Practice Test Geeks(CCS) Certified Cardiovascular Specialist Practice Test
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Treatment Planning & Management Flashcards

7 cards from real CCS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 72-year-old with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis (AVA 0.7 cm², mean gradient 52 mmHg) is deemed high surgical risk. What is the preferred treatment?

    Answer: Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)

    TAVR is the preferred treatment for severe symptomatic AS in high-surgical-risk and intermediate-risk patients, with outcomes equivalent or superior to SAVR.

  2. Which medication reduces hospitalizations in chronic HFpEF (EF ≥50%) and has received FDA approval for this indication?

    Answer: Empagliflozin

    SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) reduce cardiovascular death and HF hospitalizations in HFpEF and have FDA approval for this indication.

  3. A patient with chronic stable angina has a positive stress test and FFR of 0.78 in the LAD. What does this FFR value indicate?

    Answer: Hemodynamically significant stenosis; revascularization beneficial

    FFR ≤0.80 indicates hemodynamically significant stenosis where PCI reduces angina and improves outcomes compared to medical therapy alone.

  4. A patient develops complete heart block after inferior STEMI. Which artery is most likely occluded?

    Answer: Right coronary artery

    The RCA supplies the AV node in approximately 90% of patients; inferior STEMI from RCA occlusion commonly causes transient AV block.

  5. For a patient with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and severe symptoms refractory to disopyramide and beta-blockers, what is the next step?

    Answer: Refer for septal reduction therapy (myectomy or ASA)

    Septal reduction therapy—surgical myectomy or alcohol septal ablation—is recommended for HOCM patients with severe symptoms refractory to maximal medical therapy.

  6. A patient presents with acute pericarditis. Which combination therapy is recommended for the initial episode?

    Answer: Colchicine plus NSAIDs for 3 months

    Colchicine added to NSAIDs (or aspirin) for 3 months reduces recurrence rates by ~50% and is guideline-recommended for initial acute pericarditis.

  7. Which is the preferred antiarrhythmic drug for rhythm control in a patient with atrial fibrillation and significant left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) but no coronary artery disease?

    Answer: Amiodarone

    Significant LVH increases the risk of QT prolongation and torsades with most antiarrhythmics; amiodarone is preferred because it is safer in structural heart disease.