CCT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CCT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which principle from the OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises relates most directly to corporate governance transparency? → Disclosure of material information to shareholders and the public in a timely manner
2. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) prohibits discrimination based on all of the following EXCEPT: → Credit score and payment history
3. The Right to Financial Privacy Act (RFPA) primarily restricts which entity from accessing customer financial records? → Federal government agencies
4. The Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) was enacted to address which practice? → Redlining and disinvestment in low-income communities
5. How does transparency affect corporate governance? → Promotes trust and informed decisions
6. A small physician practice with fewer than 10 full-time employees that transmits claims electronically is considered a: → Covered entity
7. Under the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA), which of the following is NOT considered a 'foreign official'? → A private company employee with no government ties
8. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) prohibits which type of conduct by U.S. companies and their agents? → Bribing foreign government officials to obtain business
9. Which approach BEST demonstrates that an organization takes the 'enforcement of disciplinary standards' element seriously? → Documenting all disciplinary actions and applying sanctions consistently across all levels
10. When an OIG Compliance Program Guidance recommends that providers conduct 'risk assessments,' what is the intended outcome? → To identify areas of greatest compliance vulnerability specific to the organization
11. The Comprehensive Error Rate Testing (CERT) program is designed to measure which of the following? → The Medicare fee-for-service improper payment rate
12. Which enforcement action can the OCC take against a national bank's senior officer for unsafe or unsound banking practices? → Removal from office and prohibition from the banking industry
13. Under the False Claims Act, what is the penalty range per false claim submitted to the government? → $13,946–$27,894 (adjusted for inflation)
14. Under the Exclusion Statute, what is the minimum mandatory exclusion period for an individual convicted of a felony related to Medicare or Medicaid fraud? → 5 years
15. The NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) organizes cybersecurity activities into which five core functions? → Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover
16. What government agency is primarily responsible for investigating healthcare fraud in the Medicare and Medicaid programs? → Office of Inspector General (OIG)
17. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) Section 302, corporate executives must certify which of the following in quarterly and annual filings? → That they have reviewed the report and that internal controls are effective
18. Under the False Claims Act, what is the minimum civil penalty per false claim submitted to the federal government? → $13,946
19. Which element distinguishes 'fraud' from 'abuse' in federal healthcare program enforcement? → Intentional deception or misrepresentation versus inadvertent billing errors
20. Which standard outlines best practices for internal controls? → COSO framework
21. The EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) applies to U.S. companies under which circumstance? → When processing personal data of EU residents regardless of company location
22. Which agency enforces workplace anti-discrimination laws including Title VII of the Civil Rights Act for private sector employers? → EEOC
23. How does compliance affect organizational reputation? → It builds trust and reduces legal risks
24. Which factor is NOT typically considered when calculating a penalty amount under the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for organizations? → The number of employees who knew about the violation
25. What is the role of a compliance officer? → To monitor policy violations and ensure legal compliance
26. A financial institution receives a civil investigative demand (CID) related to mortgage servicing practices. Which agency most likely issued it? → CFPB
27. Which risk assessment technique assigns numerical probabilities and financial values to potential losses to calculate an expected monetary outcome? → Quantitative risk analysis
28. Which international standard provides a framework for anti-bribery management systems that organizations can certify against? → ISO 37001
29. A compliance team uses a heat map to prioritize its monitoring activities. What two dimensions does a risk heat map typically plot? → Likelihood and impact
30. In an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, what is the purpose of a risk appetite statement? → To define the amount and type of risk the organization is willing to accept