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Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies Flashcards

6 cards from real CEN practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient presents with severe unilateral pelvic pain that started suddenly, and ultrasound shows an enlarged ovary with absence of blood flow on Doppler. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Ovarian torsion

    Absent ovarian blood flow on Doppler ultrasound combined with an enlarged ovary and acute onset pelvic pain confirms ovarian torsion.

  2. A woman at 38 weeks presents in active labor and the fetal head is delivered but shoulders cannot be delivered. The obstetrician calls for help. What maneuver is performed first?

    Answer: McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure

    McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexion of the maternal thighs onto the abdomen) combined with suprapubic pressure is the first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia.

  3. A 22-year-old sexually active woman presents with a right adnexal mass, acute pelvic pain, and a negative pregnancy test. Doppler shows absent blood flow to the right ovary. What is the next step?

    Answer: Emergency surgical consultation for ovarian torsion

    Absent ovarian blood flow on Doppler in the setting of acute pain indicates ovarian torsion requiring emergency surgical consultation and operative detorsion.

  4. In a patient with severe preeclampsia, which antihypertensive agent is most commonly used IV to acutely lower blood pressure?

    Answer: Labetalol IV or hydralazine IV

    IV labetalol or IV hydralazine are the most commonly used agents for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy; ACE inhibitors are contraindicated.

  5. A 28-year-old presents with amenorrhea for 8 weeks, sudden lower abdominal pain, and a positive urine pregnancy test. A beta-hCG is 2500 mIU/mL with no intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound. What is the management?

    Answer: Methotrexate or surgical treatment for ectopic pregnancy

    An hCG of 2500 mIU/mL above the discriminatory zone with no IUP on TVUS is presumptive ectopic pregnancy requiring definitive treatment with methotrexate (if stable) or surgery.

  6. A patient in the third trimester develops epigastric pain, nausea, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs, and hemolysis. What syndrome is present?

    Answer: HELLP syndrome

    HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a severe variant of preeclampsia presenting with epigastric pain, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs, and microangiopathic hemolysis.