Certified Midwife Exam Prep Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Certified Midwife Exam Prep facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following best describes the midwife's role in evidence-based practice? → Integrating best research evidence with clinical expertise and client values
2. Which maternal position change is recommended first when late decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor? → Left lateral decubitus (left side-lying)
3. Which oral iron formulation contains the highest percentage of elemental iron and is often preferred for treating iron-deficiency anemia in pregnancy? → Ferrous fumarate
4. Which uterotonic agent is the first-line choice for active management of the third stage of labor according to WHO guidelines? → Oxytocin
5. Which document outlines the hallmarks and philosophy guiding certified midwifery practice in the U.S.? → The ACNM Philosophy of Midwifery
6. A midwifery practice wants to send appointment reminders via automated text messages. What is required for HIPAA compliance? → Patient written authorization and opt-in consent for SMS communication containing PHI
7. A client discloses intimate partner violence during a prenatal visit. The midwife's initial priority is to: → Ensure the client's immediate safety and provide resources
8. The ACNM Core Competencies serve which primary regulatory function? → They define the knowledge and skills expected of entry-level midwifery graduates
9. What is the consequence of non-compliance for Certified Midwife Exam Prep professionals? → Potential fines, license revocation, legal liability, and reputational damage
10. A newborn is born at 35 weeks gestation, weighing 2,100 g. Which complication is this infant at HIGHEST risk for compared to a full-term infant? → Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
11. Which maternal serum screening result pattern is most consistent with trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)? → Low AFP, low hCG, low estriol
12. Which postpartum client is at highest risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and requires thromboprophylaxis discussion? → G1P1, cesarean birth, BMI 38, varicose veins, smoker
13. A certified midwife in a hospital-based practice must credential through the hospital's medical staff office. What is the primary purpose of credentialing? → To verify competency and authorize specific clinical privileges
14. Which intervention is part of active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL)? → Administration of oxytocin after delivery of the anterior shoulder
15. A client at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden severe headache, visual disturbances, and BP of 160/110 mmHg. What is the priority intervention? → Administer magnesium sulfate IV and prepare for delivery
16. Under the Affordable Care Act, which provision most directly expanded access to certified midwife services in insurance plans? → Essential health benefits requirement including maternity care
17. Which finding is most consistent with polyhydramnios on ultrasound? → AFI of 22 cm
18. What is the recommended first-line treatment for mastitis in a breastfeeding patient without abscess? → Continue breastfeeding, antibiotics (dicloxacillin or cephalexin), and warm compresses
19. A certified midwife wants to prescribe controlled substances. What federal requirement must she fulfill in addition to state licensure? → Register with the DEA and obtain a DEA number
20. A midwife discovers she made a documentation error in a client's chart. What is the appropriate corrective action? → Draw a single line through the error, initial, date, and add a correction note
21. A patient at 26 weeks has a 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 152 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step? → Perform a 3-hour 100 g oral glucose tolerance test
22. A midwife discovers that a colleague consistently omits documentation of fetal heart rate assessments during labor. The MOST appropriate initial action is to: → Speak directly with the colleague to address the documentation gap
23. Which of them contains protein? → Fish
24. A client refuses a recommended intervention after being fully informed of the risks. The midwife should: → Document the informed refusal and continue to provide care
25. Which of the following is an example of selection bias in midwifery research? → Only low-risk women volunteer for a home birth study, skewing outcomes
26. A patient at 28 weeks is Rh-negative with an Rh-positive partner. Which intervention is indicated at this visit? → Anti-D (Rh) immunoglobulin 300 mcg IM
27. Which clinical finding is most consistent with endometritis in a postpartum patient? → Uterine tenderness, fever, and foul-smelling lochia
28. Which principle of the ACNM Code of Ethics requires midwives to act in the best interest of clients even when it conflicts with personal beliefs? → Beneficence
29. When a certified midwife identifies a clinical situation beyond her scope of practice, her primary obligation is to: → Immediately consult or refer to an appropriate provider
30. Which of the following is a contraindication to planned out-of-hospital birth that falls under the MANA Standards and Qualifications? → Active herpes simplex virus lesion at onset of labor