CHCS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CHCS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which best describes the scope of Emergency Procedures & Critical Care in professional practice? → A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications
2. When a physician is newly granted ventilator management privileges in the ICU, what evaluation process is required by The Joint Commission? → Focused Professional Practice Evaluation (FPPE)
3. What happens if a provider fails to meet privileging standards? → Privileges may be denied or revoked
4. Under NCQA standards, how often must health plan practitioners be recredentialed? → At least every 36 months
5. Which regulation governs the Army Combat Fitness Test? → AR 350-1
6. What assessment technique involves listening to body sounds with a stethoscope? → Auscultation
7. Medicare provider enrollment records in PECOS generally must be revalidated how often for most providers? → Every 5 years
8. Under NCQA standards, how many years of malpractice claims history must be verified at initial credentialing? → 5 years
9. Under the CMS Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program, what penalty applies to the worst-performing quartile of hospitals? → A 1% reduction in Medicare payments
10. Which Joint Commission process requires continuous review of practitioner performance data rather than only at reappointment? → OPPE
11. Which federal law created Patient Safety Organizations and gives privilege and confidentiality protections to patient safety work product? → Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005
12. Under HCQIA, how often must a hospital query the NPDB for practitioners already on its medical staff? → At least every two years
13. What does the System for Award Management (SAM) query identify? → Individuals and entities debarred from federal contracts and programs
14. What is the primary role of a proctor during FPPE? → To observe, evaluate, and report on the practitioner's competence
15. CMS requires physician supervision of CRNAs administering anesthesia unless: → The state governor has opted out of the requirement
16. Under NCQA standards, how soon after sanction information is released must an organization review it during ongoing monitoring? → Within 30 calendar days
17. Which FDA program can require prescribers to be certified or enrolled before prescribing certain high-risk drugs, such as isotretinoin through iPLEDGE? → REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy)
18. The Ryan Haight Act primarily regulates which practice? → Prescribing controlled substances via the internet/telemedicine
19. Which situation would most likely expose a hospital to an antitrust claim during credentialing? → Denying privileges to reduce competition for existing staff physicians
20. Which type of NPDB report allows a hospital to continuously monitor practitioners between required queries? → Continuous query (proactive disclosure)
21. Under the Anti-Kickback Statute, which arrangement raises the greatest concern? → Paying a physician for referrals of federal health care program patients
22. When communicating with diverse stakeholders, what approach is recommended? → Adapt communication style and detail level to each stakeholder group
23. Which database must be checked to confirm that a provider is not excluded from federal healthcare programs? → OIG LEIE
24. Under NCQA standards, how often must a health plan recredential its practitioners? → At least every 36 months
25. Which Joint Commission process evaluates a practitioner who has been newly granted privileges at the organization? → Focused Professional Practice Evaluation (FPPE)
26. Under Joint Commission standards, what is the maximum time a practitioner may hold temporary privileges while their application is pending? → 120 days
27. A physician requests cardiac catheterization privileges, but the hospital has no cath lab. How should the request be handled? → Decline it as unavailable at the facility, which is not an adverse action
28. What should a communication plan include at minimum? → Stakeholder list, message content, channels, frequency, and responsible parties
29. Which best describes the scope of Treatment Protocols & Interventions in professional practice? → A comprehensive area covering both theoretical foundations and practical applications
30. Under OSHA, who pays for the post-exposure evaluation and follow-up after an employee's needlestick injury? → The employer, at no cost to the employee