Certified Dementia Practitioner (CDP) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the main focus of behavioral management in dementia care?
- To suppress all emotional responses
- To punish undesirable behaviors
- To limit the individual’s social interactions
- To address and manage challenging behaviors effectively (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To address and manage challenging behaviors effectively
The main focus of behavioral management in dementia care is not to punish or suppress emotions, but to understand the underlying causes of challenging behaviors and develop strategies to manage them constructively. These behaviors often stem from unmet needs, confusion, or discomfort due to the disease's progression. Effective management aims to improve the individual's quality of life by reducing distress and promoting positive interactions.
Question 2: A person with dementia refuses to bathe and becomes combative when approached. The most appropriate initial intervention is to:
- Assess for pain, discomfort, or fear that may be driving the refusal (Correct answer)
- Ask a physician to prescribe a sedative before bathing
- Assign a different caregiver to try immediately after refusal
- Document refusal and skip bathing until the next scheduled day
Correct answer: Assess for pain, discomfort, or fear that may be driving the refusal
Identifying underlying causes such as pain, cold, or fear allows caregivers to modify the approach and reduce resistance during personal care.
Question 3: What is a common sign of dysphagia (swallowing difficulty) in dementia patients?
- Requesting extra portions
- Coughing or choking during meals (Correct answer)
- Eating very quickly
- Refusing only sweet foods
Correct answer: Coughing or choking during meals
Coughing or choking during eating is a primary indicator of swallowing dysfunction and aspiration risk.
Question 4: Which scenario represents a potential elder abuse situation requiring mandatory reporting by a CDP?
- A resident with dementia experiences a fall in their room
- A physician disagrees with the care plan
- A resident refuses their afternoon snack
- A family member yells at and threatens a resident with dementia during a visit (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A family member yells at and threatens a resident with dementia during a visit
Verbal threats and yelling directed at a vulnerable adult constitute emotional abuse and require mandatory reporting per state and federal law.
Question 5: A resident with dementia repeatedly asks for her deceased mother. The BEST response from a care practitioner is:
- Ignore the question to avoid reinforcing confusion
- Remind her that her mother died many years ago
- Suggest she call her mother on the phone
- Enter her reality and respond with empathy to her emotional need (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Enter her reality and respond with empathy to her emotional need
Entering the person's reality and responding to the underlying emotion is more therapeutic than correcting factual errors.
Question 6: Which strategy best supports communication with a person who has hearing loss in addition to dementia?
- Avoid communication when hearing aids are not in place
- Speak at a lower pitch with clear articulation while facing them directly in good light (Correct answer)
- Shout to overcome both conditions simultaneously
- Rely exclusively on written notes to bypass the hearing deficit
Correct answer: Speak at a lower pitch with clear articulation while facing them directly in good light
Lower pitch, clear articulation, and face-to-face positioning optimize lip-reading and residual hearing while minimizing distortion.
Question 7: A caregiver notices a resident becomes aggressive only during mealtime. The FIRST step in assessment should be to:
- Identify specific triggers occurring during or before meals (Correct answer)
- Request a psychiatric evaluation immediately
- Restrict the resident's diet to finger foods only
- Move the resident to a separate dining area permanently
Correct answer: Identify specific triggers occurring during or before meals
A systematic antecedent-behavior-consequence (ABC) analysis starts with identifying what specifically triggers the aggression before any intervention.
Question 8: A non-pharmacological first-line intervention for sleep disturbances in dementia includes:
- Increasing daytime physical activity and light exposure (Correct answer)
- Administering melatonin at high doses
- Prescribing benzodiazepines at bedtime
- Limiting fluid intake after noon
Correct answer: Increasing daytime physical activity and light exposure
Structured daytime activity and natural light exposure help regulate circadian rhythms and improve nighttime sleep.
Question 9: Five Wishes is best described as a:
- Federal government advance directive standardized across all 50 states
- Consumer-friendly advance directive that addresses medical, personal, emotional, and spiritual wishes (Correct answer)
- Physician-signed order set for hospice enrollment
- Financial power of attorney document for healthcare costs
Correct answer: Consumer-friendly advance directive that addresses medical, personal, emotional, and spiritual wishes
Five Wishes is a legally valid advance directive in most US states that goes beyond medical decisions to include personal comfort, relationship, and spiritual wishes in plain language.
Question 10: Which lighting intervention is most beneficial for persons with dementia to help regulate sleep-wake cycles?
- Complete darkness during daytime hours to encourage rest
- Dim, warm lighting maintained throughout the entire day
- Continuous fluorescent overhead lighting at all times
- Bright light therapy administered particularly in the morning hours (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Bright light therapy administered particularly in the morning hours
Bright light therapy, especially in the morning, helps regulate circadian rhythms in persons with dementia who often experience disrupted sleep-wake cycles.
Question 11: A caregiver asks how to respond when their spouse with dementia repeatedly asks 'When are we going home?' while already at home. The BEST approach is to:
- Document the behavior and report it as a psychiatric symptom
- Firmly remind them they are already home and point out familiar objects
- Distract them with a loud television program
- Explore the emotional need behind the question and offer reassurance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Explore the emotional need behind the question and offer reassurance
Exploring the emotional need — often a desire for safety or comfort — and providing reassurance addresses the feeling behind the question rather than correcting the person.
Question 12: The principle of justice in dementia care most directly relates to:
- Making decisions that benefit the care team's workflow
- Respecting the patient's right to refuse treatment
- Ensuring fair access to quality care regardless of a patient's race, gender, or financial status (Correct answer)
- Keeping all medical information confidential
Correct answer: Ensuring fair access to quality care regardless of a patient's race, gender, or financial status
Justice requires equitable distribution of care and resources without discrimination based on personal characteristics or socioeconomic status.
Question 13: What seating position is safest during meals for a person with swallowing difficulties?
- Lying flat with head slightly elevated
- Upright at 90 degrees in a chair (Correct answer)
- Reclined at 45 degrees in bed
- Standing at a counter
Correct answer: Upright at 90 degrees in a chair
An upright 90-degree position uses gravity to assist safe bolus transit through the esophagus.
Question 14: A caregiver reports that their father with dementia refuses to eat and has lost 10 pounds in 2 months. After ruling out medical causes, the BEST caregiver education strategy is to:
- Increase portion sizes at remaining meals to compensate
- Advise offering small, frequent meals of preferred foods with attention to texture and environment (Correct answer)
- Suggest skipping meals until the person expresses hunger
- Recommend a feeding tube immediately
Correct answer: Advise offering small, frequent meals of preferred foods with attention to texture and environment
Small, frequent offerings of preferred foods in a calm environment address sensory changes, appetite fluctuations, and swallowing issues common in dementia.
Question 15: Which verbal communication technique helps a person with dementia feel heard during a difficult moment?
- Presenting multiple solutions and asking them to choose
- Asking probing questions to clarify the nature of the problem
- Reflecting feelings back using simple language (e.g., 'You seem worried') (Correct answer)
- Offering logical explanations for why their belief is incorrect
Correct answer: Reflecting feelings back using simple language (e.g., 'You seem worried')
Reflecting emotions back using simple language demonstrates empathy and helps de-escalate distress.
Question 16: During morning care, a caregiver uses a calm voice, explains each step before performing it, and maintains eye contact. These actions collectively demonstrate:
- Person-centered communication to reduce care-related resistance (Correct answer)
- Procedural restraint techniques
- Standard infection control protocol
- Documentation of a behavioral care plan
Correct answer: Person-centered communication to reduce care-related resistance
Narrating care steps, using calm tone, and maintaining eye contact are evidence-based communication strategies that reduce anxiety and resistance during personal care.
Question 17: Why are individuals with dementia at increased risk for dehydration?
- They sweat more than others
- Their kidneys overhydrate them
- They lose the sensation of thirst (Correct answer)
- They drink too much fluid
Correct answer: They lose the sensation of thirst
Dementia impairs the brain's thirst sensation, making individuals unaware they need fluids.
Question 18: Which approach best supports eating independence in a person with moderate dementia?
- Offering only liquid nutrition supplements
- Restricting meals to one per day
- Providing finger foods they can self-feed (Correct answer)
- Spoon-feeding all meals to save time
Correct answer: Providing finger foods they can self-feed
Finger foods allow individuals to self-feed, preserving dignity and independence during meals.
Question 19: The TEACH-BACK method is used in caregiver education to:
- Teach caregivers how to physically transfer the person with dementia
- Have the educator repeat instructions multiple times to the caregiver
- Ask the caregiver to explain the information back in their own words to confirm understanding (Correct answer)
- Document that education was provided in the medical record
Correct answer: Ask the caregiver to explain the information back in their own words to confirm understanding
Teach-back confirms comprehension by having caregivers demonstrate or explain the information back, identifying gaps that need clarification.
Question 20: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) differs from other dementias primarily because it:
- Progresses very rapidly, often causing death within months to a year (Correct answer)
- Presents exclusively with motor symptoms and no cognitive decline
- Only affects people over age 85
- Is caused by a bacterial infection and is curable with antibiotics
Correct answer: Progresses very rapidly, often causing death within months to a year
CJD is a rapidly fatal prion disease with most patients dying within 4–6 months of symptom onset.
Question 21: What is a key indicator that a modified texture diet may need reassessment?
- Consistent weight gain and no choking episodes over 3 months (Correct answer)
- Staff find the diet inconvenient to prepare
- Family members express a preference for a different texture
- The person coughs occasionally at meals
Correct answer: Consistent weight gain and no choking episodes over 3 months
Sustained weight stability and absence of aspiration signs suggest the current texture may be more restrictive than needed, warranting reassessment.
Question 22: Which of the following is a sign of adequate hydration in a dementia resident?
- Pale yellow urine and moist mucous membranes (Correct answer)
- Swollen ankles and feet
- Frequent requests for water only at night
- Dark amber urine and dry lips
Correct answer: Pale yellow urine and moist mucous membranes
Pale yellow urine and moist mucous membranes are reliable clinical indicators of adequate fluid balance.
Question 23: Which professional should be consulted when a dementia patient shows signs of aspiration risk?
- Physical therapist
- Recreational therapist
- Social worker
- Speech-language pathologist (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Speech-language pathologist
Speech-language pathologists specialize in swallowing evaluation and management, including modified diet recommendations.
Question 24: A caregiver support group facilitator notices one member has been absent for three consecutive sessions after sharing that caregiving 'feels pointless.' The MOST appropriate response is to:
- Wait for the member to return on their own, respecting their autonomy
- Remove the member from the group roster to make room for others
- Reach out personally to check on the member's wellbeing and offer resources (Correct answer)
- Send a group email reminding all members of attendance expectations
Correct answer: Reach out personally to check on the member's wellbeing and offer resources
A personal outreach demonstrates care, allows assessment of the caregiver's mental health status, and connects them to appropriate support resources.
Question 25: What temperature range is generally recommended for dementia care environments to promote comfort and minimize agitation?
- 70–75°F (21–24°C) to maintain a comfortably warm setting (Correct answer)
- 60–65°F (15–18°C) to keep the environment cool and refreshing
- Variable temperatures throughout the day to stimulate environmental awareness
- 78–82°F (26–28°C) to compensate for reduced circulation in older adults
Correct answer: 70–75°F (21–24°C) to maintain a comfortably warm setting
A comfortable temperature of 70–75°F (21–24°C) helps prevent hypothermia common in older adults, reduces discomfort, and minimizes agitation related to temperature sensitivity.
Question 26: In the context of dementia care, 'responsive behaviors' is a preferred term because it:
- Describes behaviors that respond well to pharmacological treatment
- Is required by CMS for Medicaid reimbursement
- Is easier to document in electronic health records
- Frames behaviors as meaningful responses to unmet needs or environment, reducing stigma (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Frames behaviors as meaningful responses to unmet needs or environment, reducing stigma
The term 'responsive behaviors' acknowledges that the person is responding to something in their environment or internal state, shifting focus from managing symptoms to understanding and addressing needs.
Question 27: Which nonpharmacological intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing physical aggression during personal care in dementia?
- Person-centered, individualized care approaches with preferred music (Correct answer)
- Strict scheduling with no variation in routine
- Restraint use to prevent injury during care
- Limiting personal care to once weekly to reduce triggers
Correct answer: Person-centered, individualized care approaches with preferred music
Person-centered care combined with preferred music and individualized approaches has robust evidence for reducing aggression by decreasing anxiety and increasing cooperation.
Question 28: How should a dementia care practitioner respond to a resident who holds food in their mouth (pocketing)?
- Gently prompt swallowing and consult a speech therapist (Correct answer)
- Document the behavior and take no immediate action
- Increase the amount of food offered
- Switch the resident to a regular diet immediately
Correct answer: Gently prompt swallowing and consult a speech therapist
Pocketing is a swallowing safety concern that warrants immediate prompting and a speech-language pathology referral.
Question 29: A caregiver education program for dementia families should include information about anticipatory grief because:
- Families often begin grieving losses of abilities, personality, and relationship long before death occurs (Correct answer)
- It convinces families to place their loved one in memory care sooner
- Anticipatory grief only affects professional caregivers, not families
- It legally protects the care facility from future lawsuits
Correct answer: Families often begin grieving losses of abilities, personality, and relationship long before death occurs
Anticipatory grief in dementia caregiving involves mourning progressive losses of the person's abilities, identity, and the prior relationship throughout the disease course.
Question 30: Which factor is MOST important to assess when a person with dementia develops new-onset agitation?
- The staffing level on the unit during the incident
- The number of behavioral incidents in the past month
- Potential underlying physical causes such as pain, infection, or constipation (Correct answer)
- The person's premorbid personality traits
Correct answer: Potential underlying physical causes such as pain, infection, or constipation
New-onset behavioral changes often signal an underlying physical problem; ruling out pain, infection, urinary retention, or constipation is the essential first step.
Question 31: When someone with dementia exhibits sundowning with increased confusion in the late afternoon, the BEST communication strategy is:
- Increase social activity to distract from the confusional state
- Administer PRN sedation before attempting communication
- Simplify interactions, use a calm routine, and reduce environmental stimulation (Correct answer)
- Introduce complex orienting information to reground them in reality
Correct answer: Simplify interactions, use a calm routine, and reduce environmental stimulation
Simplified interactions and reduced stimulation align with the person's reduced capacity during sundowning periods.
Question 32: A person with Lewy body dementia experiences vivid visual hallucinations. The CDP's best behavioral approach is to:
- Insist the hallucinations are not real and prove it logically
- Avoid arguing; assess for distress and respond to the emotional experience (Correct answer)
- Dim all room lighting to reduce visual stimuli causing hallucinations
- Immediately report the symptom as a psychiatric emergency
Correct answer: Avoid arguing; assess for distress and respond to the emotional experience
Visual hallucinations in Lewy body dementia are neurologically driven; engaging with the emotional response without confrontation reduces distress.
Question 33: A person with dementia repeatedly asks to 'go home' even while at home. Which response reflects best practice?
- Remind them firmly they are already home
- Explain their memory problem to help them understand
- Redirect them to a different room to change their focus
- Explore the feeling behind the request and offer comfort (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Explore the feeling behind the request and offer comfort
The 'go home' request often reflects an emotional need for safety or familiarity, so exploring feelings and providing comfort is more therapeutic than correcting or redirecting.
Question 34: When teaching caregivers about pain recognition in a non-verbal person with late-stage dementia, the CDP should recommend using:
- Self-report pain scales like the numeric 0-10 scale
- Only vital signs to infer pain levels
- Assuming the person has no pain since they cannot report it
- Behavioral observation tools such as the PAINAD scale (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Behavioral observation tools such as the PAINAD scale
The PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) scale uses behavioral observations including breathing, vocalization, and facial expression to assess pain in non-verbal individuals.
Question 35: A caregiver education session on legal planning for dementia should PRIORITIZE which document as MOST urgent to establish early in the disease?
- A last will and testament
- A DNR order completed by the family
- A letter of guardianship signed by the caregiver
- Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare while the person still has decision-making capacity (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare while the person still has decision-making capacity
A Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare must be executed while the person retains legal capacity, making early establishment critical before cognitive decline progresses.
Question 36: Which of the following represents an example of SECONDARY caregiver stress?
- A caregiver's marriage deteriorating due to caregiving demands affecting the spousal relationship (Correct answer)
- Physical fatigue from assisting with transfers
- Sleep disruption from monitoring the person at night
- Increased grocery expenses for special dietary foods
Correct answer: A caregiver's marriage deteriorating due to caregiving demands affecting the spousal relationship
Secondary stress refers to life areas outside direct caregiving that deteriorate as a result of caregiving demands, such as damaged relationships or career setbacks.
Question 37: Which pain assessment tool is most appropriate for a nonverbal person with advanced dementia who displays agitated behaviors?
- Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
- McGill Pain Questionnaire
- Numeric Rating Scale (NRS)
- PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia)
PAINAD is validated specifically for nonverbal individuals with advanced dementia, assessing behavioral and physiological indicators of pain that may present as agitation.
Question 38: Which of the following statements about cultural competence in caregiver education is MOST accurate?
- Western dementia care models should be applied universally regardless of cultural background
- Cultural competence means translating all materials into different languages only
- Cultural values significantly influence help-seeking behavior, role expectations, and attitudes toward dementia diagnosis (Correct answer)
- All families from the same cultural background share identical caregiving beliefs and practices
Correct answer: Cultural values significantly influence help-seeking behavior, role expectations, and attitudes toward dementia diagnosis
Cultural background shapes beliefs about dementia, family roles, stigma, and appropriate care responses, requiring individualized, culturally humble assessment and education.
Question 39: Why is patient safety a key consideration in dementia care?
- To speed up the rehabilitation process
- To reduce the cost of care
- To improve the overall appearance of care facilities
- To prevent harm and ensure dignity and respect (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To prevent harm and ensure dignity and respect
Patient safety is a fundamental ethical and practical consideration in dementia care because individuals with cognitive impairments are often vulnerable to accidents, falls, and exploitation. Ensuring safety involves creating a secure environment, minimizing risks, and protecting them from harm. This commitment to safety directly upholds their dignity and respect by allowing them to live in an environment where their well-being is prioritized.
Question 40: Which of the following is a validated tool specifically designed to measure caregiver burden in dementia caregiving?
- Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
- Cornell Scale for Depression in Dementia
- Zarit Burden Interview (ZBI) (Correct answer)
- Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
Correct answer: Zarit Burden Interview (ZBI)
The Zarit Burden Interview is a validated 22-item scale widely used to assess subjective caregiver burden in dementia care settings.
Question 41: When a person with dementia refuses a bath, the ethical principle of autonomy requires the care team to:
- Respect the refusal, attempt alternative hygiene approaches, and document the interaction (Correct answer)
- Medicate the patient so they comply with the bath
- Force the bath immediately to maintain hygiene
- Notify the family and wait indefinitely before attempting hygiene care
Correct answer: Respect the refusal, attempt alternative hygiene approaches, and document the interaction
Autonomy requires respecting refusals while creatively problem-solving alternative hygiene approaches and documenting all attempts.
Question 42: A caregiver support group member states: 'I sometimes wish it would just be over.' The CDP facilitator should FIRST:
- Ignore the comment to avoid embarrassing the caregiver in the group
- Ask the member to leave the group to protect other members
- Immediately call 911 without asking further questions
- Explore the statement further to assess whether it reflects exhaustion, grief, or suicidal ideation (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Explore the statement further to assess whether it reflects exhaustion, grief, or suicidal ideation
Ambiguous statements require compassionate, direct follow-up to distinguish normal caregiver grief and exhaustion from active suicidal ideation before determining next steps.
Question 43: How can caregivers manage anxiety in individuals with dementia?
- By reducing the amount of personal interaction
- By increasing exposure to stressful situations
- By maintaining routines and providing emotional support (Correct answer)
- By avoiding any form of communication
Correct answer: By maintaining routines and providing emotional support
Individuals with dementia often experience anxiety due to confusion, memory loss, and difficulty processing new information. Maintaining consistent routines provides a predictable and stable environment, which can reduce uncertainty and feelings of being overwhelmed. Coupled with emotional support, such as reassurance and empathy, these strategies help create a sense of security and comfort, thereby alleviating anxiety.
Question 44: In which stage of dementia does hospice eligibility typically become appropriate, based on standard clinical criteria?
- Late Stage 7 with complications such as aspiration pneumonia or sepsis (Correct answer)
- Early severe dementia
- Mild cognitive impairment
- Moderate dementia
Correct answer: Late Stage 7 with complications such as aspiration pneumonia or sepsis
Hospice eligibility for dementia generally requires GDS/FAST Stage 7 plus one or more serious complications such as aspiration pneumonia, septicemia, or multiple pressure injuries.
Question 45: In dementia care, 'life story work' improves communication primarily by:
- Giving caregivers knowledge of personal references that can bridge connection and calm (Correct answer)
- Replacing all other communication strategies with biography-based conversation
- Providing a legal record of the person's prior competency
- Training family members to correct false memories using historical facts
Correct answer: Giving caregivers knowledge of personal references that can bridge connection and calm
Knowledge of a person's life story gives caregivers access to meaningful topics, names, and references that resonate and build trust.
Question 46: Which approach to repetitive questioning in dementia is LEAST therapeutic?
- Repeatedly correcting the person and reminding them they already asked (Correct answer)
- Answering calmly each time as if the question is new
- Exploring the emotion or need that may underlie the repeated question
- Using a memory aid such as a written note to help the person self-answer
Correct answer: Repeatedly correcting the person and reminding them they already asked
Repeatedly correcting a person with dementia for asking the same question causes frustration and shame without improving recall, as the deficit is a memory impairment, not inattention.
Question 47: Which floor color is typically avoided in dementia care settings because it may be perceived as a void or hole?
- Black (Correct answer)
- Beige or tan
- Dark brown
- Light gray
Correct answer: Black
Black flooring can be perceived by persons with dementia as a hole or void due to visual-perceptual changes, causing them to stop walking or attempt to avoid it, increasing fall risk.
Question 48: Which environmental modification can improve food intake in dementia care?
- Reducing meal frequency to two times per day
- Using high-contrast plates to distinguish food from background (Correct answer)
- Serving meals in brightly lit noisy rooms
- Presenting multiple dishes simultaneously
Correct answer: Using high-contrast plates to distinguish food from background
High-contrast dishware helps individuals with visual-perceptual deficits identify and locate food on the plate.
Question 49: Which feature of the physical environment MOST directly supports verbal communication with a person who has dementia and hearing loss?
- Proximity of the care partner combined with reduced background noise (Correct answer)
- Soft carpeting and drapes to absorb echo
- Overhead speakers playing soft classical music
- Brightly colored walls to maintain alertness
Correct answer: Proximity of the care partner combined with reduced background noise
Physical closeness and a quiet environment maximize the auditory signal available to a person with combined hearing loss and dementia.
Question 50: Which stage of the Global Deterioration Scale (GDS) is MOST associated with the need for 24-hour supervised care due to inability to perform basic ADLs independently?
- Stage 6 (Correct answer)
- Stage 3
- Stage 4
- Stage 5
Correct answer: Stage 6
GDS Stage 6 is characterized by severe cognitive decline requiring assistance with basic ADLs such as bathing, dressing, and toileting, necessitating constant supervision.
Question 51: Which document specifically designates a trusted person to make healthcare decisions when an individual lacks decision-making capacity?
- Living will
- POLST form
- Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare (Correct answer)
- Do-Not-Resuscitate order
Correct answer: Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare
A Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare (Healthcare Proxy) legally designates a surrogate to make medical decisions on behalf of someone who has lost decision-making capacity.
Question 52: A CDP practitioner notices a resident with Lewy body dementia has marked fluctuations in alertness — appearing very confused one hour and lucid the next. This pattern is:
- Consistent only with delirium, not dementia
- A sign the resident is in the terminal stage
- Indicative of malingering
- A core diagnostic feature of dementia with Lewy bodies (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A core diagnostic feature of dementia with Lewy bodies
Fluctuating cognition with pronounced variations in attention and alertness is one of the four core features of dementia with Lewy bodies.
Question 53: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Communication Strategies, what should a CDP professional prioritize?
- The preference of the client or stakeholder
- Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)
- The most cost-effective solution available
- Strict adherence to written procedures without exception
Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
Safety and ethics always take priority in Communication Strategies. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.
Question 54: What is the purpose of a 'Safe Return' program such as the Alzheimer's Association's MedicAlert program?
- To register persons with dementia so they can be identified and returned if found (Correct answer)
- To monitor medication compliance in community settings
- To provide financial assistance for memory care placement
- To alert families when a care facility reports a fall
Correct answer: To register persons with dementia so they can be identified and returned if found
Safe Return/MedicAlert programs provide identification bracelets and a registry to help locate and return wandering individuals.
Question 55: A person with Lewy body dementia experiences vivid, frightening visual hallucinations. The caregiver's SAFEST response is to:
- Increase room lighting and leave the person alone to self-settle
- Administer a typical antipsychotic as ordered
- Remain calm, acknowledge the experience, and offer reassurance (Correct answer)
- Argue that the hallucination is not real to ground the person
Correct answer: Remain calm, acknowledge the experience, and offer reassurance
Remaining calm and validating the person's fear without agreeing the hallucination is real is the safest approach; typical antipsychotics are contraindicated in Lewy body dementia due to severe sensitivity reactions.
Question 56: Which of the following best describes the 'unmet needs model' of behavioral symptoms in dementia?
- Behaviors result from deliberate attempts to manipulate caregivers
- Behaviors are random neurological events with no identifiable trigger
- Behaviors communicate unmet physical, psychological, or social needs that the person cannot express verbally (Correct answer)
- Behavioral symptoms are directly caused by amyloid plaque accumulation
Correct answer: Behaviors communicate unmet physical, psychological, or social needs that the person cannot express verbally
The unmet needs model, foundational to dementia care, proposes that behavioral symptoms are the person's attempt to communicate needs — such as pain, hunger, loneliness, or fear — that they can no longer express in words.
Question 57: What is the significance of a 'wandering pathway' or 'walking loop' in a memory care unit design?
- It limits resident access to certain areas of the facility for safety
- It designates a specific area where wandering behavior is monitored and documented
- It provides a safe, continuous walking route that meets the need for movement without dead ends (Correct answer)
- It creates a physical barrier between wandering residents and other unit areas
Correct answer: It provides a safe, continuous walking route that meets the need for movement without dead ends
Walking loops give residents a continuous, safe path that satisfies the urge to walk without leading to exits or hazardous dead ends.
Question 58: A resident with dementia becomes sexually disinhibited and makes inappropriate comments to staff. The most appropriate response is to:
- Ignore the behavior entirely to avoid embarrassing the resident
- Recognize it as a symptom of dementia, redirect calmly, and document the behavior for care planning (Correct answer)
- Scold the resident harshly to discourage the behavior
- Isolate the resident from communal activities permanently
Correct answer: Recognize it as a symptom of dementia, redirect calmly, and document the behavior for care planning
Sexual disinhibition is a recognized neurological symptom of dementia; calm redirection, documentation, and care planning are the ethical and clinical responses.
Question 59: Which thickener consistency is typically ordered for a person with mild dysphagia according to IDDSI standards?
- Regular thin liquids (IDDSI Level 0)
- Minced and moist (IDDSI Level 5)
- Slightly thick (IDDSI Level 1) (Correct answer)
- Extremely thick (IDDSI Level 4)
Correct answer: Slightly thick (IDDSI Level 1)
IDDSI Level 1 (slightly thick) is prescribed for mild swallowing difficulties to slow flow without major texture change.
Question 60: A spouse caregiver refuses all outside help, stating 'I promised to take care of her myself.' This behavior MOST likely reflects:
- Cultural or personal values around marital duty combined with possible lack of trust in others (Correct answer)
- Early signs of the spouse developing cognitive impairment
- Financial concerns about the cost of outside help
- An appropriate and sustainable caregiving strategy
Correct answer: Cultural or personal values around marital duty combined with possible lack of trust in others
Refusal of help often stems from deeply held beliefs about spousal duty, cultural norms, or distrust, requiring sensitive exploration rather than immediate override.
Question 61: When a caregiver asks about using GPS tracking devices for a person with dementia who wanders, the CDP should explain that:
- They can be useful safety tools but should be accompanied by discussion of privacy, consent, and dignity considerations (Correct answer)
- These devices are only appropriate in memory care facilities
- GPS devices replace the need for all other wandering prevention strategies
- GPS devices are illegal for use without court approval
Correct answer: They can be useful safety tools but should be accompanied by discussion of privacy, consent, and dignity considerations
GPS devices offer valuable safety benefits for wandering prevention but require thoughtful consideration of the person's remaining autonomy, privacy, and dignity.
Question 62: What documentation practice is considered essential in Person-Centered Care Approaches within the Certified Dementia Practitioner field?
- Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible (Correct answer)
- Completing all documentation at the end of the workday
- Using shorthand notes that can be expanded later if needed
- Only documenting unusual events or complications
Correct answer: Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible
Real-time or near-real-time documentation in Person-Centered Care Approaches ensures accuracy, provides a contemporaneous record, and is considered the gold standard for professional accountability and legal defensibility.
Question 63: A resident with moderate dementia begins hoarding food in their room. The most appropriate response is to:
- Lock the dining room to prevent unauthorized food access
- Explore the underlying anxiety and offer reassurance and small snacks (Correct answer)
- Administer anti-anxiety medication before each meal
- Document as noncompliance and restrict dessert privileges
Correct answer: Explore the underlying anxiety and offer reassurance and small snacks
Hoarding often stems from fear of food scarcity or lack of control; addressing the emotional need with reassurance and safe snack access is most effective.
Question 64: Which of the following is a hallmark sign of the active dying phase in a person with advanced dementia?
- Heightened social responsiveness
- Increased appetite and fluid intake
- Mottled skin, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, and peripheral cooling (Correct answer)
- Bradypnea with normal oxygen saturation
Correct answer: Mottled skin, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, and peripheral cooling
Mottled skin (livedo reticularis), Cheyne-Stokes (irregular) breathing, and cooling of the extremities are classic physical signs indicating the body is actively shutting down.
Question 65: How does risk management apply to daily practice in Caregiver Education & Support for Certified Dementia Practitioner professionals?
- Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures (Correct answer)
- Through annual safety audits exclusively
- Only through responding to incidents after they occur
- By avoiding high-risk situations entirely
Correct answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures
Effective risk management in Caregiver Education & Support requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.
Question 66: What documentation practice is considered essential in Behavioral Symptom Management within the Certified Dementia Practitioner field?
- Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible (Correct answer)
- Only documenting unusual events or complications
- Using shorthand notes that can be expanded later if needed
- Completing all documentation at the end of the workday
Correct answer: Recording actions, observations, and outcomes in real-time or as close to the event as possible
Real-time or near-real-time documentation in Behavioral Symptom Management ensures accuracy, provides a contemporaneous record, and is considered the gold standard for professional accountability and legal defensibility.
Question 67: A family caregiver reports feeling isolated and overwhelmed after 18 months of caring for a parent with dementia. Which community resource BEST addresses both social isolation and caregiver burnout?
- Respite care combined with a caregiver support group (Correct answer)
- Increasing the person's medication dosage
- Moving the person to a memory care facility immediately
- Hiring a home health aide only on weekends
Correct answer: Respite care combined with a caregiver support group
Respite care provides temporary relief while a support group addresses isolation through peer connection and shared experiences.
Question 68: When a person with dementia asks repeatedly for a deceased spouse, the BEST response is to:
- Enter their reality and respond with empathy (Correct answer)
- Ignore the question to avoid reinforcing the behavior
- Correct them firmly and show the death certificate
- Redirect with a loud noise or clapping
Correct answer: Enter their reality and respond with empathy
Entering the person's reality and responding with empathy validates their emotional experience without causing distress.
Question 69: A resident with advanced dementia develops aspiration pneumonia. Under a palliative care approach, the primary treatment goal would be:
- Aggressive antibiotic therapy to cure the infection
- Comfort measures including oral care, positioning, and symptom management (Correct answer)
- Transfer to ICU for ventilator support
- Immediate surgical consultation
Correct answer: Comfort measures including oral care, positioning, and symptom management
Palliative care in advanced dementia focuses on relieving symptoms—pain, dyspnea, secretions—rather than curative treatment, as aggressive interventions rarely improve outcomes.
Question 70: In Types & Stages of Dementia, what is the FIRST step a CDP professional should take when encountering a new case or situation?
- Consult with a supervisor before taking any action
- Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information (Correct answer)
- Implement an immediate solution based on past experience
- Document the situation and wait for further instructions
Correct answer: Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
In Types & Stages of Dementia, a thorough initial assessment ensures all relevant factors are identified before deciding on an appropriate course of action. This systematic approach is fundamental to Certified Dementia Practitioner practice.
Question 71: A new staff member is observed speaking loudly and slowly to a resident with dementia in an infantilizing tone (elderspeak). The CDP should:
- Ignore it as elderspeak does not cause patient harm
- Ask the resident's family to address the communication style with the staff member
- Provide education on respectful communication and model appropriate interaction techniques (Correct answer)
- Report the staff member for abuse immediately without any education
Correct answer: Provide education on respectful communication and model appropriate interaction techniques
Elderspeak undermines dignity and has been shown to increase behavioral symptoms; education and modeling are the appropriate first interventions.
Question 72: Why is offering food choices important for a person with mid-stage dementia?
- It slows down meal service unnecessarily
- It creates confusion and should be avoided
- It supports autonomy and may increase willingness to eat (Correct answer)
- It is only relevant in early-stage dementia
Correct answer: It supports autonomy and may increase willingness to eat
Offering limited, simple choices preserves a sense of control and personal preference, improving mealtime engagement.
Question 73: An adult child caregiver is caring for a parent with moderate dementia while working full-time and raising young children. This situation is referred to as:
- The sandwich generation dilemma (Correct answer)
- Dual caregiving syndrome
- Caregiver role entrapment
- Compassion fatigue cascade
Correct answer: The sandwich generation dilemma
The 'sandwich generation' refers to adults simultaneously caring for aging parents and raising their own children, often while managing work responsibilities.
Question 74: Which statement best reflects a trauma-informed approach to end-of-life care for a veteran with dementia?
- Request discharge paperwork before beginning palliative care planning
- Mandate group therapy sessions with other veterans
- Acknowledge service, screen for PTSD history, and tailor care to minimize triggers while honoring their experience (Correct answer)
- Avoid all discussion of military service to prevent triggering distress
Correct answer: Acknowledge service, screen for PTSD history, and tailor care to minimize triggers while honoring their experience
Trauma-informed care for veterans involves honoring service, being alert to PTSD triggers (e.g., suctioning, restraints), and individualizing the environment to promote safety and dignity.
Question 75: When a person with dementia has no advance directive and no family, the decision-making authority typically transfers to:
- A court-appointed guardian or, if unavailable, the attending physician following institutional ethics protocols (Correct answer)
- Any available staff member who knew the resident
- The facility administrator
- The hospice nurse as primary caregiver
Correct answer: A court-appointed guardian or, if unavailable, the attending physician following institutional ethics protocols
Without an advance directive or surrogate, a court-appointed guardian assumes decision-making authority; absent that, the attending physician follows state law and institutional ethics committee guidance.
Question 76: What does the term 'responsive behavior' emphasize that the term 'challenging behavior' does not?
- That behaviors are random and unpredictable in dementia
- That challenging behaviors require immediate pharmacological intervention
- That behaviors are responses to unmet needs, pain, or environmental stressors (Correct answer)
- That caregivers should respond by using physical redirection
Correct answer: That behaviors are responses to unmet needs, pain, or environmental stressors
The term 'responsive behavior' reframes difficult behaviors as meaningful communications of unmet needs rather than problems to be controlled.
Question 77: When educating caregivers about communication with a person in late-stage dementia who has lost verbal ability, which approach should be emphasized?
- Cease all communication attempts since the person cannot understand
- Use nonverbal communication including touch, eye contact, facial expression, and tone of voice (Correct answer)
- Speak only to other staff or family members in the person's presence
- Focus exclusively on written communication boards
Correct answer: Use nonverbal communication including touch, eye contact, facial expression, and tone of voice
Nonverbal communication — touch, facial expression, tone, and eye contact — remains meaningful and connective even when verbal comprehension is severely impaired.
Question 78: Which practice best preserves the dignity of a person with dementia during assisted feeding?
- Standing over the person and feeding as quickly as possible
- Talking loudly to keep the person alert during meals
- Using a bib that covers the entire torso without consent
- Sitting at eye level, offering small bites, and following the person's pace (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sitting at eye level, offering small bites, and following the person's pace
Eye-level positioning, small bites, and respecting pace demonstrate respect and create a calm, safe mealtime environment.
Question 79: Which factor most significantly increases the risk of elopement in a person with dementia?
- Presence of a live-in caregiver
- Advanced age above 85
- History of previous elopement attempts (Correct answer)
- Diagnosis of vascular dementia specifically
Correct answer: History of previous elopement attempts
A history of prior elopement is the strongest predictor of future elopement attempts.
Question 80: Which statement about the use of antipsychotic medications for behavioral symptoms of dementia is most accurate?
- They are required before non-pharmacological interventions are attempted
- They carry a black-box warning for increased mortality risk in elderly patients with dementia (Correct answer)
- They are FDA-approved as first-line treatment for dementia-related agitation
- They have no significant side effects in older adults
Correct answer: They carry a black-box warning for increased mortality risk in elderly patients with dementia
The FDA issued a black-box warning that antipsychotics increase the risk of death in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis.
Question 81: Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of 'shadowing' as a behavioral symptom in dementia?
- A person repeating the same verbal phrase in response to any caregiver question
- A nighttime behavior of wandering through darkened hallways
- A person with dementia mimicking other residents' behaviors in group settings
- Constantly following and imitating the primary caregiver, driven by fear of abandonment or anxiety (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Constantly following and imitating the primary caregiver, driven by fear of abandonment or anxiety
Shadowing involves the person with dementia persistently following their caregiver, reflecting heightened anxiety, insecurity, and the need for a reliable attachment figure due to cognitive decline.
Question 82: A dementia practitioner notices that a resident who enjoyed cooking becomes more alert during kitchen-based simulated activities. This is best explained by which concept?
- Recency effect in memory
- Spaced retrieval training
- Preserved procedural and implicit memory linked to overlearned occupational roles (Correct answer)
- Retrograde amnesia reversal
Correct answer: Preserved procedural and implicit memory linked to overlearned occupational roles
Familiar occupational tasks engage procedural and implicit memory systems that are more resilient to Alzheimer's-related neurodegeneration.
Question 83: What does the term 'least restrictive alternative' mean in dementia care regulations?
- Restricting all activities to prevent falls
- Using the intervention that limits freedom the least while still ensuring safety (Correct answer)
- Applying physical restraints before trying other strategies
- Allowing all behaviors without any intervention
Correct answer: Using the intervention that limits freedom the least while still ensuring safety
Regulations require that care interventions impose the minimum necessary restriction on a person's freedom while addressing safety needs.
Question 84: Which of the following best describes 'catastrophic reaction' in dementia?
- A planned behavioral response to caregiver refusal
- A sudden, disproportionate emotional outburst in response to a minor stressor (Correct answer)
- A slow, progressive worsening of agitation over several days
- Persistent crying that lasts more than two hours
Correct answer: A sudden, disproportionate emotional outburst in response to a minor stressor
A catastrophic reaction is a sudden, intense emotional or behavioral response triggered by an overwhelming stimulus or demand that exceeds the person's reduced coping capacity.
Question 85: How long should a person with dementia remain upright after eating to reduce aspiration risk?
- At least 30 minutes (Correct answer)
- 5 minutes
- 2 hours
- Only until they feel uncomfortable
Correct answer: At least 30 minutes
Remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after meals reduces gastroesophageal reflux and aspiration risk.
Question 86: When should a dementia care team hold a family meeting specifically about nutrition?
- When significant unintentional weight loss or feeding difficulties emerge (Correct answer)
- Only when the family requests a meeting
- During the annual care plan review regardless of nutritional status
- When the person expresses verbal satisfaction with meals
Correct answer: When significant unintentional weight loss or feeding difficulties emerge
Significant weight loss or new feeding difficulties trigger an urgent interdisciplinary and family discussion to align care goals.
Question 87: Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Caregiver Education & Support?
- Using the most advanced technology available regardless of need
- Minimizing documentation to focus on practical work
- Strictly adhering to the same procedure in every situation
- Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
Evidence-based protocols provide a foundation of proven practices, but effective Certified Dementia Practitioner professionals must also adapt their approach based on specific circumstances and individual case needs within Caregiver Education & Support.
Question 88: In end-of-life dementia care, which intervention is evidence-based for managing dyspnea in a non-intubated patient?
- High-flow oxygen via face mask in all cases
- Incentive spirometry every two hours
- Low-dose oral or IV opioids titrated to comfort (Correct answer)
- Nebulized bronchodilators as first-line treatment
Correct answer: Low-dose oral or IV opioids titrated to comfort
Low-dose opioids reduce the sensation of breathlessness and are the evidence-based first-line treatment for dyspnea in palliative and hospice settings.
Question 89: The primary goal of structured behavioral observation charting is to:
- Comply with state inspection requirements only
- Identify patterns to inform individualized intervention strategies (Correct answer)
- Justify billing for additional nursing services
- Reduce caregiver workload by delegating documentation
Correct answer: Identify patterns to inform individualized intervention strategies
Systematic behavioral charting reveals frequency, duration, and contextual patterns that enable care teams to design targeted, evidence-based interventions.
Question 90: Which risk factor is MOST strongly associated with the development of vascular dementia?
- Deficiency of vitamin B12
- Genetic mutation in the APP gene
- Uncontrolled hypertension and cardiovascular disease (Correct answer)
- History of head trauma
Correct answer: Uncontrolled hypertension and cardiovascular disease
Vascular dementia results from reduced blood flow to the brain, and uncontrolled hypertension is the most significant modifiable risk factor.
Question 91: Which principle underpins the Progressively Lowered Stress Threshold (PLST) model developed by Hall and Buckwalter?
- Behavioral symptoms worsen only when medications are reduced
- Stress threshold is unrelated to the stage of dementia
- Persons with dementia can tolerate progressively more stimulation as care improves
- As dementia advances, the threshold for experiencing stress lowers, requiring reduced environmental demands (Correct answer)
Correct answer: As dementia advances, the threshold for experiencing stress lowers, requiring reduced environmental demands
The PLST model posits that as cognition declines, the amount of stress a person can tolerate before exhibiting behavioral symptoms progressively decreases.
Question 92: What is the recommended first-line strategy when a person with dementia refuses meals?
- Insist on eating by firmly repeating requests
- Offer small, frequent snacks throughout the day (Correct answer)
- Immediately initiate a feeding tube evaluation
- Document refusal and withhold the next meal
Correct answer: Offer small, frequent snacks throughout the day
Small, frequent snack offerings accommodate reduced appetite and variable engagement while maintaining caloric intake.
Question 93: The SBAR communication framework is used in dementia care primarily to:
- Train family members in communication techniques
- Structure conversations directly with residents
- Document behavioral changes in the medical record
- Communicate clinical information clearly between care team members (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Communicate clinical information clearly between care team members
SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) standardizes hand-off communication between healthcare providers.
Question 94: Which pathological hallmark differentiates Alzheimer's disease from other dementias at autopsy?
- Amyloid beta plaques and neurofibrillary tau tangles (Correct answer)
- Prion plaques throughout the cortex
- Cortical Lewy bodies without tau pathology
- TDP-43 protein inclusions
Correct answer: Amyloid beta plaques and neurofibrillary tau tangles
The definitive neuropathological diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease requires the presence of both amyloid beta neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles composed of hyperphosphorylated tau.
Question 95: A memory care unit implements a 'walking club' as a wandering prevention strategy. What is the PRIMARY therapeutic rationale?
- To improve cardiovascular fitness in older adults with dementia
- To tire residents so they sleep through the night
- To reduce staffing requirements during high-risk periods
- To provide structured, supervised outlets for the need to walk and explore (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To provide structured, supervised outlets for the need to walk and explore
Structured walking programs honor the need for movement while providing supervision that prevents unsafe elopement.
Question 96: When a caregiver expresses guilt about placing their loved one in a memory care community, the MOST therapeutic response from a CDP is to:
- Reassure them that the feeling will pass quickly once they adjust
- Acknowledge the complexity of their feelings and explore the values and circumstances that led to the decision (Correct answer)
- Remind them that guilt means they made the wrong decision
- Validate their decision by listing all the reasons the placement was necessary
Correct answer: Acknowledge the complexity of their feelings and explore the values and circumstances that led to the decision
Acknowledging the emotional complexity of placement decisions and exploring the caregiver's values and circumstances validates their experience without minimizing or dismissing the guilt.
Question 97: What is 'doll therapy' and what is its primary intended outcome in dementia care?
- A cognitive training tool to improve spatial memory
- Use of a realistic baby doll to reduce anxiety and promote nurturing behaviors in some individuals with dementia (Correct answer)
- A social activity exclusively for female residents
- A pediatric play technique used to train caregivers
Correct answer: Use of a realistic baby doll to reduce anxiety and promote nurturing behaviors in some individuals with dementia
Doll therapy can activate caregiving instincts and reduce agitation in selected individuals, though its use requires careful ethical consideration.
Question 98: A person with frontotemporal dementia (FTD) makes sexually inappropriate comments to staff. The MOST likely explanation is:
- Intentional harassment stemming from preserved insight
- A side effect of cholinesterase inhibitor medication
- Disinhibition due to frontal lobe degeneration affecting impulse control (Correct answer)
- Depression manifesting as attention-seeking behavior
Correct answer: Disinhibition due to frontal lobe degeneration affecting impulse control
FTD preferentially damages the frontal lobes, which govern impulse control and social judgment, causing disinhibition that results in inappropriate social behaviors.
Question 99: A resident with dementia repeatedly removes their clothing in common areas. After ruling out medical causes, the BEST intervention is to:
- Immediately administer a PRN sedative
- Use adaptive clothing with back closures and address comfort or sensory needs (Correct answer)
- Restrict the resident to their room during the day
- Apply mittens to prevent hand use
Correct answer: Use adaptive clothing with back closures and address comfort or sensory needs
Adaptive clothing that is difficult to self-remove, combined with assessment of sensory discomfort or heat, addresses the behavior while preserving dignity.
Question 100: A family caregiver of a person with Lewy body dementia asks why their loved one sees animals that aren't there. The MOST accurate educational response is:
- This indicates the dementia has suddenly progressed to a terminal stage
- Visual hallucinations are a hallmark feature of Lewy body dementia related to its neurological mechanisms (Correct answer)
- The person is deliberately making up stories to gain attention
- The hallucinations indicate the person is developing a separate psychiatric disorder
Correct answer: Visual hallucinations are a hallmark feature of Lewy body dementia related to its neurological mechanisms
Visual hallucinations are a defining characteristic of Lewy body dementia, resulting from the disease's specific neurological pathology, not psychiatric illness or intentional fabrication.
Certified Dementia Practitioner (CDP)
The CDP credential, awarded by the NCCDP, certifies healthcare professionals in comprehensive Alzheimer's disease and dementia care, covering behavioral interventions, person-centered care, nutrition, caregiver support, and ethics across the full continuum of dementia care.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds