CFRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CFRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following clinical presentations is most characteristic of an abruptio placentae? → Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, a rigid uterus, and dark red bleeding.
2. Which hemodynamic profile is expected in distributive (septic) shock? → High CO, low SVR, normal or low PCWP
3. Which reversal agent is used for suspected opioid overdose during air medical transport? → Naloxone
4. Which antidysrhythmic drug is preferred for stable wide-complex tachycardia of uncertain origin during air transport? → Procainamide
5. During RSI in a patient with a suspected difficult airway, which backup airway device should be immediately available if intubation fails? → Supraglottic airway device (e.g., LMA or King LT)
6. What is the primary mechanism of action of ketamine when used for induction in the flight setting? → NMDA receptor antagonism
7. During transport of a septic patient, the flight nurse notes a central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mmHg. This finding is most consistent with: → Hypovolemia requiring fluid resuscitation
8. The base deficit on an arterial blood gas in a trauma patient is -10 mEq/L. This finding correlates with: → Severe metabolic acidosis indicating significant tissue hypoperfusion
9. A patient with known anaphylaxis requires epinephrine. What is the correct IM dose and site for an adult? → 0.3–0.5 mg in the anterolateral thigh
10. Lactate clearance of greater than 10% over 2 hours during resuscitation of a shock patient is significant because it indicates: → Adequate tissue reperfusion and response to resuscitative efforts
11. A trauma patient in Class IV hemorrhagic shock (>40% blood volume loss) will most likely present with: → Heart rate >140 bpm, negligible urine output, and loss of consciousness
12. Which cranial nerves on the list below control eye movement? → III, IV, VI
13. When titrating vasopressor therapy in a septic shock patient during air transport, the target MAP should be maintained at a minimum of: → 65 mmHg
14. Which drug class is used to treat alcohol withdrawal seizures and delirium tremens during transport? → Benzodiazepines
15. A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops sudden hypotension, urticaria, bronchospasm, and angioedema. The flight nurse's priority intervention is: → Administer epinephrine 0.3 mg IM to the lateral thigh
16. A patient receiving a heparin infusion develops acute HIT (Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia). Which action is the priority? → Discontinue all heparin and switch to argatroban or bivalirudin
17. Rocuronium is selected instead of succinylcholine for RSI. What reversal agent is available for rocuronium? → Sugammadex
18. According to the American College of Surgeons, Class III hemorrhagic shock is characterized by blood loss of approximately: → 1500–2000 mL (30–40% blood volume)
19. Which vasopressor is considered first-line for septic shock in the flight transport environment? → Norepinephrine
20. A diabetic patient transported by air has a blood glucose of 38 mg/dL and is unconscious. There is no IV access. What is the best immediate treatment? → Glucagon 1 mg IM
21. Which ventilator mode allows the patient to initiate breaths while the ventilator provides a set backup rate if the patient becomes apneic? → Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)
22. A transport patient with COPD has a PaCO2 of 78 mmHg and pH of 7.22. What ventilator adjustment addresses the respiratory acidosis? → Increase respiratory rate or tidal volume to increase minute ventilation
23. Which hemodynamic profile is most characteristic of cardiogenic shock? → High SVR, low CO, high PCWP
24. A shock index greater than 1.0 in an adult trauma patient indicates: → Significant hemodynamic compromise requiring aggressive intervention
25. In altitude physiology, what happens to air trapped in a pulmonary bulla as the aircraft ascends? → It expands due to decreased atmospheric pressure, risking rupture
26. A patient on CPAP via facemask vomits during transport. What is the immediate priority? → Remove the mask, suction the airway, and prepare for intubation if needed
27. A patient in the aircraft requires RSI. The flight nurse selects succinylcholine. Which contraindication should be assessed first? → Recent crush injury or burns
28. What is the maximum recommended cuff pressure for an endotracheal tube to prevent tracheal mucosal ischemia? → 20–30 cmH2O
29. Pulse pressure variation (PPV) greater than 13% in a mechanically ventilated patient in shock suggests: → Fluid responsiveness indicating preload dependence
30. What is the recommended tidal volume for lung-protective ventilation in a patient with ARDS during transport? → 6–8 mL/kg IBW