Certified Midwife Exam Prep Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Certified Midwife Exam Prep facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here โ€” free, no sign-up.

Certified Midwife Exam Prep exam key facts

  • The AMCB national certification exam for Certified Midwives has 175 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four options, and some unscored pretest items are mixed in. Source
  • The AMCB Certified Midwife certification exam has a four-hour time limit, and the clock keeps running during restroom breaks. Source
  • To pass the AMCB Certified Midwife certification exam you need a scaled score of 75 on a 0โ€“100 scale. Source
  • The AMCB Certified Midwife (CM) national certification exam fee is $425, which includes a $121 processing fee that is forfeited if you reschedule with PSI less than two business days before your appointment. Source
  • AMCB Certified Midwife (CM) certification is valid for 5 years and expires on December 31 of the relevant year. Source
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175 questions
240 min time limit
75.00% to pass
  1. Which maternal position change is recommended first when late decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor? โ†’ Left lateral decubitus (left side-lying)
  2. Which oral iron formulation contains the highest percentage of elemental iron and is often preferred for treating iron-deficiency anemia in pregnancy? โ†’ Ferrous fumarate
  3. Which uterotonic agent is the first-line choice for active management of the third stage of labor according to WHO guidelines? โ†’ Oxytocin
  4. What is the consequence of non-compliance for Certified Midwife Exam Prep professionals? โ†’ Potential fines, license revocation, legal liability, and reputational damage
  5. Which intervention is part of active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL)? โ†’ Administration of oxytocin after delivery of the anterior shoulder
  6. A client at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden severe headache, visual disturbances, and BP of 160/110 mmHg. What is the priority intervention? โ†’ Administer magnesium sulfate IV and prepare for delivery
  7. Which finding is most consistent with polyhydramnios on ultrasound? โ†’ AFI of 22 cm
  8. What is the recommended first-line treatment for mastitis in a breastfeeding patient without abscess? โ†’ Continue breastfeeding, antibiotics (dicloxacillin or cephalexin), and warm compresses
  9. Which of them contains protein? โ†’ Fish
  10. A patient at 28 weeks is Rh-negative with an Rh-positive partner. Which intervention is indicated at this visit? โ†’ Anti-D (Rh) immunoglobulin 300 mcg IM
  11. Which clinical finding is most consistent with endometritis in a postpartum patient? โ†’ Uterine tenderness, fever, and foul-smelling lochia
  12. What is the value of written documentation in Certified Midwife Exam Prep professional communication? โ†’ It creates permanent records, ensures clarity, and provides legal protection
  13. How do Certified Midwife Exam Prep professionals establish measurable quality objectives? โ†’ By defining specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound quality targets
  14. A clinodactyly patient will have one of the following: โ†’ bent or curved finger
  15. Which of these statements on Good Samaritan laws is accurate? โ†’ Free medical provider for all
  16. Which blood pressure reading meets the diagnostic threshold for gestational hypertension? โ†’ 140/90 mmHg on two occasions โ‰ฅ4 hours apart after 20 weeks
  17. A patient delivers and has an estimated blood loss of 600 mL after a vaginal birth. How is this classified? โ†’ Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
  18. How do Certified Midwife Exam Prep professionals evaluate research quality? โ†’ By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review status, and relevance to practice
  19. A postpartum patient with uterine atony is prescribed methylergonovine (Methergine). Which pre-existing condition is an absolute contraindication? โ†’ Hypertension
  20. A midwife documents a fetus in occiput posterior (OP) position at 38 weeks. Which maternal symptom is most commonly associated with this fetal position? โ†’ Intense back pain during contractions
  21. A patient in active labor has a Category II fetal heart rate tracing. What is the midwife's priority action? โ†’ Apply intrauterine resuscitation measures and continue monitoring
  22. Which mnemonic is used to identify the four most common causes of postpartum hemorrhage? โ†’ The 4 Ts (Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin)
  23. How do Certified Midwife Exam Prep professionals transfer knowledge from training to practice? โ†’ Through supervised practice, mentoring, gradual independence, and ongoing feedback
  24. Which of the following is not a side effect of pregnancy-related uncontrolled hypertension? โ†’ Pre-eclampsia
  25. Which breastfeeding position is most recommended for a patient recovering from a cesarean birth? โ†’ Football (clutch) hold
  26. Which herbal supplement is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its uterotonic properties? โ†’ Blue cohosh
  27. At what gestational age is Group B Streptococcus (GBS) vaginal-rectal culture routinely collected? โ†’ 35โ€“37 weeks
  28. How is the second stage of labor defined? โ†’ Complete cervical dilation to delivery of the fetus
  29. What role does active listening play in Certified Midwife Exam Prep practice? โ†’ It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes
  30. What does a baby's breech position indicate? โ†’ A baby's leg

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How this page was made: written with AI tools and published by Nathan Beja, founder of Practice Test Geeks, who is responsible for its content. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

  1. amcbmidwife.org โ€” Test delivery, eligibility, fees, exam format, renewal, score release, time limit, score validity, passing score, retake fee ยท verified Oct 2026