FAA Ground Instructor Written Exam (FOI, FIA, AGI, IGI) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which flight instrument is powered by the pitot-static system?

Attitude indicator
Turn coordinator
Airspeed indicator (Correct answer)
Heading indicator

Correct answer: Airspeed indicator

The airspeed indicator uses the difference between pitot (ram) pressure and static pressure to display indicated airspeed.

Question 2: Which of the following best describes torque effect in a single-engine propeller aircraft?

An increase in airspeed during left turns
The tendency to roll left as the engine torque reaction acts opposite to propeller rotation (Correct answer)
A yaw to the right caused by gyroscopic precession
The tendency to roll right due to propeller slipstream

Correct answer: The tendency to roll left as the engine torque reaction acts opposite to propeller rotation

Newton's third law causes the aircraft to roll opposite to propeller rotation direction; for a clockwise-rotating prop, the aircraft tends to roll left.

Question 3: What is the correct sequence of the demonstration-performance method?

Explanation, demonstration, student performance and instructor supervision, evaluation (Correct answer)
Demonstration, explanation, evaluation, student performance
Introduction, development, conclusion, review
Explanation, student performance, demonstration, evaluation

Correct answer: Explanation, demonstration, student performance and instructor supervision, evaluation

The demonstration-performance method has five phases: explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, and evaluation, with performance and supervision happening at the same time.

Question 4: What document contains federal aviation regulations and procedures?

Title 10
Title 49
Title 14 CFR (Correct answer)
Title 18

Correct answer: Title 14 CFR

Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs) are found in Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). This specific title contains all the rules governing aviation activities in the United States, from pilot certification and aircraft airworthiness to air traffic rules and operational procedures, ensuring standardized and safe practices.

Question 5: What does a 'rich' mixture setting mean in a piston engine?

Maximum power with minimum fuel
More fuel relative to stoichiometric air-fuel ratio (Correct answer)
Leaner than best power mixture
More air than fuel in the mixture

Correct answer: More fuel relative to stoichiometric air-fuel ratio

A rich mixture contains more fuel than the chemically ideal ratio, which provides engine cooling but reduces fuel efficiency.

Question 6: What is the minimum time required between consuming alcohol and acting as pilot in command?

8 hours (Correct answer)
4 hours
12 hours
24 hours

Correct answer: 8 hours

14 CFR 91.17 requires at least 8 hours between consuming alcohol and acting as a required flight crew member.

Question 7: Which regulation governs pilot certification standards?

Part 141
Part 91
Part 61 (Correct answer)
Part 21

Correct answer: Part 61

Title 14 CFR Part 61 specifically outlines the requirements for pilot, flight instructor, and ground instructor certificates and ratings. It details the aeronautical experience, knowledge, and skill standards necessary to obtain and maintain various pilot certifications, ensuring pilots meet specific proficiency levels.

Question 8: How many nautical miles are in one degree of latitude?

30 NM
60 NM (Correct answer)
69 NM
100 NM

Correct answer: 60 NM

Each degree of latitude spans 60 nautical miles, so each minute equals 1 NM.

Question 9: After failing a knowledge test, what does an applicant need before retesting?

A 30-day waiting period only
An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave additional training (Correct answer)
A new medical certificate
FSDO approval

Correct answer: An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave additional training

61.49 requires an endorsement from an authorized instructor stating that additional training was given and the applicant is competent.

Question 10: What effect does lowering flaps have on the stall speed?

Stall speed decreases because of increased lift at a given airspeed (Correct answer)
Stall speed remains unchanged but angle of attack changes
Stall speed increases proportionally to flap angle
Stall speed increases because of added drag

Correct answer: Stall speed decreases because of increased lift at a given airspeed

Lowering flaps increases the wing's camber and lift coefficient, allowing the wing to stall at a lower airspeed.

Question 11: What is the purpose of filing a VFR flight plan?

It is required for all cross-country flights over 25 nautical miles
It provides ATC with authorization to vector the pilot around weather
It activates ATC radar flight following automatically
It ensures search and rescue will be initiated if the flight is overdue and the plan is not closed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It ensures search and rescue will be initiated if the flight is overdue and the plan is not closed

A VFR flight plan is voluntary but valuable because it initiates search and rescue if the pilot fails to close it within 30 minutes of ETA.

Question 12: What does 'situational awareness' mean for a pilot?

Awareness of nearby air traffic only
The ability to read instruments accurately in turbulence
Accurate perception and understanding of the aircraft, environment, and flight path at all times (Correct answer)
Knowledge of all federal aviation regulations

Correct answer: Accurate perception and understanding of the aircraft, environment, and flight path at all times

Situational awareness is the accurate, ongoing mental picture of one's aircraft state, environment, traffic, weather, and planned course of action.

Question 13: Where is wind shear most likely to be encountered near a thunderstorm?

Near the surface directly below the storm and at all altitudes within 20 NM (Correct answer)
Exclusively in the anvil cloud outflow
Only at high altitudes above the anvil
Only in the stratiform rain region behind the storm

Correct answer: Near the surface directly below the storm and at all altitudes within 20 NM

Wind shear associated with thunderstorms can occur near the surface under the storm and within approximately 20 NM of the cell at any altitude.

Question 14: What is 'task saturation' in aviation?

A condition where the pilot's workload exceeds capacity, causing errors or omissions (Correct answer)
The point at which the autopilot takes over all tasks
Completing all required tasks within a given time window
Optimal performance when a pilot is fully engaged

Correct answer: A condition where the pilot's workload exceeds capacity, causing errors or omissions

Task saturation occurs when workload exceeds the pilot's capacity to process and act on information, leading to errors, missed items, or channelized attention.

Question 15: A ground instructor may provide which of the following without also holding a flight instructor certificate?

Solo flight authorization for student pilots
Both ground and flight training in any aircraft category
Ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas only (Correct answer)
In-flight maneuver instruction in a two-seat aircraft

Correct answer: Ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas only

Ground instructors are authorized to provide ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas only; authorizing solo flights or providing in-flight instruction requires a flight instructor certificate.

Question 16: To get limited immunity from FAA sanctions through the NASA ASRS, the report must normally be filed within:

30 days
10 days (Correct answer)
24 hours
5 days

Correct answer: 10 days

AC 00-46 grants ASRS immunity when the report is filed within 10 days of the event, if other conditions are met.

Question 17: Under 91.207, when must ELT batteries be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable)?

Every annual inspection
Every 24 calendar months
After 1 cumulative hour of use or 50% of useful life (Correct answer)
After 2 cumulative hours of use or 75% of useful life

Correct answer: After 1 cumulative hour of use or 50% of useful life

91.207 requires replacement after more than 1 cumulative hour of use or when 50% of useful life has expired.

Question 18: What does the term 'Vne' represent on the airspeed indicator?

Never-exceed speed, marked by the red radial line (Correct answer)
Best rate-of-climb speed
Maneuvering speed
Maximum flap extension speed

Correct answer: Never-exceed speed, marked by the red radial line

Vne is the never-exceed speed, marked by the red radial line on the ASI; exceeding it risks structural failure due to aerodynamic forces.

Question 19: In the communication process, which three elements are required for effective communication?

Sender, medium, and audience
Speaker, message, and feedback channel
Instructor, lesson plan, and student
Source, symbols, and receiver (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Source, symbols, and receiver

The FAA Aviation Instructor's Handbook identifies the source, the symbols, and the receiver as the three basic elements of communication.

Question 20: What is pressure altitude?

Altitude shown when the altimeter is set to the local station pressure
Altitude shown on the altimeter when it is set to 29.92 in. Hg (Correct answer)
Altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
Altitude above ground level

Correct answer: Altitude shown on the altimeter when it is set to 29.92 in. Hg

Pressure altitude is the altimeter reading with 29.92 in. Hg set, which is height above the standard datum plane.

Question 21: Which statement about the critical angle of attack is correct?

It increases as gross weight increases
It varies with airspeed and pitch attitude
It decreases in a steep bank
It remains the same regardless of weight, airspeed, or attitude (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It remains the same regardless of weight, airspeed, or attitude

A given wing always stalls at the same critical angle of attack; stall speed changes, but the stall angle does not.

Question 22: What are Special Use Airspace areas that pilots must obtain permission to enter?

Prohibited and Restricted areas (Correct answer)
Alert Areas
Class B and Class C airspace
MOAs and Warning Areas

Correct answer: Prohibited and Restricted areas

Prohibited areas are absolutely off-limits; Restricted areas require ATC or controlling agency permission due to hazardous operations within them.

Question 23: When must a pilot report a change to a VFR flight plan?

Any change to the filed route or destination must be reported to the FAA by phone after landing
Only IFR plans require amendments; VFR plans are informational only
VFR flight plans cannot be changed once filed
Changes to destination, route, or ETA by more than 30 minutes should be reported to FSS to maintain search and rescue accuracy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Changes to destination, route, or ETA by more than 30 minutes should be reported to FSS to maintain search and rescue accuracy

Significant changes to a VFR flight plan (destination, route, or ETA by more than 30 minutes) should be reported to Flight Service to keep SAR information current.

Question 24: The introduction of a lesson should contain which three elements?

Objectives, schedule, and test
Demonstration, practice, and feedback
Attention, motivation, and overview (Correct answer)
Review, summary, and preview

Correct answer: Attention, motivation, and overview

An effective introduction gains attention, motivates students, and gives an overview of what will be covered.

Question 25: What are the three main parts of a well-organized lesson?

Introduction, development, conclusion (Correct answer)
Preparation, presentation, critique
Explanation, demonstration, evaluation
Attention, motivation, overview

Correct answer: Introduction, development, conclusion

Lessons are organized into an introduction, development, and conclusion.

Question 26: What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Airspace where ATC radar services are not available
Restricted airspace surrounding military airports
Airspace permanently restricted to military use only; civilian flight is prohibited
Designated airspace for military training activities; VFR flight is not prohibited but pilots should exercise extreme caution (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Designated airspace for military training activities; VFR flight is not prohibited but pilots should exercise extreme caution

MOAs are designated airspace for military training; VFR civilian flight is not prohibited but pilots should contact ATC for traffic advisories and exercise caution.

Question 27: Which surface controls pitch on an aircraft?

Elevators (Correct answer)
Rudder
Ailerons
Flaps

Correct answer: Elevators

Elevators are control surfaces located on the horizontal stabilizer at the tail of the aircraft. When moved, they alter the aerodynamic force on the tail, causing the nose of the aircraft to pitch up or down. This controls the aircraft's climb or descent rate.

Question 28: When do ground instructor certificates issued by the FAA expire?

Ground instructor certificates do not expire (Correct answer)
Every 3 years unless a proficiency check is completed
When the holder reaches age 65
Every 2 years, requiring renewal

Correct answer: Ground instructor certificates do not expire

Under 14 CFR 61.19(a), ground instructor certificates are not subject to an expiration date and remain valid indefinitely.

Question 29: The OBS is set to 360° with a TO indication and the CDI needle is deflected to the right. Where is the aircraft relative to the station?

Northeast of the station
Northwest of the station
Southwest of the station (Correct answer)
Southeast of the station

Correct answer: Southwest of the station

A TO indication with 360° selected places the aircraft south of the station, and a right needle means the course lies to the east, so the aircraft is southwest.

Question 30: What navigation method relies mainly on visual reference to landmarks?

Pilotage (Correct answer)
Dead reckoning
Radio navigation
Inertial navigation

Correct answer: Pilotage

Pilotage is navigation by visual reference to landmarks shown on a chart.

Question 31: In a tailwheel airplane, raising the tail during the takeoff roll causes a left yaw due to:

Gyroscopic precession (Correct answer)
Torque reaction
Spiraling slipstream
Adverse yaw

Correct answer: Gyroscopic precession

Pitching the spinning propeller disc forward applies a force that precesses 90° in the direction of rotation, producing left yaw.

Question 32: When must a pilot contact ATC before entering Class D airspace?

At least 30 minutes before entering
Before entering—two-way radio contact must be established, though clearance is not required (Correct answer)
When visibility is less than 3 miles
Only when IFR; VFR pilots need no contact

Correct answer: Before entering—two-way radio contact must be established, though clearance is not required

Entry into Class D airspace requires that two-way radio communication be established with ATC before entering, though no specific clearance is required.

Question 33: What basic VFR weather minimums apply within Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

3 miles visibility, 500 feet below and 500 feet above clouds
1 mile visibility, clear of clouds
5 miles visibility, 1,000 feet below and above clouds
3 miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds

Basic VFR minimums in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL are 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds.

Question 34: What ratings are available on a ground instructor certificate?

Student, Private, and Instrument
Recreational, Private, and Commercial
Basic, Advanced, and Instrument (Correct answer)
Basic, Intermediate, and Advanced

Correct answer: Basic, Advanced, and Instrument

The FAA issues ground instructor certificates with Basic (BGI), Advanced (AGI), and Instrument (IGI) ratings under 14 CFR 61.213.

Question 35: Which element of a lesson plan describes the standards the student must meet to complete the lesson?

Completion standards (Correct answer)
Objective
Schedule
Elements

Correct answer: Completion standards

Completion standards state how well the student must perform to satisfy the lesson.

Question 36: Which statement about an effective critique is correct?

It should be objective, flexible, and specific (Correct answer)
It should be given only at the end of the course
It should cover every error the student made
It should focus mainly on the student's personality

Correct answer: It should be objective, flexible, and specific

Effective critiques are objective, flexible, acceptable, comprehensive, constructive, organized, thoughtful, and specific.

Question 37: What is the 'IMSAFE' checklist used for?

Instrument approach briefing checklist
Emergency procedure memory aid
Pre-flight aircraft airworthiness check
Pilot self-assessment of personal fitness to fly (Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pilot self-assessment of personal fitness to fly (Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion)

IMSAFE is a personal pilot checklist covering Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, and Emotion to determine fitness for flight.

Question 38: What is drag in aviation?

Landing force
A lifting force
Air resistance opposing motion (Correct answer)
Engine thrust

Correct answer: Air resistance opposing motion

Drag is the aerodynamic force that opposes an aircraft's motion through the air. It is primarily caused by the friction between the aircraft's surface and the air, as well as pressure differences created by the aircraft's shape. This resistance must be overcome by thrust for the aircraft to maintain or increase speed.

Question 39: What does a yellow 'X' marking on a runway indicate?

Declared distance available
Closed runway or taxiway (Correct answer)
Runway end identifier
Intersection hold short point

Correct answer: Closed runway or taxiway

A yellow X painted on a runway or taxiway indicates it is closed and must not be used for operations.

Question 40: After a written exam, an instructor has each student review a classmate's answers and discuss them in a group. This critique method is called what?

Instructor/student critique
Small group critique (Correct answer)
Written critique
Self-critique

Correct answer: Small group critique

In a small group critique, students are divided into groups that each discuss and critique the performance.

Question 41: Which navigation method computes heading and groundspeed from known TAS, wind, time, and distance?

Dead reckoning (Correct answer)
GPS navigation
VOR tracking
Pilotage

Correct answer: Dead reckoning

Dead reckoning uses computed values (TAS, wind, heading, time) to estimate position without outside references.

Question 42: Which combination of conditions produces the highest density altitude?

High elevation, cold temperature, dry air
Low elevation, cold temperature, dry air
High elevation, high temperature, high humidity (Correct answer)
Low elevation, high temperature, dry air

Correct answer: High elevation, high temperature, high humidity

Higher elevation, higher temperature, and higher humidity all reduce air density, which raises density altitude.

Question 43: Why is effective communication important for ground instructors?

To minimize student interaction
To reduce course duration
To convey information clearly and accurately (Correct answer)
To pass exams without studying

Correct answer: To convey information clearly and accurately

Effective communication is paramount for ground instructors to ensure that complex aviation concepts are understood by students. By conveying information clearly and accurately, instructors can prevent misunderstandings, build a strong foundation of knowledge, and prepare students thoroughly for practical application and examinations. This clarity directly impacts student safety and success in aviation training.

Question 44: What does the VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator) display?

Vertical component of the aircraft's ground speed
Indicated altitude corrected for temperature
True airspeed relative to the ground
Rate of change of altitude in feet per minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rate of change of altitude in feet per minute

The VSI measures the rate of change in static pressure to display climb or descent rate in feet per minute.

Question 45: In the standard atmosphere, what is the temperature at 5,000 feet MSL?

10°C
5°C (Correct answer)
15°C
0°C

Correct answer: 5°C

Standard temperature starts at 15°C at sea level and drops about 2°C per 1,000 feet, giving 5°C at 5,000 feet.

Question 46: Within how many days must a certificate holder notify the FAA of a change of permanent mailing address?

10 days
30 days (Correct answer)
90 days
60 days

Correct answer: 30 days

Under 61.60, the holder cannot use certificate privileges after 30 days unless the FAA has been notified of the new address.

Question 47: A student hears 'roger' and assumes it means 'I will comply.' What type of communication barrier is this?

Confusion between the symbol and the symbolized object (Correct answer)
Overuse of abstractions
Physiological interference
Lack of common experience

Correct answer: Confusion between the symbol and the symbolized object

Words are only symbols, and the barrier arises when a word is taken to mean something other than what the source intended.

Question 48: What is a microburst?

An intense, localized downdraft from a convective storm that spreads outward at the surface (Correct answer)
A small area of rotating air within a tornado
A brief but intense updraft inside a cumulonimbus cloud
A rapid temperature rise associated with chinook winds

Correct answer: An intense, localized downdraft from a convective storm that spreads outward at the surface

A microburst is a concentrated downdraft that strikes the surface and spreads outward, creating severe wind shear dangerous during takeoff and landing.

Question 49: What is the purpose of the fuel-air mixture control in a piston aircraft?

Adjusts the ratio of fuel to air to maintain engine efficiency as air density changes with altitude (Correct answer)
Controls throttle position at altitude
Activates the auxiliary fuel pump
Manages fuel flow between tanks

Correct answer: Adjusts the ratio of fuel to air to maintain engine efficiency as air density changes with altitude

As altitude increases, air density decreases, so the mixture control allows the pilot to lean the fuel-air ratio to maintain optimal combustion efficiency.

Question 50: An instructor uses the term 'adverse yaw' with a student who has never flown, and the student nods but clearly does not understand. Which barrier to communication is most evident?

Interference
Overuse of abstractions
Confusion between the symbol and the symbolized object
Lack of common experience (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lack of common experience

Communication fails when the receiver has no experience base that gives meaning to the words the source uses.

Question 51: A pilot observes a rapidly falling barometric pressure. What does this typically indicate?

Stable weather with little change expected
Approaching high-pressure system with improving weather
Cooling temperatures but no precipitation
Approaching low-pressure system with deteriorating weather (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Approaching low-pressure system with deteriorating weather

A rapid fall in barometric pressure indicates an approaching low-pressure system, often bringing deteriorating weather and precipitation.

FAA Ground Instructor Written Exam (FOI, FIA, AGI, IGI)

The FAA Ground Instructor exams assess an applicant's knowledge of fundamental instruction, aeronautical knowledge, and instrument aeronautical knowledge required to teach aviation students.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

70%

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Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

ecfr.gov — Eligibility, renewal, score validity, exam information · verified Oct 2026
faa.gov — Test delivery, exam format, passing score, retake policy · verified Oct 2026