needed (Correct answer)
Patient Requires Notification
Prescribed Repeatedly Nightly

Correct answer: As Needed

PRN comes from Latin 'Pro Re Nata,' meaning as needed, used for medications given only when required.

Question 77: What 3 ingredients make a sidecar cocktail

Vodka, Triple Sec, Lime Juice
Brandy, Cointreau, Lemon Juice (Correct answer)
Rum, Orange Juice, Grenadine
Gin, Vermouth, Olive Juice

Correct answer: Brandy, Cointreau, Lemon Juice

The Sidecar is a classic cocktail that traditionally consists of three main ingredients: Brandy (often Cognac), Cointreau (an orange liqueur), and fresh Lemon Juice. These components are shaken with ice and typically served in a chilled cocktail glass, offering a balanced sweet and sour profile.

Question 78: Which temperature-taking route provides the most accurate measurement of core body temperature?

Oral
Rectal (Correct answer)
Tympanic
Axillary

Correct answer: Rectal

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature because the rectal vault is well-insulated and closely approximates internal temperature.

Question 79: What is the primary purpose of a medical record?

To provide a chronological record of patient care for continuity and communication (Correct answer)
To store insurance information
To satisfy regulatory requirements only
To calculate billing charges

Correct answer: To provide a chronological record of patient care for continuity and communication

The primary purpose of a medical record is to document patient care comprehensively to ensure continuity, communication, and quality of care.

Question 80: A healthcare provider reporting suspected child abuse is an example of what?

Breach of confidentiality
Patient abandonment
Mandatory reporting requirement (Correct answer)
Violation of autonomy

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting requirement

Mandatory reporting laws require healthcare providers to report suspected abuse or neglect to protect vulnerable individuals.

Question 81: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% in a patient breathing room air indicates:

Significant hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention (Correct answer)
Equipment malfunction; readings below 90% are impossible on room air
Mild hypoxemia requiring routine monitoring
Normal oxygen saturation for an older adult

Correct answer: Significant hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention

An SpO₂ of 88% represents significant hypoxemia; supplemental oxygen and immediate clinical assessment are required to prevent respiratory failure.

Question 82: What is an EHR (Electronic Health Record)?

A billing database only
A patient-controlled health journal
A digital version of a patient's medical history maintained by providers (Correct answer)
A paper-based backup of patient charts

Correct answer: A digital version of a patient's medical history maintained by providers

An EHR is a real-time, digital version of a patient's medical history that is maintained by one or more healthcare providers.

Question 83: The prefix 'dys-' in medical terminology means which of the following?

Painful or difficult (Correct answer)
Double
Normal
Against

Correct answer: Painful or difficult

The prefix 'dys-' means painful, difficult, or abnormal, as in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing).

Question 84: What does the suffix '-plasty' indicate?

Abnormal growth
Study of
Disease of
Surgical repair (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical repair

The suffix '-plasty' refers to surgical repair or reconstruction, as in rhinoplasty.

Question 85: Which document designates someone to make medical decisions for a patient who lacks capacity?

POLST form
Do Not Resuscitate order
Living will
Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare

A Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare designates a healthcare proxy or agent to make medical decisions when the patient cannot.

Question 86: Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are……

fused into a single bone called the sacrum.
superior to the rib cage. (Correct answer)
inferior to the thoracic vertebrae.
located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae.

Correct answer: superior to the rib cage.

Cervical vertebrae are the seven vertebrae that form the neck region of the spine. This anatomical position places them above the thoracic vertebrae, which are connected to the rib cage. Therefore, cervical vertebrae are superior to the rib cage, not inferior or located between thoracic and sacral vertebrae.

Question 87: What is the purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA) in patient safety?

To identify underlying system causes of a sentinel event (Correct answer)
To evaluate nurse performance scores
To assign blame to the responsible staff member
To determine how much compensation a patient receives

Correct answer: To identify underlying system causes of a sentinel event

A root cause analysis investigates the underlying system and process failures that contributed to an adverse event, not individual blame.

Question 88: Which root word refers to the heart?

Cardi- (Correct answer)
Hepat-
Nephro-
Pulmon-

Correct answer: Cardi-

The root word 'cardi-' refers to the heart, used in terms like cardiology and cardiomyopathy.

Question 89: Which term describes an increased drug effect when two drugs are combined beyond what each would produce alone?

Tolerance
Synergism (Correct answer)
Idiosyncrasy
Antagonism

Correct answer: Synergism

Synergism (or synergy) occurs when two drugs combine to produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.

Question 90: What is a healthcare advance directive?

A document stating a patient's wishes for future care (Correct answer)
A hospital's emergency response plan
A doctor's treatment order
An insurance pre-authorization form

Correct answer: A document stating a patient's wishes for future care

An advance directive is a legal document outlining a patient's healthcare wishes in the event they become unable to communicate.

Question 91: Which hand hygiene product is most effective against Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)?

Alcohol-based hand sanitizer
Antibacterial foam
Iodine scrub
Soap and water (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Soap and water

Soap and water is required for C. diff because alcohol-based sanitizers do not effectively kill C. diff spores.

Question 92: What is polypharmacy?

A pharmacy that serves multiple hospitals
The concurrent use of multiple medications, increasing risk of interactions (Correct answer)
An electronic prescription system
The use of a single high-dose medication

Correct answer: The concurrent use of multiple medications, increasing risk of interactions

Polypharmacy refers to the concurrent use of five or more medications, which significantly increases the risk of drug interactions and adverse effects.

Question 93: A resting heart rate above 100 beats per minute in an adult is termed:

Tachycardia (Correct answer)
Dysrhythmia
Bradycardia
Palpitation

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate exceeding 100 bpm at rest and may indicate fever, dehydration, pain, cardiac conditions, or other underlying problems.

Question 94: A blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg is classified as a hypertensive crisis. What is the priority action?

Encourage the patient to rest quietly and increase fluid intake
Apply a cold compress to the patient's forehead
Repeat the measurement in 30 minutes and document
Notify the nurse or provider immediately for urgent evaluation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the nurse or provider immediately for urgent evaluation

A reading of 180/120 mmHg or higher is a hypertensive crisis requiring immediate clinical evaluation to prevent end-organ damage.

Question 95: How should a healthcare worker properly remove contaminated gloves?

Pull from the fingertips of both gloves simultaneously
Rip the gloves off quickly and dispose
Remove gloves by the wrist band and shake them off
Grasp the outside of one glove to remove it, then slide fingers under the other (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Grasp the outside of one glove to remove it, then slide fingers under the other

Proper glove removal involves grasping the outside of one glove to remove it, then using the bare hand to slide under the second glove to avoid contamination.

Question 96: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy adult?

100–120 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute (Correct answer)
40–60 beats per minute
50–80 beats per minute

Correct answer: 60–100 beats per minute

A normal adult resting heart rate falls between 60 and 100 beats per minute; values outside this range indicate bradycardia or tachycardia.

Question 97: Provide correct symbols to complete the equation: 600 200 400 300 200 = 200

600 + 200 / 400 − 300 + 200 = 200
600 × 200 / 400 − 300 + 200 = 200 (Correct answer)
600 / 200 / 400 − 300 + 200 = 200
600 - 200 / 400 − 300 / 200 = 200

Correct answer: 600 × 200 / 400 − 300 + 200 = 200

To solve the equation 600 __ 200 __ 400 __ 300 __ 200 = 200, we must find the correct mathematical operators. Option B, 600 × 200 / 400 − 300 + 200, evaluates as follows: 600 × 200 = 120,000; 120,000 / 400 = 300; 300 − 300 = 0; and finally, 0 + 200 = 200. This sequence of operations correctly yields the target value of 200.

Question 98: What is the meaning of 'respondeat superior' in healthcare law?

An employer is liable for employee actions performed within the scope of employment (Correct answer)
The right to a second medical opinion
A court order to produce medical records
A patient's right to refuse care

Correct answer: An employer is liable for employee actions performed within the scope of employment

Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine holding employers responsible for their employees' actions done within the scope of their job.

Question 99: Which federal law protects the privacy of patient health information?

OSHA
ADA
EMTALA
HIPAA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HIPAA

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) establishes national standards for protecting patient health information.

Question 100: Negligence in healthcare requires which element to be proven?

Intentional harm
Criminal intent by the provider
Administrative policy violation
Breach of the standard of care that causes patient harm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Breach of the standard of care that causes patient harm

Negligence requires proving duty, breach of that duty, causation, and damages resulting from the breach.

Comprehensive Knowledge Exam (CKE)

The CKE assesses healthcare workers' foundational clinical knowledge across key domains including patient safety, medical terminology, clinical documentation, healthcare ethics, and basic clinical assessment skills.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

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Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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hrpa.ca — Eligibility, registration deadline, registration, score release, test dates, test delivery, exam format, passing score, retake policy, time limit · verified Oct 2026