CCTN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CCTN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which preservation solution is most commonly used for kidney preservation during cold storage? → University of Wisconsin (UW) solution
2. Which lifestyle modification is most important to counsel a transplant recipient about for long-term cardiovascular health? → Smoking cessation, regular exercise, and blood pressure management
3. There are several signs of decreased cardiac output in heart recipients. → Jugular venousdistention
4. Renal artery stenosis after kidney transplantation typically presents with which clinical findings? → Hypertension that is difficult to control and rising creatinine
5. What is the most important nursing assessment parameter in the first 24 hours after kidney transplantation? → Hourly urine output measurement
6. Which type of rejection occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation and is caused by preformed antibodies? → Hyperacute rejection
7. A patient taking tacrolimus is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis. What effect should the transplant nurse anticipate? → Tacrolimus levels will decrease significantly due to CYP3A4 induction
8. Which psychological condition is most commonly seen in transplant recipients awaiting an organ on the waiting list? → Depression and anxiety
9. Which blood group compatibility rule is universally applied in solid organ transplantation? → ABO blood group compatibility between donor and recipient is required
10. Which transplant patient situation requires mandatory referral to social work? → Patient expresses inability to afford medications or housing instability
11. Which apnea test finding confirms brain death during donor evaluation? → No spontaneous respirations with PaCO2 rising to ≥60 mmHg or 20 mmHg above baseline
12. A transplant nurse is educating a recipient about food safety. Which food should be specifically avoided to prevent Listeria monocytogenes infection? → Unpasteurized soft cheeses and ready-to-eat deli meats
13. Which complication is indicated by a sudden cessation of urine output, graft pain, and hematuria in an early post-kidney-transplant patient? → Renal vein thrombosis
14. Chest tube drainage shouldn't go over a certain amount while assessing postoperative mediastinal hemorrhage. → 200 mL in 2 to 6 hours
15. Which of the following is the most important factor in determining a patient's risk for rejection in the first year after transplant? → Number of HLA mismatches
16. What is the primary purpose of performing a liver biopsy on a donor liver before transplantation? → To assess the degree of hepatic steatosis, which affects graft function
17. The insulin type that is most frequently used to manage hyperglycemia following heart transplantation is → Short-acting regular insulin, such as Novolin R.
18. C4d deposition on peritubular capillaries is a hallmark finding in which type of renal transplant rejection? → Antibody-mediated rejection
19. How long after transplantation should female recipients wait before attempting pregnancy? → At least 1–2 years, when graft function is stable and immunosuppression is minimized
20. Acute cellular rejection is primarily mediated by which immune cells? → T lymphocytes
21. What is the primary role of HLA matching in solid organ transplantation? → To reduce the risk of immunologic rejection
22. BK polyomavirus nephropathy is a significant concern primarily in which type of solid organ transplant recipient? → Kidney transplant recipients
23. Which post-transplant complication is caused by lymphatic disruption during surgery and typically presents as a fluid collection near the kidney? → Lymphocele
24. A drop in central venous pressure after heart transplantation may be due to → Low intravascular volume
25. Post-transplant erythrocytosis (PTE) in kidney transplant recipients is best managed by which medication class? → ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers
26. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) inhibits which enzyme to suppress lymphocyte proliferation? → Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
27. Which class of HLA antigens is most important in kidney transplant matching? → HLA-DR
28. Which serologic test must be negative in a potential organ donor to prevent transmission of HIV to the transplant recipient? → HIV-1/2 antibody and HIV NAT (nucleic acid testing)
29. BK virus nephropathy in renal transplant recipients is managed primarily by which intervention? → Reducing immunosuppression to allow immune control of the virus
30. A transplant nurse notes a tacrolimus trough level of 22 ng/mL in a 3-month post-kidney-transplant patient. What is the most appropriate action? → Notify the provider because the level is supratherapeutic