CFRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CFRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose develops a wide QRS complex and hypotension. What is the treatment of choice? → Sodium bicarbonate IV bolus
2. Which of the following clinical presentations is most characteristic of an abruptio placentae? → Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, a rigid uterus, and dark red bleeding.
3. Which reversal agent is used for suspected opioid overdose during air medical transport? → Naloxone
4. A flight nurse is transporting a patient with suspected cardiac tamponade. Which hemodynamic triad (Beck's Triad) is classically associated with this condition? → Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension
5. Which antidysrhythmic drug is preferred for stable wide-complex tachycardia of uncertain origin during air transport? → Procainamide
6. When managing a patient with suspected increased ICP, what is the recommended head-of-bed position during transport? → 30-degree elevation with midline head position
7. During RSI in a patient with a suspected difficult airway, which backup airway device should be immediately available if intubation fails? → Supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA or King LT)
8. A 2-year-old ingested a button battery 2 hours ago. X-ray confirms the battery is lodged in the esophagus. The flight nurse should anticipate the need for: → Emergent endoscopic removal within 2 hours of ingestion
9. When using a Macintosh laryngoscope blade, the tip of the blade is correctly positioned in which anatomical structure to elevate the epiglottis? → Vallecula (between base of tongue and epiglottis)
10. A patient with a TBI is receiving mannitol. What lab value must be monitored to avoid toxicity? → Serum osmolality should remain below 320 mOsm/kg
11. During neonatal transport, a 28-week premature infant develops bradycardia to 80 bpm with oxygen saturation dropping to 75%. The FIRST intervention should be: → Provide positive pressure ventilation with 100% oxygen
12. During air transport of a 29-week gestation patient, the flight nurse administers betamethasone. This corticosteroid is given to: → Accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce RDS risk
13. What is the primary mechanism of action of ketamine when used for induction in the flight setting? → NMDA receptor antagonism
14. When should the flight nurse perform RSI for a head-injured patient with a GCS of 8? → Before transport to secure the airway and prevent aspiration
15. During transport of a septic patient, the flight nurse notes a central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mmHg. This finding is most consistent with: → Hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation
16. During a flight transport, a patient's endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained at what range to prevent tracheal mucosal ischemia? → 20-30 cmH2O
17. A patient with TBI has a serum sodium of 118 mEq/L and cerebral edema. What syndrome does this suggest? → Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
18. A flight nurse is transporting a patient with a closed head injury. Which altitude-related concern is MOST critical? → Expansion of intracranial air and worsening ICP
19. A pediatric patient with TBI has a bulging fontanelle and is bradycardic. What does the bulging fontanelle indicate in this context? → Elevated intracranial pressure transmitted through the open fontanelle
20. Which flight physiology principle explains why sinusitis or ear pain may worsen during aircraft descent? → Boyle's Law — gas compression in blocked cavities
21. What is the correct CFRN response if a patient's oxygen tank is damaged during a hard landing and begins to leak inside the aircraft? → Notify the pilot, land immediately, and move the patient away from the tank
22. A flight nurse is managing a patient with a penetrating brain injury. Which action is most appropriate regarding the impaled object? → Stabilize the object in place and do not remove it
23. A pediatric patient (15 kg) requires succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation. What is the correct dose? → 30 mg (2 mg/kg)
24. A patient with known anaphylaxis requires epinephrine. What is the correct IM dose and site for an adult? → 0.3–0.5 mg in the anterolateral thigh
25. A CFRN confirms ETT placement with waveform capnography but SpO2 remains at 88% despite FiO2 of 100%. What is the most likely cause? → Carbon monoxide poisoning causing falsely elevated SpO2
26. Which position is MOST appropriate for a term pregnant patient in hemorrhagic shock during aeromedical transport who cannot tolerate left lateral tilt? → Manual left uterine displacement while supine
27. A CFRN is caring for a patient with a suspected C-spine injury who needs emergent intubation. Which technique is MOST appropriate? → Video laryngoscopy with manual inline stabilization (MILS)
28. Which cranial nerves on the list below control eye movement? → III, IV, VI
29. Which drug class is used to treat alcohol withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens during transport? → Benzodiazepines
30. A 12-hour-old neonate has a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL and is symptomatic with jitteriness. The appropriate initial IV treatment is: → D10W 2 mL/kg IV bolus followed by D10W infusion at GIR 6 mg/kg/min