Mixed Deck — All CDM Topics Flashcards

For long-term prevention of diverticular disease when there is no active flare, which diet is generally recommended?

Answer: High-fiber diet with adequate fluids

Adequate fiber and fluid keep stools soft and lower pressure in the colon, which helps prevent diverticula from forming.

A dietary manager identifies that 15% of meal trays are delivered late. What is the correct first step in the QI process?

Answer: Define and accurately measure the scope of the problem

The first step in QI is to define and accurately measure the problem before developing or implementing any solutions.

At what minimum internal temperature must hot foods be held in a steam table during service?

Answer: 135°F

Hot foods must be held at 135°F (57°C) or above to remain outside the temperature danger zone during service per the FDA Food Code.

Which of the following is a primary advantage of a conventional food production system?

Answer: High degree of menu flexibility and perceived food quality.

In a conventional system, food is prepared and served in the same location, allowing for high control over ingredient quality and menu adaptability. This often leads to a perception of higher food quality.

The first step in equipment replacement is to:

Answer: develop equipment specifications.

The creation of equipment specifications, which are thorough descriptions of the equipment's requirements, is the initial stage of equipment replacement. This should include the dimensions, user features, power (gas, electricity, voltage), size or capacity, building materials, external finish, and required technologies. After the equipment requirements are finished, a cost-benefit analysis should be performed, which should include an estimate of the expenses associated with repairs, installation, and staff training. Depending on the kind of equipment, staffing needs could occasionally go up or down.

A renal diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease typically restricts which group of nutrients?

Answer: Potassium, phosphorus, and sodium

CKD diets restrict potassium, phosphorus, and sodium because impaired kidneys cannot adequately excrete these minerals, leading to dangerous accumulation.

What is the primary purpose of a nutrition screening upon hospital admission?

Answer: To identify patients at nutritional risk who need further assessment

Nutrition screening is a quick, initial process to identify patients at nutritional risk so they can be referred for comprehensive nutritional assessment by a registered dietitian.

While keeping an eye on the foodservice, the certified dietary manager (CDM) notes a delay in plating. The CDM discovers that the temperature ranges between 108 and 120 °F when randomly testing slices of the roast chicken that would be served. The ideal course of action is to?

Answer: reheat the meat to 165 °F.

The best course of action is to reheat the meat to 165 °F if the CDM is supervising foodservice and detects a delay in plating and discovers that the temperatures of pieces of roast chicken that are to be served range from 108 to 120 °F. Food should be served at a minimum temperature of 140 °F, but in order to safely reheat it and ensure that all germs are eliminated, it must be heated to a temperature of 165 °F.

Which budget type starts from zero each period and requires justification for every expense?

Answer: Zero-based budget

Zero-based budgeting requires managers to justify every line item from scratch each budget period, rather than simply adjusting the previous year's budget.

An ice machine's interior shows slime buildup. What is the best corrective action?

Answer: Clean and sanitize the machine per manufacturer instructions and record it

Ice machines are food-contact equipment and must be cleaned and sanitized per manufacturer schedules to prevent contamination.

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates the following if an employee has a foodborne illness that necessitates exclusion under the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) Food Code:

Answer: requires that effort be made to accommodate the employee.

The ADA demands that accommodations be offered for employees who have long-term disabilities brought on by foodborne illnesses that fall under the FDA Food Code. The ADA does not cover acute foodborne illnesses because they are typically short-lived conditions, but some foodborne illnesses can cause liver or kidney failure, in which case they are covered. If no suitable alternative position can be located and no modifications are made, the ADA does not require employers to keep the impaired employee in their position.

When documenting nutrition education in the medical record, what should the dietary manager include?

Answer: The topic, materials used, who was taught and how well the client understood

Complete documentation names who was taught, what topic was covered, which materials and methods were used, and how the client responded or showed understanding. That supports continuity of care and survey compliance.

According to the FDA Food Code, what is the maximum amount of time that a Time/Temperature Control for Safety (TCS) food can be held in the temperature danger zone before it must be discarded?

Answer: 4 hours

The FDA Food Code stipulates that TCS foods can be in the temperature danger zone (41°F to 135°F) for a maximum of four hours. After this time, the food must be discarded to prevent the growth of harmful bacteria to dangerous levels.

Which standards most commonly govern the installation and use of commercial cooking equipment in US healthcare food service?

Answer: NSF International standards and applicable local fire and building codes

NSF standards define equipment design and construction requirements, while local fire and building codes govern installation, clearance, and ventilation for commercial cooking equipment.

During a nutrition screen, a CDM notes a resident has experienced a 7% weight loss in the last 30 days. According to common guidelines, what is the next appropriate step?

Answer: Document the finding and refer the resident to the Registered Dietitian (RDN) for further assessment.

A significant unintentional weight loss, such as >5% in 30 days, is a major indicator of nutritional risk. The CDM's role is to identify and document this risk and then refer to the Registered Dietitian (RDN), who is qualified to perform a comprehensive assessment and determine the appropriate intervention.

A cook notices the walk-in cooler's door gasket is torn. What is the primary concern if it is not replaced promptly?

Answer: Loss of cold air, higher energy use, and unsafe food temperatures

Damaged gaskets let warm air enter, forcing the unit to work harder and risking temperatures above 41°F.

A dietary aide is receiving a shipment of fresh milk, which is a Time/Temperature Control for Safety (TCS) food. What is the most critical action to perform before accepting the delivery?

Answer: Verifying the milk's temperature is 41°F or below

For TCS foods, verifying that the product is at a safe temperature upon receipt is a critical control point (CCP) to prevent bacterial growth. If the milk is delivered above 41°F, it should be rejected. While checking dates and quantities is important, temperature control is the most critical step for food safety at the point of receiving.

A dietary manager lists every step, key point, and safety precaution for operating the tray line. This tool is called a:

Answer: Job breakdown (task analysis)

A job breakdown divides a task into sequential steps with key points and is used to build structured training.

Why does the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics favor liberalized diets for older adults in long-term care?

Answer: They improve food intake and quality of life while reducing malnutrition risk

Liberalized diets improve meal enjoyment and intake, which helps prevent unintended weight loss and malnutrition in older adults.

A dietary manager is developing a work schedule. The total number of hours to be worked by all staff in one week is 320. How many Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) does this represent, assuming a standard 40-hour workweek?

Answer: 8

A Full-Time Equivalent (FTE) is a unit that indicates the workload of an employed person. One FTE is typically equivalent to 40 hours per week. To calculate the number of FTEs, you divide the total hours worked by the number of hours in a full-time workweek (320 hours / 40 hours/FTE = 8 FTEs).