CITB Health, Safety and Environment (HS&E) Test for Specialists — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the greatest risk when a plumber uses a blowtorch in a wall cavity?

Setting fire to hidden timber or insulation causing a concealed fire (Correct answer)
Damaging electrical cables by heat
Melting plastic pipes in the cavity
Disturbing asbestos in the cavity walls

Correct answer: Setting fire to hidden timber or insulation causing a concealed fire

Blowtorch flames in wall cavities can ignite hidden timber studwork, insulation, or other combustibles, creating concealed fires that spread unseen before being detected. Fire watch procedures and fire-resistant materials should be used.

Question 2: What is the main hazard when a plumber works on a system containing pressurised hot water?

Electrical shock from immersion heaters
Chemical burns from water treatment additives
Cold burns from refrigerant contact
Scalding from sudden release of steam and superheated water (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scalding from sudden release of steam and superheated water

Pressurised hot water systems can release superheated water and steam when opened, causing severe scalding injuries. Systems must be depressurised and allowed to cool before any work begins.

Question 3: What is the hierarchy of control measures in a COSHH assessment?

PPE first as it is the most reliable control
Eliminate, substitute, enclose, extract (LEV), general ventilation, then RPE as a last resort (Correct answer)
Signage then PPE
COSHH only requires RPE and safe storage

Correct answer: Eliminate, substitute, enclose, extract (LEV), general ventilation, then RPE as a last resort

COSHH follows the same hierarchy as general risk control: eliminate the substance, substitute with something less hazardous, enclose the process, use local exhaust ventilation (LEV) to capture contaminants at source, improve general ventilation, then RPE as a last resort.

Question 4: What welfare consideration must a specialist contractor make when working in an occupied care home?

Weekend working is prohibited in care homes
Standard site welfare provisions are sufficient
Minimise disruption to residents, manage dust and noise, maintain clear fire escape routes, and conduct a specific vulnerable persons risk assessment (Correct answer)
Only the care home manager needs to be informed

Correct answer: Minimise disruption to residents, manage dust and noise, maintain clear fire escape routes, and conduct a specific vulnerable persons risk assessment

Occupied care homes present heightened welfare considerations as residents are particularly vulnerable. Works must minimise noise and dust, fire escape routes must remain clear at all times, and a specific risk assessment must consider the needs of residents with mobility, cognitive, or respiratory conditions.

Question 5: What is the Construction Phase Plan under CDM 2015?

A list of all contractors on site
A document prepared by the Principal Contractor detailing how health and safety will be managed during construction (Correct answer)
The structural engineer's drawing package
A programme showing the sequence of construction activities

Correct answer: A document prepared by the Principal Contractor detailing how health and safety will be managed during construction

The Construction Phase Plan is a document prepared by the Principal Contractor before construction starts. It sets out how health and safety will be managed during the construction phase, including key risks and control measures.

Question 6: At what depth must an unsupported excavation in granular soil generally be considered as requiring engineered support under UK guidance?

Any depth over 3 metres
No specific depth; a risk assessment must determine the need for support in all cases (Correct answer)
Only excavations deeper than 5 metres
Any depth over 1.2 metres

Correct answer: No specific depth; a risk assessment must determine the need for support in all cases

There is no fixed depth at which support automatically becomes mandatory. The need for support depends on soil type, ground conditions, water table, surcharge loads, vibration, and weather. A competent person must assess each excavation individually. However, as a practical guide, most excavations over 1.2m in depth will need some form of support.

Question 7: What is the main hazard of using an oxy-acetylene torch in a confined or poorly ventilated space?

UV radiation causing sunburn
Excessive noise from the torch
High temperature causing heat exhaustion only
Oxygen depletion and build-up of toxic combustion products leading to asphyxiation and fire risk (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oxygen depletion and build-up of toxic combustion products leading to asphyxiation and fire risk

Oxy-acetylene equipment consumes oxygen and produces carbon monoxide and other combustion products. In confined or poorly ventilated spaces, this can cause oxygen depletion and toxic gas accumulation leading to asphyxiation and explosion risk.

Question 8: Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, what is the maximum penalty for a specialist contractor found guilty of breaching sections 2-6 on indictment?

An unlimited fine and/or up to 2 years' imprisonment (Correct answer)
A fine of up to £50,000
A fine of up to £20,000
A written warning from the HSE

Correct answer: An unlimited fine and/or up to 2 years' imprisonment

Following the Health and Safety (Offences) Act 2008 amendments, breaches of sections 2-6 of the HSWA 1974 on indictment carry an unlimited fine and/or up to 2 years' imprisonment. The Sentencing Council guidelines also allow for significantly higher fines for organisations based on turnover and culpability.

Question 9: When demolishing a building that may contain asbestos, what must a specialist contractor do before any physical demolition work starts?

Wear dust masks and carry on
Only check areas that are visibly damaged
Commission a Refurbishment and Demolition Asbestos Survey (Type 3) before work begins (Correct answer)
Proceed with demolition and deal with asbestos if found

Correct answer: Commission a Refurbishment and Demolition Asbestos Survey (Type 3) before work begins

The Control of Asbestos Regulations 2012 require a Refurbishment and Demolition Survey before demolition begins. This is a destructive inspection that identifies all asbestos-containing materials (ACMs) so they can be removed by a licensed contractor before demolition proceeds. Proceeding without this survey is a criminal offence.

Question 10: What fire extinguisher is appropriate for an electrical fire?

Water extinguisher
Foam extinguisher
Powder extinguisher unless no other is available
CO2 (carbon dioxide) extinguisher (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CO2 (carbon dioxide) extinguisher

CO2 extinguishers are the correct choice for electrical fires as they do not conduct electricity and leave no residue. Water extinguishers must never be used on live electrical equipment due to electrocution risk.

Question 11: What are the key components of a COSHH assessment?

Only state what PPE is needed
Identify substances, assess who is at risk, evaluate exposure, determine controls, record findings, and review regularly (Correct answer)
Only list the chemicals and their suppliers
Only note the disposal method for waste chemicals

Correct answer: Identify substances, assess who is at risk, evaluate exposure, determine controls, record findings, and review regularly

A full COSHH assessment identifies hazardous substances, determines who may be harmed, evaluates the level of exposure, determines appropriate control measures following the hierarchy, records the findings, and sets a review date. All elements are required.

Question 12: What dust control measures should a specialist contractor implement when working in an occupied building?

Only open windows for ventilation
Place a warning sign on the door to the work area
Only work during non-occupied hours — no dust controls during working hours
Erect dust screens and hoarding, use vacuum extraction on tools, damp down, and ensure clean-up before areas reopen (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Erect dust screens and hoarding, use vacuum extraction on tools, damp down, and ensure clean-up before areas reopen

Dust management in occupied premises requires physical barriers (hoarding), dust screens, vacuum extraction on tools, damp-down techniques, and thorough clean-up before occupied areas are reopened. Occupants, especially those with respiratory conditions, must be protected.

Question 13: A specialist supervisor identifies that a young person (under 18) has been assigned to operate a demolition excavator. What action should they take?

Permit the work under direct supervision of an experienced operator
Prevent the young person from carrying out the work as it is prohibited (Correct answer)
Allow the work if the young person has CPCS certification
Allow the work for a maximum of 2 hours per day

Correct answer: Prevent the young person from carrying out the work as it is prohibited

Under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, young persons must not be employed for work that is beyond their physical or psychological capacity, or involves harmful exposure to hazardous substances or conditions. Operating demolition equipment is prohibited for under-18s regardless of certification or supervision.

Question 14: Under CDM 2015, what is a 'Principal Contractor'?

The contractor appointed by the client to plan, manage, and coordinate health and safety during the construction phase (Correct answer)
The main client who commissions the project
The largest contractor on site by workforce number
The designer responsible for all structural drawings

Correct answer: The contractor appointed by the client to plan, manage, and coordinate health and safety during the construction phase

The Principal Contractor is appointed by the client and has the main responsibility for planning, managing, monitoring, and coordinating health and safety throughout the construction phase of a project.

Question 15: What are the four elements of the fire triangle?

Fuel, spark, air, and moisture
Fuel, air, heat, and accelerant
Fuel, oxygen, heat (plus chain reaction for the fire tetrahedron) (Correct answer)
Gas, liquid, solid fuel, and ignition source

Correct answer: Fuel, oxygen, heat (plus chain reaction for the fire tetrahedron)

The fire triangle consists of fuel, oxygen, and heat. Removing any one element extinguishes the fire. The expanded fire tetrahedron adds the chain reaction, which is how some suppression agents (halon, dry powder) work by interrupting the chemical chain.

Question 16: What should a specialist contractor do if they discover suspected asbestos while working in an occupied building?

Stop work immediately, seal the area, report to the site manager/client, and arrange for a licensed asbestos analyst (Correct answer)
Only report at the end of the working day
Remove the material carefully wearing a dust mask
Continue carefully and avoid disturbing the material

Correct answer: Stop work immediately, seal the area, report to the site manager/client, and arrange for a licensed asbestos analyst

If asbestos-containing material is discovered unexpectedly, work must stop immediately to prevent disturbance and exposure. The area should be sealed off, the find reported to the principal contractor and client, and a licensed asbestos analyst engaged before work can resume.

Question 17: Which regulation specifically requires employers to carry out noise assessments where specialist operations may expose workers to harmful noise levels?

The Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999
The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015
The Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005 (Correct answer)
The Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998

Correct answer: The Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005

The Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005 specifically require employers to assess noise exposure, provide hearing protection, and implement noise control measures. The lower exposure action value is 80 dB(A) and the upper value is 85 dB(A).

Question 18: What is the CDM 2015 duty of a client regarding health and safety?

Only to pay for appropriate safety measures
To ensure suitable arrangements are in place for managing the project, including the welfare of workers (Correct answer)
Only to appoint a Principal Contractor
The client has no duties if they appoint a Principal Contractor

Correct answer: To ensure suitable arrangements are in place for managing the project, including the welfare of workers

Under CDM 2015, clients have core duties including ensuring suitable arrangements are in place for managing the project, appointing competent duty holders, providing Pre-Construction Information, and ensuring adequate time and resources are allocated for health and safety.

Question 19: What does the term 'competent person' mean in the context of UK health and safety legislation for specialist construction work?

The most senior person on site at any given time
Any person who has worked in construction for more than 5 years
A person with sufficient training, experience, knowledge, and other qualities to carry out the task safely (Correct answer)
A person with a university degree in engineering or construction

Correct answer: A person with sufficient training, experience, knowledge, and other qualities to carry out the task safely

UK HSE defines a competent person as someone who has sufficient training, experience, knowledge, and other qualities that allow them to assist in undertaking the protective and preventive measures required. This is task-specific — competence for one activity does not automatically confer competence for another.

Question 20: Why should a rescuer never enter a confined space without proper equipment when a colleague collapses inside?

The regulation prohibits any unplanned entry
Only fire service personnel may enter after a collapse
Rescuers are not trained for confined space work
The same atmosphere that overcome the original entrant will incapacitate the rescuer, making the situation worse (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The same atmosphere that overcome the original entrant will incapacitate the rescuer, making the situation worse

Most confined space fatalities occur when untrained rescuers enter to help a colleague and are overcome by the same hazardous atmosphere. Rescue must only be undertaken with proper equipment, procedures, and trained personnel.

Question 21: What does CDM 2015 stand for?

Construction Duty Management Regulations 2015
Civil Design and Methods Regulations 2015
Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015 (Correct answer)
Contractor Development and Monitoring Regulations 2015

Correct answer: Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015

CDM stands for Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015. These regulations set out the health, safety, and welfare duties of everyone involved in construction projects in Great Britain.

Question 22: What health condition is caused by prolonged exposure to excessive noise at work?

Tinnitus only, not permanent hearing loss
A condition affecting balance only
Temporary hearing fatigue that recovers with rest
Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) — permanent, irreversible damage to inner ear hair cells (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) — permanent, irreversible damage to inner ear hair cells

Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) is a permanent, irreversible condition caused by prolonged exposure to loud noise, which destroys the sensory hair cells in the inner ear. Unlike temporary threshold shift after noise exposure, NIHL cannot be reversed.

Question 23: What voltage range is used for temporary power supplies on most UK construction sites?

415V three phase
12V low voltage only
110V centre-tapped to earth (CTE) (Correct answer)
240V single phase

Correct answer: 110V centre-tapped to earth (CTE)

UK construction sites use 110V centre-tapped to earth (CTE) for portable tools and temporary lighting. This limits the maximum shock voltage to 55V earth to neutral, significantly reducing electrocution risk compared to 240V.

Question 24: What regulation requires specialist contractors to assess risks from manual handling?

Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 only
Work at Height Regulations 2005
Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992 (as amended) (Correct answer)
CDM Regulations 2015

Correct answer: Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992 (as amended)

The Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992 require employers to avoid hazardous manual handling where possible, assess remaining risks, and reduce them. This applies to all construction trades including specialist contractors.

Question 25: What health surveillance is required under COSHH for workers exposed to substances that can cause occupational asthma?

Only a pre-employment medical — no further monitoring
Only an annual GP appointment
Pre-employment and regular respiratory questionnaires with lung function testing (spirometry) by an occupational health professional (Correct answer)
No health surveillance is required unless the worker develops symptoms

Correct answer: Pre-employment and regular respiratory questionnaires with lung function testing (spirometry) by an occupational health professional

Workers exposed to respiratory sensitisers (like isocyanates, wood dust, or flour) that can cause occupational asthma require regular health surveillance including respiratory questionnaires and spirometry (lung function testing) to detect sensitisation early.

Question 26: What hazard arises from cutting or grinding cast iron soil pipes?

Lead vapour from cast iron manufacture
Cadmium fumes from galvanising
Graphite dust with possible silica content — respiratory protection required (Correct answer)
Mercury contamination from pipe coatings

Correct answer: Graphite dust with possible silica content — respiratory protection required

Cutting or grinding cast iron generates dust containing graphite and possibly silica, both of which present respiratory hazards. Wet cutting or dust extraction should be used along with appropriate RPE.

Question 27: An electrician discovers a damaged cable during first fix wiring. What is the correct action?

Use insulating tape to repair the damage and continue
Isolate and report immediately — do not attempt to use or work around the damaged cable (Correct answer)
Report it at the next weekly toolbox talk
Continue working but make a note in the site diary

Correct answer: Isolate and report immediately — do not attempt to use or work around the damaged cable

Any damaged electrical cable must be immediately isolated and reported to the site supervisor. Attempting to work around or patch a damaged cable risks electrocution, fire, and non-compliance with electrical safety regulations.

Question 28: Under the Confined Spaces Regulations 1997, what is the first principle a specialist supervisor must apply before allowing entry into a confined space?

Test the atmosphere and proceed if safe
Brief the rescue team on standby procedures
Ensure all workers have RPE available
Avoid entry to the confined space wherever reasonably practicable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Avoid entry to the confined space wherever reasonably practicable

Regulation 4(1) of the Confined Spaces Regulations 1997 states that no person at work shall enter a confined space to carry out work unless it is not reasonably practicable to achieve the objective without entry. Avoidance is always the first principle.

Question 29: What is a PAT test relevant to in construction fire safety?

PAT testing is only relevant to offices, not construction sites
Portable Appliance Testing ensures electrical tools are safe and will not cause a fire from electrical fault (Correct answer)
PAT tests measure the fire risk of cable insulation materials
PAT testing is done by electricians during the wiring installation only

Correct answer: Portable Appliance Testing ensures electrical tools are safe and will not cause a fire from electrical fault

Portable Appliance Testing (PAT) checks that portable electrical equipment is electrically safe. Faulty equipment with damaged insulation or incorrect earthing can cause fires. Regular PAT testing on construction sites is an important fire prevention measure.

Question 30: What specialist equipment is required when using a high-reach demolition excavator to dismantle a multi-storey structure?

Any available excavator with a long boom
A telescopic handler with a grab attachment
A machine specifically designed for high-reach work with appropriate boom length, fitted with a demolition attachment, and operated from outside the collapse zone (Correct answer)
Standard buckets and breakers only

Correct answer: A machine specifically designed for high-reach work with appropriate boom length, fitted with a demolition attachment, and operated from outside the collapse zone

High-reach demolition requires purpose-built machines with reinforced booms, specialist demolition attachments (crushers, shears, grapples), and adequate counterweight. The machine must be positioned outside the calculated collapse zone, on stable ground, and operated by a CPCS-qualified demolition operative.

Question 31: How does CDM 2015 address the coordination between specialist contractors?

The Principal Contractor coordinates all contractors, ensuring their activities do not create risks for each other (Correct answer)
Each contractor manages their own risks independently
The client is responsible for all inter-contractor coordination
Coordination is only required when hazardous work is involved

Correct answer: The Principal Contractor coordinates all contractors, ensuring their activities do not create risks for each other

The Principal Contractor has a specific CDM 2015 duty to coordinate the activities of all contractors on site, ensuring that their work does not create hazards for others and that risks from concurrent activities are identified and managed.

Question 32: What is the primary role of the 'top man' (attendant) stationed outside a confined space during specialist operations?

To maintain communication with entrants and initiate emergency rescue procedures if needed (Correct answer)
To supervise other works happening nearby
To complete the confined space entry permit
To operate the ventilation equipment

Correct answer: To maintain communication with entrants and initiate emergency rescue procedures if needed

The attendant (top man) maintains continuous communication with those inside the confined space, monitors their condition, controls entry and exit, and is responsible for raising the alarm and initiating the emergency rescue plan if a problem occurs. They must never enter the space themselves to attempt rescue.

Question 33: What must a specialist plant operator do before leaving any item of plant unattended on a construction site?

Lower all attachments to the ground, engage the parking brake, switch off the engine, remove the key, and secure the cab to prevent unauthorised use (Correct answer)
Leave the engine running to maintain battery charge
Park it in a visible location
Switch off the engine only

Correct answer: Lower all attachments to the ground, engage the parking brake, switch off the engine, remove the key, and secure the cab to prevent unauthorised use

When leaving plant unattended, the operator must lower all buckets, forks, or attachments to the ground, apply the parking brake, switch off the engine, remove the ignition key, and lock the cab. This prevents unauthorised use (particularly by children on open sites) and eliminates the risk of uncontrolled movement from hydraulic drift or brake failure.

Question 34: When must a specialist contractor provide a specific method statement for high-risk activities under CDM 2015?

After the work is completed for record-keeping
Only when requested by the HSE inspector
Before the high-risk work commences, as part of the construction phase plan (Correct answer)
Only for work lasting more than 30 days

Correct answer: Before the high-risk work commences, as part of the construction phase plan

Method statements for high-risk activities must be prepared and agreed upon before work commences. They form part of the construction phase plan under CDM 2015 and detail how the work will be carried out safely, including the sequence of operations, equipment, and emergency procedures.

Question 35: What is Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and when is it used?

The extraction system in a spray booth only
An extraction system that captures dust, fume, or vapour at or near the source before it can spread into the working area (Correct answer)
Respiratory protection worn by the worker
General ventilation provided by opening windows and doors

Correct answer: An extraction system that captures dust, fume, or vapour at or near the source before it can spread into the working area

Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) is a fume or dust extraction system positioned at or close to the point of generation to capture contaminants before they can enter the worker's breathing zone or spread into the workplace.

Question 36: What is the maximum permissible gap between scaffold boards on a working platform used by specialist trades?

25mm (Correct answer)
No gap is permitted; boards must be butted tightly together
50mm
100mm

Correct answer: 25mm

The maximum gap between scaffold boards on a working platform should not exceed 25mm. Larger gaps create trip hazards and risk of tools or materials falling through to workers below. Boards must be properly supported, secured against displacement, and extend at least 50mm but not more than 150mm beyond the last supporting ledger.

Question 37: What daily construction site task helps prevent arson?

Only installing CCTV cameras
Securing the site properly at end of shift — removing combustibles from open areas, locking gates, and ensuring lighting deters intruders (Correct answer)
Only having a security guard at the main entrance
Leaving lights on throughout the night

Correct answer: Securing the site properly at end of shift — removing combustibles from open areas, locking gates, and ensuring lighting deters intruders

Arson is a significant cause of construction site fires. At the end of each shift, combustibles should be secured, skips positioned away from the building, access points locked, and lighting adequate to deter intruders. Good housekeeping reduces arson risk.

Question 38: An electrician uses a drill to make cable routes. What daily inspection should be performed on the drill?

Clean the drill with a damp cloth then test
No daily inspection is required for battery-powered drills
Test with a multimeter only
Check cable, plug, casing, and ON/OFF switch for damage before use (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check cable, plug, casing, and ON/OFF switch for damage before use

All portable power tools should be inspected before use (pre-use check) including checking the cable for damage, the plug for secure connections, the casing for cracks, and controls for correct operation. Formal PAT testing supplements but does not replace pre-use checks.

Question 39: Which type of respirator provides the highest protection factor for construction respiratory hazards?

A surgical mask
An FFP2 disposable mask
A powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) or a supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA) (Correct answer)
A half-mask with P1 filter

Correct answer: A powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) or a supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA)

Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPR) and supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA) provide the highest levels of respiratory protection, with assigned protection factors up to 40 or more. They are required for the highest risk exposures like asbestos removal.

Question 40: What is the primary health hazard when cutting fibre cement board (which may contain chrysotile)?

Inhalation of respirable fibres which can cause mesothelioma and asbestosis (Correct answer)
Skin irritation from cement content
Eye injury from flying fragments
Silica dust causing silicosis

Correct answer: Inhalation of respirable fibres which can cause mesothelioma and asbestosis

Some fibre cement products may contain chrysotile (white asbestos) or synthetic mineral fibres. Inhalation of respirable fibres causes mesothelioma and asbestosis. Dry cutting should be avoided; wet cutting or hand scoring is preferred with appropriate RPE.

Question 41: What must a specialist contractor do before drilling or chasing in walls in an occupied building?

Check for buried services using cable and pipe detectors before drilling or chasing (Correct answer)
Only the site manager needs to check for services
No checks are needed if the work is away from visible sockets and switches
Only test the wall with a voltage tester

Correct answer: Check for buried services using cable and pipe detectors before drilling or chasing

Before any drilling, chasing, or cutting in walls, ceilings, or floors in occupied buildings, cable avoidance tools (CATs) and pipe detectors must be used to locate buried electrical cables, gas pipes, and water pipes to prevent electrocution, gas leaks, or flooding.

Question 42: What is the legal requirement for welfare facilities on a specialist construction site under the Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015?

Adequate welfare facilities must be provided from the start of the construction phase (Correct answer)
Only drinking water must be provided; other facilities are optional
Welfare facilities are only required on sites with more than 25 workers
Welfare facilities can be provided within the first week of construction

Correct answer: Adequate welfare facilities must be provided from the start of the construction phase

CDM 2015 Schedule 2 requires that adequate welfare facilities (toilets, washing facilities, drinking water, changing rooms, rest areas) are available from the start of the construction phase. There is no minimum worker threshold — even a single worker is entitled to adequate welfare provision.

Question 43: Under CDM 2015, what does 'cooperation' between duty holders require?

Only informing each other of accidents
Only attending joint safety meetings
Sharing relevant health and safety information and working together to manage shared risks (Correct answer)
Only sharing RAMS documents

Correct answer: Sharing relevant health and safety information and working together to manage shared risks

CDM 2015 places a duty on all parties to cooperate with each other on health and safety matters, including sharing information about hazards, coordinating activities to prevent risks, and working together constructively to manage shared construction risks.

Question 44: What is the Health and Safety File under CDM 2015?

A document prepared by the Principal Designer containing information needed for future maintenance and construction work on the structure (Correct answer)
A file of all accident reports from the construction phase
A record of all inspections carried out by the HSE
The CDM coordinator's appointment letter and contract

Correct answer: A document prepared by the Principal Designer containing information needed for future maintenance and construction work on the structure

The Health and Safety File is prepared by the Principal Designer and handed to the client on completion. It contains information about the structure that will be needed for future maintenance, repair, or demolition work safely.

Question 45: What is the purpose of a 'permit to dig' system used by specialist groundwork contractors?

To formally confirm that underground services have been located and marked, safe digging methods agreed, and specific precautions are in place before digging begins (Correct answer)
To confirm the soil type before excavation
To allow the use of mechanical excavation equipment
To obtain planning permission for the excavation

Correct answer: To formally confirm that underground services have been located and marked, safe digging methods agreed, and specific precautions are in place before digging begins

A permit to dig is a formal management control document that confirms service drawings have been checked, detection equipment has been used, services have been marked on the ground, safe digging methods are specified (hand dig zones), and all relevant precautions are in place. It must be signed by the supervisor and reviewed if conditions change.

Question 46: When working in an occupied building, who must be briefed on the emergency evacuation procedure?

Only site management
Only the principal contractor's employees
Briefing is only required at the start of the project
All specialist contractors on site — they must know the evacuation route, assembly point, and alarm signal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All specialist contractors on site — they must know the evacuation route, assembly point, and alarm signal

All workers in an occupied building must be briefed on the specific emergency evacuation procedure, including the alarm system, assembly point, and evacuation routes. This is particularly important in occupied buildings where routes may differ from a conventional construction site.

Question 47: Under the Control of Vibration at Work Regulations 2005, what is the daily Exposure Action Value (EAV) for hand-arm vibration?

5.0 m/s² A(8)
10.0 m/s² A(8)
2.5 m/s² A(8) (Correct answer)
1.0 m/s² A(8)

Correct answer: 2.5 m/s² A(8)

The Exposure Action Value for hand-arm vibration is 2.5 m/s² A(8). At this level, employers must take action to reduce vibration exposure, including providing health surveillance for regularly exposed workers.

Question 48: A specialist supervisor discovers that a subcontractor's operatives do not hold valid CSCS cards. What is the correct course of action?

Issue temporary site passes and continue work
Allow them to work under close supervision until cards arrive
Stop the operatives from working and report the issue to the principal contractor (Correct answer)
Check if they have equivalent qualifications and allow work to proceed

Correct answer: Stop the operatives from working and report the issue to the principal contractor

CSCS cards verify that workers have the required training and qualifications. Operatives without valid cards should not be permitted to work on site. The specialist supervisor must stop the work and escalate the matter to the principal contractor for resolution.

Question 49: What does WEL (Workplace Exposure Limit) mean?

The minimum ventilation rate required in a work area
The maximum weight of a hazardous substance allowed on site
The legal limit for PPE replacement frequency
The maximum concentration of a substance in air to which workers may be exposed averaged over an 8-hour shift (TWA) or short-term period (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The maximum concentration of a substance in air to which workers may be exposed averaged over an 8-hour shift (TWA) or short-term period

A Workplace Exposure Limit (WEL) is the maximum concentration of an airborne substance (in mg/m³ or ppm) averaged over a reference period (8-hour Time Weighted Average or 15-minute short-term exposure limit) to which workers may legally be exposed.

Question 50: When must a project be notified to the HSE under CDM 2015?

When it will last longer than 30 working days with more than 20 workers simultaneously, or exceed 500 person-days (Correct answer)
When the Principal Contractor employs more than 50 workers
When the project value exceeds £500,000
When more than 5 contractors are on site

Correct answer: When it will last longer than 30 working days with more than 20 workers simultaneously, or exceed 500 person-days

Under CDM 2015, projects must be notified to the HSE before the construction phase begins if they will last more than 30 working days with more than 20 workers at any one time, or will exceed 500 person-days of construction work.

CITB Health, Safety and Environment (HS&E) Test for Specialists

The CITB HS&E Specialists test assesses construction workers' knowledge of health, safety, and environmental practices for specialist roles, covering CDM regulations, confined space operations, hazardous substances (COSHH), and specialist safety requirements needed to obtain a CSCS card.

Questions

45 min

Time Limit

90%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
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10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

citb.co.uk — Fees, registration deadline, test delivery, retake policy, score release, exam format, passing score, time limit, exam information · verified Oct 2026
cscs.uk.com — Eligibility, score validity · verified Oct 2026