CFRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CFRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose develops a wide QRS complex and hypotension. What is the treatment of choice? → Sodium bicarbonate IV bolus
2. Which of the following clinical presentations is most characteristic of an abruptio placentae? → Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, a rigid uterus, and dark red bleeding.
3. Which hemodynamic profile is expected in distributive (septic) shock? → High CO, low SVR, normal or low PCWP
4. Which reversal agent is used for suspected opioid overdose during air medical transport? → Naloxone
5. A flight nurse is transporting a patient with suspected cardiac tamponade. Which hemodynamic triad (Beck's Triad) is classically associated with this condition? → Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension
6. Which of the following BEST describes the concept of 'sterile cockpit' during aeromedical transport? → Restricting all non-essential communication during critical flight phases
7. During helicopter transport, altitude-related gas expansion causes which change in a patient who has an untreated pneumothorax? → The pneumothorax will expand, potentially converting to tension pneumothorax
8. Which antidysrhythmic drug is preferred for stable wide-complex tachycardia of uncertain origin during air transport? → Procainamide
9. When managing a patient with suspected increased ICP, what is the recommended head-of-bed position during transport? → 30-degree elevation with midline head position
10. During RSI in a patient with a suspected difficult airway, which backup airway device should be immediately available if intubation fails? → Supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA or King LT)
11. A 2-year-old ingested a button battery 2 hours ago. X-ray confirms the battery is lodged in the esophagus. The flight nurse should anticipate the need for: → Emergent endoscopic removal within 2 hours of ingestion
12. Which intervention is the HIGHEST priority when managing a patient with a GCS of 6 and suspected herniation syndrome during flight? → Elevate head of stretcher to 30 degrees and maintain normocapnia
13. When using a Macintosh laryngoscope blade, the tip of the blade is correctly positioned in which anatomical structure to elevate the epiglottis? → Vallecula (between base of tongue and epiglottis)
14. A CFRN is preparing to transport a patient with an open globe eye injury. Which intervention is MOST critical to prevent worsening? → Shield the eye without applying pressure and maintain head-of-bed at 30 degrees
15. A patient with a TBI is receiving mannitol. What lab value must be monitored to avoid toxicity? → Serum osmolality should remain below 320 mOsm/kg
16. A patient with known placenta previa at 35 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding during transport. Which assessment is CONTRAINDICATED? → Digital cervical examination
17. When calculating oxygen supply for a ventilated patient being transported on a fixed-wing aircraft, the formula for E-cylinder duration is: → (Gauge PSI × 0.28) / flow rate = minutes
18. A CFRN is preparing to transport a neonate. Which physiologic characteristic makes neonates especially vulnerable to hypothermia during flight? → Large surface-area-to-body-mass ratio
19. During neonatal transport, a 28-week premature infant develops bradycardia to 80 bpm with oxygen saturation dropping to 75%. The FIRST intervention should be: → Provide positive pressure ventilation with 100% oxygen
20. During air transport of a 29-week gestation patient, the flight nurse administers betamethasone. This corticosteroid is given to: → Accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce RDS risk
21. What is the primary mechanism of action of ketamine when used for induction in the flight setting? → NMDA receptor antagonism
22. When should the flight nurse perform RSI for a head-injured patient with a GCS of 8? → Before transport to secure the airway and prevent aspiration
23. During transport of a septic patient, the flight nurse notes a central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mmHg. This finding is most consistent with: → Hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation
24. During a flight transport, a patient's endotracheal tube cuff pressure should be maintained at what range to prevent tracheal mucosal ischemia? → 20-30 cmH2O
25. A flight nurse is managing a chest tube during transport. During ascent, the drainage chamber should be: → Left on water-seal and monitored for increased bubbling
26. Henry's Law is most clinically relevant to which aeromedical patient concern? → Nitrogen bubble formation in SCUBA divers at altitude
27. During nasotracheal intubation in a spontaneously breathing patient, the CFRN hears peak airflow through the tube. What should be done at this moment? → Advance the tube rapidly during peak inspiratory airflow
28. A patient with TBI has a serum sodium of 118 mEq/L and cerebral edema. What syndrome does this suggest? → Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
29. During a critical care transport, a patient's EtCO2 suddenly drops from 38 to 10 mmHg while SPO2 remains unchanged at 99%. What is the MOST likely explanation? → Circuit disconnect or esophageal detector failure
30. A flight nurse is transporting a patient with a closed head injury. Which altitude-related concern is MOST critical? → Expansion of intracranial air and worsening ICP